Immune system, Renal system, Hematologic System, Endocrine System Flashcards

Up to cut off of Quiz 2

1
Q

Immunity definition

A

process by which body recognizes foreign substances and neutralizes them to prevent damage

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2
Q

Immunology

A

study of structure and function of immune system

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3
Q

Antigens

A

any foreign substance that does not have the characteristic cell surface markers of an individual and is capable of eliciting an immune response
- antigens are recognized by specific receptors present on them by lymphocytes/antibodies

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4
Q

Antibody

A

produced in response to an antigen, are protein molecules structured in such a way that they only interact with the antigen that induce their synthesis

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5
Q

what are the 2 types of immunity

A
  • innate immunity (natural/native)
  • acquired/adaptive immunity
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6
Q

innate immunity (natural/native)

A
  • first responders to insult
  • response is rapid and same at all times
  • Nonspecific: does not distinguish between different types of invaders (bacteria, virus)
  • Nonadaptive: does not remember the previous encounter
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7
Q

acquired/adaptive immunity

A
  • body knows what to do but also thinks slowly
  • slower response: when reintroduced then rapid and intense immune response
  • Diversity, specificity, memory, self and non-self recognition
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8
Q

Diversity define

A

recognize and destroy foreign material like bacteria, fungi

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9
Q

Specificity define

A

targeted response to a distinct antigen

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10
Q

Memory define

A

when same organism enters again, body respond’s more rapidly to it and with a stronger reaction

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11
Q

Neutrophils are ______ to respond

A

fast to respond

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12
Q

Dendritic cells do what

A

take bacteria with them and take to adaptive immunity

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13
Q

Cytotoxic T cell (CD8) is what to an antigen

A

toxic

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14
Q

Helper T cells (CD4) help with what

A

help B cells make antibodies

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15
Q

Active acquired immunity is…

A
  • development of antibodies in response to an antigen
  • introduction of antigen by either naturally from environmental exposure or artificially by vaccination
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16
Q

passive acquired immunity

A
  • when antibodies produced by one person are transferred to another person either naturally (mother to fetus) or inoculation of antibody
  • breast milk
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17
Q

two types of cells in Adaptive/Acquired Immunity

A
  • humoral-B cells
  • cell mediated-T cells
  • response from these two types of immunity overlap and interact considerably
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18
Q

how do T and B cells migrate throughout the body

A

through blood, lymph, and lymph nodes
- circulate throughout body to find antigen

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19
Q

humoral

A

involving antibodies/immunoglobulins

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20
Q

B lymphocytes originate and mature in

A

bone marrow
- free floating in the body

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21
Q

B lymphocyte-plasma cell can produce 5 types of antibodies; what are they

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

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22
Q

Cell mediated immunity from T cell can …

A

NOT be transferred passively to another person

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23
Q

T lymphocytes originate in _______ and mature in _______

A
  1. bone marrow
  2. Thymus
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24
Q

T cells job

A

recognize the hidden organisms, search them out and destroy on a cell-to-cell basis

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25
helper T cells do what
assist B cells to mature and produce antibodies -activating macrophages and helping them destroy large bacteria - helping other T lymphocytes recognize and destroy virally infected cells - HIV destroys these helper T cells and leaves the body at risk of infections
26
suppressor T cells
suppresses the activation of immune system - may be overactive (keeps body in check) - stops autoimmune
27
Factors altering the immune system
- aging - nutrition - burns - sleep disturbances - concurrent illness and disease - drugs - surgery anesthesia
28
how does nutrition alter immune system
- deficits in cal, protein intake or vitamins like A and E can cause deficiency in T cell function and numbers - zinc deficiency impairs T and B cell function
29
how do burns alter immune system
decrease external defense, decrease neutrophil function, decrease cell mediated and humoral responses
30
what does surgery/anesthesia do to immune system
suppresses T and B cell function up to 1 month post op
31
moderate intensity exercise does what to immune system?
enhances (50-70% of max heart rate)
32
strenuous/intense/long duration exercise ____ immune system
impairs
33
amount of exercise for adults
30 minutes a day 3-5 days/week
34
if sick/cancer what type of exercise should they do
moderate intensity exercise
35
Neutrophils with Exercise immunology
- Exercise: rise in blood levels of neutrophils - after brief gentle exercise - count returns to baseline - after strenuous exercise - return to normal may take 6-24 hrs
36
NK cells with exercise immunology
- once the person is accustomed to a given exercise level, the NK enhancement falls off - after intense exercise, # and activity of NK cells decline, maximum reduction occurs 2-4 hours after the exercise, return to baseline soon
37
lymphocytes with exercise immunology
Increase but decrease below normal for several hours after intense exercise
38
immunodeficiency disorders
immune response is absent/depressed
39
immune system disorders: primary
defect involving the cells - GENETIC
40
immune system disorders: secondary
results from an underlying disease/factor - malnutrition/alcoholism, ageing, autoimmune, MS, MG, RA, Addison's, IBD, cancer, steroids, chemo, radiation, leukemia, lymphomas - HIV/AIDS - MUST follow guidelines with this
41
AIDS
- infection of immune system - human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) - infects CD4 helper T lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and macrophages
42
resultant immunodeficiency
opportunistic infections including unusual cancers, tuberculosis
43
Pathophysiology of AIDS
- transmitted through blood-blood contact, sexual contact, perinatally - infection can occur across mucosal surfaces including vagina, cervix, and anus - unprotected anal/oral/vaginal sex
44
risk factors of AIDS
poverty, illegal drug use, not good access to health care system
45
HIV is what type of virus
retrovirus (genetic material in RNA)
46
transcription is
DNA to mRNA
47
translation is
mRNA to protein
48
HIV has a ______ mutation rate even within a single individual, to fight for survival
high
49
pathogenesis process
1. binding 2. fusion 3. reverse transcription 4. integrated 5. transcription 6. translation 7. assembly 8. budding and release 9. HIV replication
50
binding in pathogenesis is
binding of virus to CD4+ cells after it enters the blood stream
51
fusion in pathogenesis is
fusion and contents of the viral core enter host cells
52
reverse transcription is what
when the genetic information of the virus from viral RNA to double stranded DNA, reverse transciptase
53
integrated with pathogenesis is
integrated into host DNA and replicated many times
54
transcription is what
double stranded DNA to single stranded RNA
55
assembly is what with pathogenesis
new HIV proteins and RNA assemble and move to the surface of the cells
56
HIV replication is what in pathogenesis
killing of CD4+ cells release of HIV copies into the bloodstream- viral particles invade other CD4+ cells- infection progresses
57
True or False: all people with HIV have AIDS
false
58
asymptomatic HIV seropositive characteristics
positive for HIV antibodies; CD4 count >500 cells/mm3) no symptoms positive for antibodies can be asymptomatic for 1-20 yrs - clinically healthy, normal ADLs, unrestricted level and duration of exercise
59
symptomatic HIV characteristics
CD4 count between 200-500 cells/mm3 has symptoms left untreated - eventually progress to advanced HIV disease
60
HIV advanced disease (AIDS) characteristics
<200 cells/mm3 - Neurologic involvement - opportunistic infections
61
HIV encephalopathy is
gait disturbances, intension tremors
62
HIV associated dementia
apathy, lethargy, social withdrawal, depression, memory impairment
63
Peripheral neuropathies
pain, sensory loss, motor deficits, gait disturbances
64
P. carinii pneumonia
fungal infection of lungs, risk for pneumonia, cough, shortness of breath, fever
65
malignancies
Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma
66
dermatologic conditions of AIDS
hair loss, rash, delayed wound healing, bacterial, viral infection, fungal infections, dry flaking skin, thinning of skin/hair, kaposi sarcoma
67
neuro-musculoskeletal diseases are
osteomyelitis, myositis, arthritis, myopathy
68
Treatment of HIV
no cure, current medications decrease the amount of virus in the body - HAART: highly active antiretroviral therapy - recommended - according to the symptoms use NSAIDS
69
HIV and Rehabilitative Therapy
- HIV is considered a chronic illness rather than terminal illness - neuro: stroke, peripheral neuropathy, gait, balance training - musculoskeletal: soft tissue/joint mobilization, stretching/strengthening (bands/weights), posture - cardiopulmonary -integumentary - exercises at all stages - early stage HIV - advanced stage/chronic HIV
70
hypersensitivity disorders are
abnormal and excessive response of the activated immune system that causes injury and damage to the tissues - hypersensitivity reactions/allergy - allergens mild>severe>life threatening
71
what are the 4 types of hypersensitivity disorders
type 1: IgE mediated; most common; immediate type 2: IgG, IgM mediated type 3: IgG, IgM mediated; complement-mediated type 4: T cell mediated
72
autoimmune disorders type 2...
- Addison's disease - Crohn's disease - type 1 diabetes mellitus - polymyositis/dermatomyositis - thyroiditis - ulcerative colitis - MS - MG - RA
73
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
type 3 systemic reaction, autoimmune disease - antigen antibody complex deposition and inflammation common in women - chronic system disease - wherever they go is where the rash is - commonly: skin, kidneys, MSK
74
treatment of Lupus is
- anti-inflammatory: NSAIDS - immunosuppressive: corticosteroids
75
why immunocompromised patients are at great risk for cancer?
less weapons to fight the war
76
people can suffer from the same illness as a cold, many times. what is a possible explanation for this?
don't have antibodies, different strains, immunocompromised
77
Why is there less chance of rejection when a transplant occurs between identical twins? is the chance of rejection the same if the twins are fraternal (not identical)?
- genetically the same with identical twins, so that means less chance of rejection - different for fraternal twins
78
what is a part of the urinary system
- two kidneys - two ureters - urinary bladder - urethra
79
what is the function of kidneys
- filter the blood and produce urine - regulation of plasma ionic composition - regulation of plasma volume - regulation of plasma osmolarity - regulation of plasma hydrogen ion concentration (pH)
80
what are the secondary functions of the kidneys
- secrete erythropoietin - secrete renin - activate vitamin D3
81
erythropoietin function
stimulates erythrocytes production by bone marrow
82
renin function
necessary for production of angiotensin 2, a hormone which regulates salt and water balance - control of blood pressure
83
what does vitamin D3 do?
regulates calcium and phosphate levels
84
parts of the kidney
- cortex (outer) - medulla (inner or pyramids) - papilla (innermost tip of inner medulla)
85
kidneys have how many nephrons
1 Million +
86
what forms urine?
nephrons
87
anatomy of nephron
- functional unit of kidney - consist of renal corpuscles and renal tubule - renal corpuscles - renal tubule
88
what are the two classes of nephrons
superficial/cortical nephron Juxtamedullary nephron
89
glomerular filtration is
first step in the formation of urine
90
fluid that is filtered in nephron is
filtrate/glomerular filtrate/ultrafiltrate
91
ultrafiltrate contains what
water and all of the small solutes of the blood
92
oncotic pressure is
pressure due to presence of proteins in the blood
93
how much plasma flows through kidneys each minute
~625 mL
94
normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) ranges from ______ in young adults
120-130 ml/min/1.73 m2 - declines with age
95
Stage 1 of Chronic kidney disease
90+ GFR 90-100% function kidney damage with normal kidney function
96
Stage 2 of Chronic kidney disease
89 to 60 GFR 89-60% function kidney damage with mild loss of kidney function
97
Stage 3a of Chronic kidney disease
59 to 45 GFR and % function mild to moderate loss of kidney function
98
Stage 3b of Chronic kidney disease
44 to 30 GFR and % function moderate to severe loss of kidney function
99
Stage 4 of Chronic kidney disease
29 to 15 GFR and % function severe loss of kidney function
100
Stage 5 of Chronic kidney disease
less than 15 GFR and % function kidney failure
101
Flitration process
- across glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space - the bulk flow of protein-free plasma from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman's capsule -filtered load
102
reabsorption process
- water and many solutes (sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, lactate, citrate) are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate into the peritubular capillary - transporters in the membrane of epithelial cells
103
Secretion process
- few substances like organic acids, bases, potassium are secreted from pertubular capillary blood to tubular fluid. mechanism of excreting substances in the urine involves transporters in the membrane of epithelial cells lining the nephron
104
excretion process
is the net result or sum of processes of filtration, reabsorption and secretion - excretion: (filtration - reabsorption) + secretion
105
Normal values for routine urinalysis
Color: yellow amber appearance: clear to slightly hazy Volume: 600-2500ml/24hr Glucose: negative ketones: negative Protein: negative RBC: negative WBC: negative
106
Renal Function Tests
GFR Serum creatinine (creatinine levels in the blood) blood urea nitrogen (normal: 7-20 mg/dl) ultrasonography radiologic examination (CT, MRI, Xray films)
107
proteinuria
protein in urine
108
glucosuria
glucose in urine
109
ketonuria
ketones in urine
110
hematuria
red blood cells in urine
111
pyuria
WBC in urine
112
bacteruria
bacteria in urine
113
cystic kidney disease
fluid filled sacs or segments that have their origin in the tubular structures of the kidney - single/multiple; cysts of varying size- replace functional tissue- progressive nature- loss of renal function- renal failure - inherited or acquired - autosomal dominant (most common)
114
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)
account for 10% of the cases of end stage renal disease (ESRD) 4th leading cause of ESRD - progression is slow - kidneys enlarged and contours of the kidney distorted
115
manifestations of ADPKD include
- pain from enlarged cysts, lumbar pain, flank pain, infected cysts from UTIs, swollen tender abdomen - hemturia - enlarged kidneys - hypertension from compression of intra-renal blood vessels with activation of renin-angiotensin mechanism - headaches, nausea, anorexia - continued disease is extra-renal manifestations
116
what mutation causes ARPKD
PKHD1 gene
117
glomerular disease
group of conditions that damage kidney filtering units (glomeruli) includes: glomerulonephritis (inflammation) and glomerulonephritis (scarring)
118
glomerulonephritis
group of disease that affect both kidneys, inflammation of glomeruli - men more than women - acute/chronic - forms: nephritic syndrome and nephrotic syndrome
119
common causes of Chronic Kidney disease
- diabetes mellitus - hypertension - glomerulonephritis - cystic kidney disease - urine obstructions
120
in stage 1 of chronic kidney disease
- no overt symptoms - unaffected nephrons undergo structural and physiologic hypertrophy to make up for the lost ones - early manifestations include hypertension and anemia - increase in BUN and creatinine
121
in stage 2 of chronic kidney disease
- small amount of albumin is excreted in the urine - with proper control of hypertension and blood glucose levels- might not progress
122
in stage 3 of chronic kidney disease
- albumin levels increase in urine and decrease in blood - edema - levels of BUN and creatinine increase, accumulation of waste products in the blood called azotemia
123
in stage 4 and 5 of chronic kidney disease
- complication appear - proteinuria - progressive increase of BUN and creatinine levels, patients are hypertensive
124
Stage 5 of chronic kidney disease
- kidneys cannot excrete toxins, maintain pH, fluid electrolyte function, secrete important hormones (renin, vit D, erythropoietin) - uremia (toxins not removed from blood): no treatment would lead to coma/death
125
clinical manifestations of CKD
tired, weak, pale skin color due to anemia and toxins itching, dryness, decreased sweating metallic taste in mouth, fishy breathe cardiopulmonary: hypertension platelet dysfunction anorexia, nausea, vomiting, ulcerations electrolyte imbalances pleuritis, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema recurrent infections
126
peritoneal dialysis
can be done at home - continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis - continuous cycle assisted peritoneal dialysis
127
blood composition
- plasma (55%) - RBC: 4.8-5.4 billion/ul - platelets: 150000-400000/ul - WBCs: 5000-10000/ul
128
neutrophils do what
acute inflammation - kills bacteria - first ones there * majority
129
lymphocytes are what
T & B cells
130
monocytes
baby macrophages
131
eosinophils
allergic response
132
plasma function
- transport vehicles for nutrients, chemical messengers, metabolites - maintain electrolytes and acid/base balance
133
plasma proteins
- albumin - globulins - fibrinogen
134
albumin
- most common - pulls water back into blood - maintains plasma oncotic pressure and maintain blood volume 0 serves as a carrier ^ in water = decrease in pressure
135
globulins
- alpha - transports bilirubin = liver - beta - transports iron - gamma - antibodies of immune system
136
fibrinogen
helps form fibrin for blood clotting - blood clot with platelets
137
is plasma anticoagulated or clotted
anticoagulated
138
plasma is what
liquid, cell-free part of blood, that has been treated with anti-coagulants
139
anticoagulated is what?
make clotting factors not work
140
is serum anticoagulated or clotted
clotted
141
what is serum
liquid part of blood AFTER coagulation, therfore devoid of clotting factors as fibrinogen
142
RBCs are...
most common type of blood cell, nonnucleated biconcave disk
143
each molecule of hemoglobin carries ____ molecule of oxygen
4 molecules
144
production of red blood cells is called as _______
erythropoiesis
145
hematocrit is what
volume of cells in 100 ml of blood - height of erythrocyte column/height of whole blood column x 100
146
high hematocrit =
polycythemia
147
hematopoiesis =
production of blood cells - derived from hematopoietic stem cells
148
anemia
common acquired/inherited disorder of erythrocytes - abnormally low number of RBCs or levels of hemoglobin
149
Anemia clinical features
- weakness - fatigue - dyspnea - hypoxia of brain tissue - pallor - tachycardia and palpitations - severe cases: ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure - increase respirator rate - diffuse bone pain
150
iron deficiency anemia
151
megaloblastic anemia
152
sickle cell disease
153
normal
154
Iron deficiency anemia is
- iron is needed for hemoglobin production and formation of erythrocytes - cause: decreased iron consumption, decreased iron absorption, increased bleeding, increased iron demand
155
groups @ risk of iron deficiency anemia
- pregnant women - women with heavy menstrual bleeding - infants and younger children - frequent blood donor - people with cancer, GI diseases/surgery- who report of chronic blood loss - vegetarian diet
156
clinical features of IDA
- brittle nails in spoon shaped - headache - delayed healing - palpitations - decreased appetite
157
IDA diagnosis
low hemoglobin and hematocrit RBCs microcytic and hypochromic serum ferritin serum iron
158
IDA treatment
treating the cause of iron deficiency consuming iron rich foods iron supplements foods/supplements with high vit C (promotes absorption of iron)
159
what causes megaloblastic anemia
B12 deficiency folic acid deficiency
160
clinical features of Megaloblastic Anemia
- bleeding gums - diarrhea - anorexia - demyelination - impaired sense of smell - personality/memory changes - mild jaundice
161
Hemolytic Anemia is the result of
excessive/premature destruction or hemolysis of erythrocytes; an increase in erythropoiesis
162
causes of Hemolytic anemia
idiopathic autoimmunity infections genetics blood transfusion reactions
163
types of hemolytic anemia
sickle cell anemia thalassemia
164
Sickle cell anemia
genetic type crescent or sickle shaped cells S Hemoglobin RBCs lifespan is reduced to 16 days
165
what is point mutation
when is transitioned from HbA to HbS
166
What is thalassemia?
genetic, results in abnormal Hb absence of alpha or beta globin
167
normal range of platelets
150,000 - 350,000 cells/ml
168
thrombocytosis is
increased platelets
169
thrombocytopenia is
decreased platelets levels, increased risk of bleeding and infection
170
what is melena
blood in the stool
171
Disorders of WBCs
- Leukocytosis - Leukocytopenia - neutropenia - neutrophilia - lymphocytosis - lymphocytopenia - leukemia
172
leukocytosis
increased WBCs
173
leukocytopenia
decreased WBCs
174
neutropenia
decrease number of circulating neutrophils
175
neutrophilia
increase in number of circulating neutrophils
176
lymphocytosis
increased lymphocytes
177
lymophocytopenia
decreased lymphocytes
178
leukemia
cancer of leukocytes
179
what is responsible for homeostasis
endocrine system + nervous system
180
dose-response relationship
magnitude of response is correlated with hormone concentration
181
down-regulation
mechanism in which a hormone decreases the number or affinity of its receptors in a target tissue
182
up-regulation
number or affinity of the receptors for the hormone has increased - increasing the synthesis of new receptors
183
hypothalamus does
sleep wake cycles
184
adrenal gland does
blood pressure regulation
185
pituitary gland does
growth, metabolism, and reproduction
186
thyroid gland does
regulates the body's metabolism
187
parathyroid gland does
regulates calcium levels in the blood
188
pancreas does
digestion and blood sugar regulation
189
pineal gland does
melatonin, sleep cycles
190
thymus gland does
T cell maturation
191
negative feedback loop in regulation of hormone secretion
when hormone levels are judged to be adequate or high - self limiting
192
positive feedback loop in regulation of hormone secretion
'rare' or special circumstance - breastfeeding - contractions started = increased hormone
193
hypothalamus releases what hormones
TRH, CRH, GnRH, GHRH, somatostatin, dopamine
194
anterior pituitary releases what hormones
TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH, MSH, growth hormone, prolactin
195
Posterior pituitary releases what hormones
Oxytocin, ADH
196
Thyroid releases what
T3,T4, calcitonin
197
parathyroid releases
PTH
198
pancreas releases
insulin, glucagon
199
adrenal medulla releases
norepinephrine, epinephrine
200
adrenal cortex releases
cortisol, aldosterone, adrenal androgens
201
testes releases
testosterone
202
ovaries release
estradiol, progesterone
203
what is the infundibulum
where the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are connected
204
somatotropin (growth hormone)
stimulates growth synthesis and overall growth
205
what hormones in the pituitary are trophic hormones
TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH, ADH, and oxytocin
206
What hormones in the pituitary are non trophic hormones
somatotropin (growth hormone) and prolactin
207
which hormones are stimulants from hypothalamus
thyrotropin-releasing hormone corticotrophin-releasing hormone gonadotrophin-releasing hormone growth hormone-releasing hormone
208
which hormones are inhibitors released by hypothalamus
somatotropin-release inhibiting hormone dopamine or prolactin-inhibiting hormones
209
primary altered endocrine function
dysfunction of the target gland specific gland
210
secondary altered endocrine function
gland not receiving appropriate stimulation - pituitary gland
211
tertiary altered endocrine function
defect in the hypothalamus
212
hypopituitarism
decreased secretion of pituitary hormones - congenital or acquired causes: pituitary surgery/radiation, infections, infarction, hemorrhage, hypothalamic disorder, genetic disease
213
what is the typical sequence of anterior pituitary hypofunction
"Go Look For The Adenoma" -GH - LH - FSH - TSH - ACTH
214
what therapy is most common for anterior pituitary hypofunction
hormone replacement therapy
215
hormones essential for normal growth and maturation
GH insulin thyroid hormone androgens: testosterone and dihydrotestosterone
216
GHRH does what
increase GH release
217
what does somatostatin do
inhibits GH release
218
direct effect of growth-promoting actions of growth hormone are
increased linear growth, increased size and function, increased lean muscle
219
anti-insulin effects from growth hormone are
decrease in adiposity increased blood glucose
220
Growth hormone deficiency in children presents as
short stature (height less than 3rd percentile); pituitary dwarfism increased subcutaneous fat in the abdominal area immature facial features like underdeveloped nasal bridge, delayed dentition short stature
221
growth hormone excess in children is
Gigantism rare before puberty and fusion epiphysis of the long bones high levels of IGF-1 stimulate excessive skeletal growth complications because of body mass and excessive secretion of other hormones
222
growth hormone excess in ADULTS is known as
acromegaly occurs after the epiphysis of long bones have fused annual incidence: 3-4 cases/million people increased blood levels of GH and IGF-1
223
clinical manifestations of Acromegaly
bones cannot grow tall, but get thicker, soft tissues continues to grow enlargement of small bones of hand/feet and bones of face and skull
224
antidiuretic hormone is the ...
major hormone concerned with regulation of body fluid osmolarity
225
antidiuretic hormone helps with
reabsorption
226
factors that stimulate the secretion of ADH by the posterior pituitary:
increased plasma osmolarity hypovolemia
227
diabetes insipidus is
inability of body to properly regulate water balance - excessive thirst (polydipsia) & dilute urine (polyuria) - excess amount of ADH
228
polyuria is
excessive urination
229
polydipsia is
excessive thirst and water consumption can lead to polyuria
230
when there is less water in the body, there would be _____ of the other solutes
more concentrated
231
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
excessive release of ADH - water intoxication due to fluid retention
232
hyponatremia is
sodium levels in blood is too low
233
severe hyponatremia can result in what
lethargy, nausea, weakness, muscle cramps, headache, irritability, seizures, coma
234
plasma osmolarity is only a problem with
water NOT sodium (sodium is diluted)
235
what helps diagnosis hyponatremia
hyponatremia (serum sodium < 135mEq/L) plasma osmolality < 280 mOsm/kg decreased urine output concentrated urine (dark yellow to amber color
236
what is the treatment of hyponatremia
medications (vasopressin receptor) fluid restrictions hypertonic IV solution
237
diabetes insipidus, if left untreated, will rapidly develop into:
dehydration
238
Adrenal gland location
above the kidneys (suprarenal glands)
239
adrenal medulla secretes
catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
240
adrenal cortex secretes
adrenocorticoids
241
types of adrenocorticoids
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
242
glucocorticoids key hormones
cortisol
243
mineralocorticoids key hormones
aldosterone
244
androgens key hormones
DHEA, androstenedione
245
Mineralocorticoids does what
regulate reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+ by kidneys, water balance, blood pressure
246
glucocorticoids does what
regulate body's response to stress, protein, lipid and carbohydrate metabolism, blood glucose levels, immune/inflammatory response
247
adrenal androgens does what
regulate reproductive function, and pubic and axillary hair growth
248
all adrenocortical steroids are made up of
cholesterol
249
actions of Mineralocorticoids
increase sodium reabsorption, potassium excretion, and hydrogen excretion blood pressure regulation
250
increase in aldosterone =
increased BP
251
what does the kidney release?
renin
252
function of glucocorticoids
cortisol is essential for life! - contribute to effective stress response - stimulates glucose production, decreases tissue glucose utilization - increases breakdown of proteins - decrease capillary permeability and inhibit edema formation - inhibit bone formation
253
in males, adrenal androgens play a ________ role
minor
254
in females, adrenal androgens are a ________ role
major
255
Adrenal cortical insufficiency primary, secondary, and tertiary levels
primary: destruction of adrenal gland secondary: disorder of pituitary gland tertiary: hypothalamic defects
256
what is addison's disease?
primary adrenal insufficiency, rare disorder, most serious endocrine disorder, can lead hypotension, shock and death
257
Adrenal Crisis: red flags
it is a potentially life-threatening medical emergency that requires management in a hospital or ER should wear a medical alert ID
258
what is cushing syndrome
high levels of cortisol due to different reasons
259
endogenous excess glucocorticoid
caused by excessive production of ACTH - cushing's
260
exogenous excess glucocorticoid
caused by taking glucocorticoid drugs
261
excessive glucocorticoid hormone presents as
"moon face" steroid diabetes
262
lupus is an autoimmune type _____
type 3