Immune System Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Infectious Process

Infectious diseases can be bacteria, viruses, fungi, and animal or insect-borne parasites that enter the body by penetrating natural bariers

_____ are the single most common cause of infectious diseases

The transmission of infection or disease requires an _____ chain of events to enable one host to infect another

Transmission can be via (3) with body fluids

A

Viruses

unbroken chain of events

Airborne, Droplet, Direct contact (in order of most to least contagious)

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2
Q

Chain of Transmission

  1. ______ = organism exists in large numbers
  2. Portal of _____
  3. ____ of Transmission = a way to get into host (blood/bodily fluids)
  4. Portal of _____ = any epithelial border
  5. ______ Victim: pt characteristics that increase likelihood of infection (poor nutrition, immunocompromised)
A
  1. Reservoir
  2. Portal of Exit
  3. Mode of Transmission
  4. Portal of Entry
  5. Susceptible Victim
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3
Q

Infectious Process

Control of disease acquisition depends on ____ the chain of transmission in one or more places

  • # 1 way to prevent spread of infection is?
  • Optimal nutrition: especially in low income countries with bad sanitation
A

Breaking the chain

hand washing

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4
Q

Host Characteristics Influencing Infection

The ability and speed with which a host can clear an infection depends on many factors

  • Exposure
    • En_____
    • Hy____
    • Social B____
    • T______
  • Host Health
    • N______ Status
    • A_____ Exposure
A
  • Exposure
    • Environmental
    • Hygiene
    • Social Behaviors
    • Travel
  • Host Health
    • Nutritional Status
    • Antibiotic Exposure
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5
Q

Climate Change

has effected the spread of many vector-borne diseases

Environmental factors influence the likelihood of exposure and infection by microorganisms. S_____, a__ quality, living con_____, and cli___ are important factors

Rising _____ and longer warm _____ increase the pro_____ and terr____ of disease vectors such as mosq____ and t_____

As a result, there has been a world-wide rise in diseases such as Malaria, Dengue fever, west nile virus, lyme disease, ____ virus, and others

A

Sanitation, air quality, living conditions, climate

temperatures, longer seasons, proliferation and territories, mosquitos, ticks

Zika virus

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6
Q

5 Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Resistance

(1): Bacteria can produce ____ that inactivate drugs (e.g B-_____ can inactivate penicillins)

(1): Bacteria can create a modified _____ that is no longer susceptible to the antibiotic

(1): A reduction in _____ of the bacteria to the drug prevents entry through the bacterial wall

(1): Bacteria can employ an export mechanism that uses an (1) (H+) to actively ____ ____ the drug

(1): amplifying the target of the antibiotic (by ____ by 1000 so drug dosage is ineffective)

A

Antibiotic inactivation: enzymes, B-lactamase

Target modification: modifies target

Decreased influx: permeability

Efflux pumps: ion gradients (H+), pump out

Target Amplification: multiplying

All the above mechanisms result from the expression of resistant genes

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7
Q

Bacteria Resistance Genes

Acquired through 2 mechanisms

Gene _____

Gene _____ - conjugation

A

Gene Mutation

Gene Transfer-Conjugation

ex) we have a bunch of cells susceptible to penicillin with just few that aren’t susceptible bc they produce penicillinase -> penicillin then wipes out al the cells w/o penicillinase leaving a diff gene pool -> penicillanse cells start to multiply rapidly and can transfer penicillinase producing genes to othe rbacteria that don’t have it (two bacteria connect through cytoplasmic bridge and share genes) -> comingling diff varietes of bacteria can actually increase likelihood that resistant gene switches to other cells

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8
Q

What does this picture show?

A

Historical progression of Staphylococcus aureus resistance to antibiotics

Overall, it is shortly after we introduce abx that we start to see resistance

RESISTANCE IS INEVITABLE

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9
Q

What does this picture show?

A

The developing world will suffer more from antibiotic resistance bc of sanitation, infrastructure is not there

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10
Q

Hazard Levels of different Antibiotic Resistant Pathogens

Urgent

Serious

Concerning

A
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11
Q

What problem does this picture show?

A

Problem with Agricultural use of antibiotics

  • actually about 1/4 of abx is on humans
  • and about 3/4 is used on livestock!
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12
Q

Examples of Abx use in Animals

After _____

___-Cow therapy

Before T_____

Potential Out____

S_____ conditions

It is not uncommon for ______ to give abx to animals that are not currently ill with a particular disease, but are at high risk of acquiring an infection.

A

After Surgery

Dry-Cow Therapy (to produce more milk)

Before Transportation

Potential Outbreaks

Stressful Conditions

veternarians

No one pays attention to agricultural policy but it has everything to do with human health….-pesticides, cost of food, etc.

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13
Q

Historical Perspective: Immunizations

  • The rise of civilization with the domestication of plants and animals permitted people to live in denser communities with each other and their animals. Such proximity provided ideal breeding ground for infectious pathogens, and their spread resulted in _____ throughout the world.
  • As people began to question the underlying causes of disease and the apparent protection to reinfection afforded to some survivors of a disease, ideas of _____ and disease p_____ were born, apparently as early as the 5th century.
  • The concept of immunity goes back at least to the 17th century when e_____ K’ang of China documented his practice of v_____, or in______ of his troops and his own children with s_____ to confer protection from the disease
  • Variolation involved taking liquid froma smallpox p____ of an infected patient, cutting the skin of an uninfected person, and then introducing the inoculum.
  • Approximately 2-3% of ppl would die from varioloation compared to 20-30% who died from natural infection with small pox.
A
  • Epidemics
  • immunity, disease prevention
  • Emperor, variolation, inoculation, smallpox
  • pustule
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14
Q

Immunzations: Historical Perspective

  • In 1796, Edward Jenner, who coined the term ______ from vacca, Latin for “cow”, helped to advance vaccine _____.
  • He tested the hypothesis that smallpox protection could be achieved by using cowpox, a nonfatal, self-limited disease in humans caused by a virus of the Poxviridae family that includes monkeypox and smallpox and that can spread from cows to humans.
  • Jenner infected a boy with _____ pus from an infected milkmaid; the boy mildly got ill from cowpox, recovered, and when challenged with smallpox collected from scabs of a smallpox pt, was unaffected, showed no symptoms, and was fully proteted against the disease.
  • With continued progress over time in our ability to understand the infectious process, develop safer and more effective vaccines, and provide them to peopl around the globe smallpox was “eliminated” in 1979.
A

vaccination, safety

cowpox

FIRST ACTUAL VACCINATION

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15
Q

Immunzations: historical Perspective

In 1955, Jonas Salk released a vaccine against the ____virus. The Salk vaccine, an _____ virus preparation administered by injection, was followed in 1961 by the Sabin oral vaccine, which employs an att_____ poliovirus that provides immunity to all three types of poliovirus

As a result of the polio vaccines, the annual # of cases in the US fell to 161 in 1961 from 35,000 in 1955.

A

Polio, inactivated, oral vaccine, attenuated

  • Polio can cause paralysis and was incredibly common*
  • Jonas Salk released an inactive virus vaccination and then later an oral vaccine*
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16
Q

Polio

Red areas =

Yellow areas =

A

Polio is not gone, we still have some countries where it is an epidemic

Indigenous

Imported from ppl who traveled to those red countries

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17
Q

How Vaccines Work

Most modern vaccinations involve the introduction of an ______ Antigen into tissue. Frequently the antigens are attached to ________.

The antigen is then taken up by ______ (macrophages and/or dendritis cells) which then “present” the antigen to ____ cells

Activated CD4 cells then trigger proliferation of __ and ___ cells, creating ______.

A

attenuated, ADJUVANTS

phagocytes, CD4

B and CD8 cells, immunity

most vaccines = attenuated antigen

very few vaccinations = attenuated live virus - a live virus that is weakened so cannot replicate

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18
Q

Adjuvants

Enhance production of immunity

(3) mechanisms

Example: What is Aluminum Hydoxide gel (Alum)?

A
  1. Creates a reservoir/depot to slow absorption at injection site so more likely macrophage and dendritic cells will arrive and phagocytize
  2. Enhance antigen presenation
  3. Enhance CD4 activation and proliferation

Widely used Adjuvant in human vaccines- it creates depots for slower absorption and enhances the activation of Th2 cells (also misinformation example -> ppl think aluminum causes alzhemiers, neurotoxicity -> but not the same form, good safety profile)

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19
Q

Vaccine Preventable Diseases

  • About __ preventable diseases and we tend to vaccinate at different points in life
    • ​Frequency and booster depends on the disease
A

17

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20
Q

CDC Recommended Vaccine Schedule from Birth - 18 years

Range of times + catch up times

  • Starts at birth like Hep C
    • Ppl will be like omg 6 vaccines for a 2 mth old that’s too much but in reality?
A

In reality a baby will expose itself to more things in a day by putting things it its mouth- simply our immune system will not be overwhelmed by 6 targeted vaccines, child may have fever but not bc their sick but evidence that their immune system is working

Also is all in 1 needle with all 6 vaccines inside (not multiple sticks)

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21
Q

CDC Recommended Vaccine Schedule for Adults

Tdap protects us from (1), we actually have outbreaks every year and recommendation is if you are an adult with a young child you should get it more _____ than every __ years

HZV - herpes zoster virus is the same as the chicken pox virus, sometimes reemerges later in life and causes _____

A

whooping cough, more often than 10 years if adult withh child

shingles

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22
Q

Vaccine Type and Disease Prevented

Hep B: vaccine only includes the ____ antigen

Rotavirus: vaccine is a ____ virus- for infants that drink the liquid what should you tell the parents?

DTap: not the bacteria itself just the bacterial ______ (toxoid)

A

surface

live - anyone immune suppressed should avoid diaper changes bc the baby will shed the rotavirus in the next two BM’s

protein

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23
Q

Vaccine Health Stats

  1. Hep B: In those who get infected around the time of ____, 90% develop chronic hepatitis B while less than 10% of those infected after the age of five do. Mortality of chronic disease ~25%
  2. Rotovirus: Most common cause of _____ diseases world-wide. Rotavirus caused 37% of deaths of children from diarrhea and 215,000 deaths worldwide.
  3. Dtap: Diptheria complications include myo____, neph___, thrombocytopenia, temporary ____ and is fatal in 5-10% of cases. Tetanus causes muscle spasm disease (___ jaw) - complications include bone fr______ and 10% fatality. Pertussis causes (1) aka 100 day cough - complications include apnea and death in children.
  4. HiB (Haemophilus influenza B): A major life-threatening childhood bacterial disease, including buccal, preseptal, and orbital cell____, epiglottitis, bacteremia with sepsis, and men_____.
A
  1. birth
  2. diarrheal
  3. myocarditis, nephropathy, paralysis, lock jaw, bone fractures, whooping cough
  4. cellulitis, meningitis

Imp to vaccinate for Hep B ASAP bc childbirth high risk for transmission to the infant through lots of exposure to maternal blood at birht

Pertussis particular deadly in children

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24
Q

Vaccine Health Stats

  1. Pneumococcal: The gram-positive encapsulated S.**pneumoniae causes invasive diseases in infants and young children, including men____, bacteremia, and s____, and pneumonia. Complications include _____ damage, _____ loss, and death.
  2. Inactivated Polio Virus (IPV): Poliomyelitis or infantile ______ - causes muscle paralysis leading to temp or permanent paralysis and/or loss of r_____ muscle control
  3. Influenza (IIV, LAIV): Complications of influenza include p_____, sepsis, and death
  4. MMR: Complications of Measles range from diarrhea to pneumonia, and also include b____ inflammation, physical scars, corneal _____, and death.
A
  1. meningitis, sepsis, brain damage, hearing loss
  2. paralysis, respiratory
  3. pneumonia
  4. brain inflammation, corneal ulcerations

Influenza that turns into pna is one of the top 10 causes of death in adults in the US

25
Q

Vaccine Health Stats

  1. Varicella (VAR): Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, bacterial sk___ infections, and death
  2. Hepatitis A (HepA): Acute ____ failure is rare but can occur
  3. HPV2, HPV4 Human papillomavirus: Causes genital ____ and pre_____ lesions, implicate din 70% of all ______ cancers
  4. Meningococcal (Hib-MenCy): Invasive bacterial diseases like m_____ and sepsis - can be fatal.
A
  1. skin
  2. liver
  3. genital warts, precancerous lesions, cervical cancers
  4. meningitis

We’re discovering that there’s a whole host of cancers of the rectum and anus in men also caused by HPV - so important for both young women and men to get vaccinated

26
Q

Why are so some parents so afraid of vaccinating their children?

Main answer = ______

Single study put out by British Gastroenterologist in 90’s Andrew Wakefield proposed there was a connection between the ____ vaccine and _____ and article was published in a highly reputable medical journal but later found the study was erroneous and _____ much info (Lancet journal retracted the article and wakefield lost his medical license)

Unfortunately, Wakefield is still out there, citing his own work, falsifying info and scaring parents -> still seeing the effects of this misinformation

A

Fear

MMR vaccine and Autism

Falsified

27
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

A growing number of parents are choosing not to vaccinate their children

Parents cite many reasons for this - it’s important to LISTEN to their reasons

Some Common misunderstandings:

  1. “Polio and other serious diseases are not present in the US anymore”?
  2. “Vaccines cause injury (autism, neuro injury, etc)”?
  3. “The current vaccine schedule overwhelm’s a child’s immune system”
  4. “Why do they want to vaccinate my newborn baby for a sexually transmitted disease?”
A
  1. By maintaining generations of immunity to polio, if it is ever reintroduced, likelihood of it taking hold is very low, has to not be seen globally for an extended period of time before stopping the vaccination
  2. All studies have found 0 connection with autism, but in terms of other injuries there is an extensive network in this country to track potential vaccine induced injuries and vaccine court to compensate
  3. Child in a day is exposed to thousands of antigens from putting hands in mouth, 6 vaccines/day is a drop in the bucket
  4. (Hep B), high risk time for baby to contract from mother and very high likelihood for developing a chronic disease and suffering dearly for it
28
Q

Common Misunderstandings cont.

How should you respond to the below?

  1. “If the vaccines work then other parents shouldn’t worry about my choice to not vaccinate”
  2. “Based on my research into the issue, vaccines contain dangerous additives and are an unnecessary risk to my child”
  3. “If you get a vaccine for an illness you may contract that illness and pass it to others.”
  4. “I don’t need to vaccinate my children, they will be protected by “herd immunity”.
A
  1. Vaccines work but not 100% effective, works by boosting herd immunity, reducing exposure and eventually organism can’t circulate and there are children that are too young to get vaccines, so protects ppl that can’t get it yet
  2. Extensively studied additives, no evidence of danger or risk
  3. NO
  4. Herd immunity protects those who cannot be vaccinated, but herd immunity requires HIGH HIGH vaccine compliance (ie measles requires >90% but some parts of country <80%)
29
Q

Experiments on POC

  • A lack of ____ in: Pharmaceutical manufacturers, government agencies (FDA, CDC), and the medical establishment
  • Tuskegee syphilis study: 1932-1972 the purpose was to observe the natural progression of untreated syphilis on rural ____ _____ males. By US Public Health Service- the Men were told they they were getting free ____ for participating in the study but never were.
  • There’s a long history of the US conducting experiments on People of _____, the m____/chronically ill, and men and women in _____.
  • 1942: Federally funded study injected experimental ___ vaccine in male pts at a state asylum in Ypsilanti, Michigan and exposed men to the flu several months later, work was co-authored by (1) - v sad
  • 1957: Federal researchers _____ Asian flu virus in the noses of 23 inmates at a prison in Jessup MD to compare to a group of 32 inmates who were exposed to both the flu and experimental vaccine.
  • 1946-1948: Guatemala syphilis study - US researchers infected sol_____, pro_____, and as_____ pts with _____ without their knowledge or consent
A
  • Lack of trust
  • syphillis on African American males, free treatment but no
  • POC, mentally ill, prisoners
  • expiremental flu vacc, Jonas Salk (polio)
  • sprayed asian flud virus to inmates
  • infected soldiers, prostitutes, asylum pts with syphilis
30
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

Establishing trust and facilitating informed consent by listening to patients and directly addressing concerns

  1. Adjuvants like ______: there is a long history of use and safety has been demonstrated. Additionally ____ attenuated Virus vaccines do not need adjuvants so adjuvant-free vaccines incude those directed against measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox, rotavirus, polio, and live attenuated seasonal influenza virus.
  2. Vaccines DO NOT cause ______: several studies and years of investigation have stablished no link between the two T
  3. Th______: removed from childhood vaccines in 2002/2003 except for flu vaccine given at 6 mths (a preservative in vaccines that created a lot of controversy but rigorously studied and no harm found - but was removed solely bc so much resistance)
A
  1. Aluminums, no need for live vaccines
  2. DO NOT cause Autism
  3. Thimerosol
31
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

  1. Adverse Events with Vaccines: severe adverse events SAEs are events following vaccination that involve h_____, life-____ events, death, disability, permanent damage, congenital anomaly/birth defect, or other conditions requiring medical intervention. Vaccines with clear association to SAEs are typically no licensed. In some cases, to increase the likelihood of detecting of rare SAEs, the FDA requires phase __ studies (___marketing surveillance) to follow the performance of vaccines as use expands beyond the size of trials leading to licensure.

The government also collects data after licensure through the vaccine adverse event r_____ system (VAERS). Vaccines can be ______ from market if concerns arise. For example, licensure for use of the live oral rotovirus Vaccine Rotashield, which was recommended for routine immunization of the US infants in 1998, was withdrawn in 1999 when reports in VAERS sugested and association between the vaccine and intuss____, a form of bowel obstruction.

A
  1. hospitalization, life-threatening events, phase 4 studies (postmarketing surveillance)

reporting, withdrawn, intussuseption

Overall, its being recorded/tracked, highly responsive to any AE

32
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

  1. Allergic Reactions: Trace amounts of antibiotics like n______, used to ensure sterility in some vaccines (e.g MMR, trivalent IPV, and varicella vaccine), may cause adverse reactions. A history of _______ reaction (but not local reaction) to neomycin is a contraindication to future immunization with those vaccines. Persons with a history of an ___ allery should not be given the influenza vaccine prepared in eggs. G______, which is used as a stabilizer in some virus vaccines like varicella and MMR vaccines, may cause allergic reaction in some.
  2. ______: or syncope, also has been reported in ppl after vaccination. Fainting is more common in ______ than in children or aduts and thus is more common after vaccination with HPV, MCV4, and Tdap. Fainting is thought to be caused by p____ or an____ and not the contents of the vaccination.
A
  1. neomycin, anaphylactic, egg, gelatin
  2. Fainting, common in adolescents, pain, anxiety
33
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

  1. F_____ S_____: some vaccines can trigger fever and very rarely this can result in a febrile seizure. There is a small increase in risk after ____ and MMRV vaccines. The CDC also has reported a small increase in febrile seizures after a child receives the IIV (___) vaccine together with the PCV13 vaccine or in combo with diptheria, tetanus, or DTaP vaccines.
  2. _____ _____ Syndrome: A rare disease that affects the nervous system. Pts with GBS display _____ weakness and sometimes ______ that results when their own immune system injures their _____.

GBS often occurs after an _____ with bacteria or viurs; most pts with GBS recover fully. However, some subjects can have permanent ____damage. Some studies showed a small risk of GBS following the 1976 swine flu vaccine but subsequent studies found that a person is more likely to get GBS after (1) than vaccination suggesting that vaccination can prevent GBS complication.

A
  1. Febrile Seizure: MMR, flu vax in combo with PCV13 or Tdap
  2. Guillain-Barre Syndrome: muscle weakness, paralysis, immune system injures neurons, nerve damage, occurs after an infection. but actually more likely to get GBS post flu vs. from vaccine
34
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

  • Sudden ____ _____ Syndrome: peaks when babies btwn 2-4 mths old, and infants are also given many vaccines during this period. The temporal overlap of peak SIDS incidence and the period of initiation of childhood vaccines series led to questions about causal relationship. Numerous studies failed to detect a causative assocation for vaccines and SIDS. The IOM 2003 report reviewed relationship and concluded that?
  • Safety of _____ Vaccinations: Children are exposed to a large # of bacteria and viruses in their environment through f____, t_____ objects, and exposure to p___ and other _____. The typical viral infection results in exposure of the immune system to a dozen or more antigens; some bacteria express hundreds of antigens during infection. Each recommended childhood vaccine protects against 1 to 69 antigens. When a child is given the full recommended vaccines on the 2014 schedule, they are exposed to up to 315 antigens by age 2, which provides them critical protection against pathogens in the environment.
A
  1. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, VACCINES DO NOT CAUSE SIDS
  2. Safety of Multiple Vaccines: food, teething, pets, humans more antigens
35
Q

Opting out of Vaccination

Other issues and concerns raised by those opposed to vaccination:

  • It was improved in_____ and hy____ that created the historical improvements in health and lifespan not Vaccinations? Response?
  • Immunizing children for varicella increases the risk of shingles in older adults. Response?
  • Some vaccines are “optional” because they don’t cause serious illness. Response?
  • Where are patients getting their information? What should you do?
A
  • infrastructure and hygiene -> However, cannot argue with dramatic drop in incidence and death as a result of vaccinations
  • Some truth to it, if children are not getting chickenpox and parents are not caring for children w chickenpox, not getting natural immunity however we can prevent both by providing vaccines on both ends of the spectrum
  • Protects children who may not survive/immunocompromised
  • Point parents in the right direction for reliable info - even on amazon some of the most popular books are those that mislead the reader/the ones opposed to vax
36
Q

On Immunity, An Inoculation by Eula Biss

The difference between children who are __-vaccinated and those who are _____ vaccinated.

  • Un-vaccinated children’s parents ->
  • Under vaccinated children’s parents ->
  • Conclusion: Vaccination is a _____ issue rather than just a health care issue
A

un-vaccinated vs. under vaccinated

  • more often higher SES, more education, higher salaries, greater access to health care
  • can’t make it to adequate # of well visits, difficulty in access to health care (barriers ie not having insurance, no days off work, etc) -> these children are highly vulnerable
  • MORAL ISSUE - that the most privileged among us in society are choosing not to vaccinate and putting at risk the most vulnerable in society
37
Q

HIV/AIDS Origin

Human Immunodeficiency Virus, Acquired Immunodeficiency Disease

It is widely believed that HIV originated in Kinshasa, Democratic Republic of _____ around 1920 when HIV crossed species from ______ to humans - possible a result of chimpanzee hunting/poaching.

It is not known exactly how many cases of HIV/AIDS existed between 1920 and 1980 but some sporadic cases were Documented in the 19___’s

In the popular book about the Ebola virus - “The Hot Zone” the author refers to the building of the “Kinshasa Highway” in the late 70’s as being a pivotal development in the AIDS epidemic. The “____ ______” as it’s called which was once a dirt road traveled by very few became a heavily traveled passageway through central Africa from Congo to ______.

A

Congo, Chimpanzees

1970’s

“AIDS HIGHWAY”, Congo -> Uganda

38
Q

HIV/AIDS Origin cont.

AIDS was first recognized in the US in the summer of 1981, when the CDC reported the unexplained occurrence of Pn____ J_____ (formerly P. carinii) pneumonia in five previously healthy homosexual men in LA and of K____ S_____ with or without P. jiroveci pneumonia and other ______ infections in 26 previously healthy homosexual men in NY, SF, and LA

The disease was soon recognized in male and female ____ ____ users; in h____ and _____ transfusion recipients; among female sexual partners of men with AIDS; and among ____ born to mothers with AIDS

In 1983, HIV was isolated from a pt with lymphadenopathy and by 1984 it was demonstrated clearly to be the causitive agent of _____.

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci, Kaposi Sarcoma, opportunistic

injection drug, hemophilia, blood transfusion, infants from mothers with AIDS

Causitive agent of AIDS

39
Q

1985: Rock Hudson

=

A

First highly public case of AIDS

40
Q

Ryan White and the HIV/AIDS hysteria of the late 1980’s-early 1990s

Ryan White was a teenager from Konomo, Indiana who was diagnosed HIV positive in 1984 at age 13. Ryan was a hemophiliac and contracted HIV from contaminated blood products.

When the news of his diagnosis surfaced, parents in the County rallied the school board and managed to get Ryan?

The battle between the White family and the school board drew national attention to both Ryan and the _____ surrounding the ____ of HIV/AIDS.

Ryan raised _____ about HIV transmission

A

barred from school

ignorance, transmission

raised awareness about HIV transmission

41
Q

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus

HIV belongs to the viral family of human _____viruses with two types (2)

Retroviruses have ___ genomes and use (1) to form ___ upon infection of a host cell just before replicating.

HIV- __ is the more common cause of HIV disease world-wide and in the USA.

(1): protein on outer surface is how virus binds to cells its going to infect

A

retroviruses, HIV1, HIV2

RNA based and uses reverse transcriptase to form DNA

HIV1

GP120

42
Q

Replication Cycle of HIV

  1. HIV binds to the host cell via its _____ (it binds directly to the ___ molecule but can also bind to (3) types of cells which carry the virus to the CD4 T cell.
  2. HIV then fuses with with the plasma membrane and the viral capsid uncoates to allow the viral ____ to enter the cell
  3. Using ____ _____, the viral RNA is used to produce viral ____
  4. Viral DNA then enters the ____ and integrates into the host cell’s _____
  5. Using host cell enzymes and organelles, viral DNA is transcribed into many ____ of genomic and mRNA
  6. New HIV is assembled using the newly formed _____ and ____
  7. Budding and ____ of HIV from host cell
A
  1. gp120, CD4 (prefers), monocytes/macrophages, dendritic, Langerhan cells
  2. RNA
  3. Reverse Transcriptase -> DNA
  4. nucleus, genome
  5. copies
  6. genomic and mRNA
  7. released from host cell

Basically this cell will stop production of proteins that keep it alive and only produce virus (turns into virus making factory) its housekeeping functions stop and will do this until it dies -> then the new HIV will go and find other cells to infect

43
Q

Transmission

HIV is transmitted primarily by _____ contact (both het____ and male to ____); by ____ products; and by infected mothers to _____ intrapartum (15-35%), perinatally (50-60%), or via breast ____ (~20%).

HIV infection is predominantly a _____ transmitted infection (STI) worldwide.

There is an elevated risk of HIV transmission associated with unprotected receptive _____ intercourse (URAI) among both men and women compared to the risk associated with receptive vaginal intercourse.

The virus can be transmitted to either partner through vaginal intercourse but male to female HIV transmission is usually more efficient than female to male transmission.

A

sexual, heterosexual and male to male, blood, infants, breast milk

sexually

receptive anal > receptive vaginal

male to female > female to male

44
Q

Transmission

Among various cofactors examined in studies of heterosexual HIV transmission, the presence of other ____ has been strongly associated with HIV transmission. In this regard, there is a close association between genital _____ and transmission, owing to both susceptibility to infection and infectivity.

Several studies suggest that treating other STIs and genital tract syndromes (such as bacterial vaginosis) may help ____ transmission of HIV.

The quantity of HIV1 in plasma is a primary determinant of the risk of HIV-1 transmission. _______ therapy dramatically reduces plasma viremia in most HIV infected individuals and is associated with a reduction in risk of transmission.

A

STIs, ulcerations > susceptibility to infection and infectivity

treating other STIs helps prevent transmission

Antiretroviral

45
Q

Transmission and Male Circumcision

A # of studies including large, randomized, controlled trials clearly have indicated that male circumcision is associated with a ____ risk of acquisition of HIV infection for _______ men.

Studies are conflicting as to whether circumsion protects against HIV acquisition among men who have sex with ____, but data suggest that circumcision is protective in those men who have sex with men who are _____ only

The benefit of circumcision may be due to increased susceptibility of uncircumcised men to ul_____ STIs, as well as to other factors such as microt_____ to the foreskin and glans penis.

In addition, the highly vascularized inner forskin contains a high density of _____ cells as well as increased # of ____ cells, macrophages, and other cellular ____ of HIV.

A

lower risk HIV w heterosexual men

data conflicting in MSM, but is protective in insertive men

ulcerative STIs, microtrauma

foreskin has langerhan cells, CD4-T cells, targets of HIV

46
Q

Transmission and Male Circumcision

Finally, the ____ environment under the foreskin may promote the presence or persistence of microbial flora that, via inflammatory changes, may lead to even higher concentrations of target cells for HIV in the foreskin.

In addition, randomized trials have demonstrated that male circumcision also reduces Hep C (HCV) type 2, HPV, and genital ulcer disease in men as well as HPV, genital ulcer disease, bacterial vaginosis, and Trichomonas vaginalis infections among female partners of circumcised men.

Thus, there maybe an ____ benefit of diminution of risk of HIV acquisition to the ____ sexual partners of circumcised men.

A

moist environment

added benefit for female sexual partners in circumcised men

47
Q

Typical Course of an Untreated HIV infected individual

Overall, if left untreated from initial exposure to time of death ave about __ yrs

Purple line =

Green line =

(3) phases

A

10 yrs

CD4 count

Viral count

Latency Period

Acute Phase

Chronic Phase

48
Q

Latency Period

At first where virus is ______ / will test _____ bc this is the time the virus is trying to?

If caught early enough _____ can prevent HIV ____ exposure (like at work)

A

undetectable, will test negative, find host cells

PrEP can prevent HIV post exposure

49
Q

Acute Phase

Peak in green line = _______ = from viral count rising dramatically, acute phase of HIV infection, precipitous ____ in ____ count that coincides with this viremia

  • Will ppl report having symptoms?
  • This is the time that a person is most likely to?
A

VIREMIA, precipitous drop in CD4 count

Most will report having no symptoms or not remembering having sx, many ppl also report similar to catching the flud (pretty much unaware they have HIV)

Most likely to transmit the disease (when viral counts are super high)

50
Q

Chronic Phase

(1)

_____ in viral count starting from __ yr post exposure

highly predicts progression?

  • Ironically, ppl with a more _____ immune response tend to have _____ viral set counts, HIV seems to feed off of all the activity that’s typical of immune activation
  • Eventually towards tail end of chronic phase CD4 cell drops and viral count starts to rise -> when CD4 count reaches < 200 cells/micrometer = _______
  • or CD4 count > 200 + ______ infection
A

Viral Set Count

Plateau, 1 yr post

Higher viral set count = quicker disease will progress and more likely to transmit

  • more robust immune system -> higher viral set counts
  • CD4 200 = AIDS
  • or CD4 >200 + opportunistic infection = AIDS
51
Q

What the Virus does Inside the Body

  • (1): first group of immune cells that virus tends to target, a system of lymphoid organs in the GI tract and significant branch of lymph tissue bc GI tract is a major _____ point for pathogens (virus is attracted bc has a lot of CD4 cells)
  • (1): HIV tends to attack these type of CD4 cells, so by the time acute phase is concluded 90% of them are wiped out (huge hit)
A

GALT

CD4 Memory Cells

52
Q

Early Infection and Dissemination

Using Mucosal transmission as a model: once infection is established, the virus replicates in lymphoid cells in the _____ and the submucosa.

For a variable period of time ranging from a few to several days, the virus cannot yet be detected in the plasma. This period is referred to as the “_____” phase of infection.

As more virus is produced within several days to weeks, it is ______, first to the draining lymph nodes adn then to lymphoid compartments where it has easy acces to dense concentrations of CD4 T cell.

An important lymphoid organ, the GALT, is a major target of HIV infection and the location where large # of CD4 T cells (usually ____ cells) are infected and depleted.

Once virus replication reaches this threshold and virus is widely disseminated, infection is firmly established and the process is _______

A

mucosal

“eclipse”

disseminated

GALT memory cells

irreversible

53
Q

Acute HIV Syndrome

The acute burst of viremia and wide dissemination of virus in primary HIV infection may be associated with the _____ phase HIV syndrome, which occurs to varying degrees in ~50% of individuals with primary infection.

This syndrome is usually associated with high lvls of viremia measured in millions of copies of HIV RNA per ml of plasma that last for several weeks. Acute ____nucleosis- like symptoms are well correlated with the presence of viremia.

Virtually all pts develop some degree of viremia during primary infection, which contributes to virus dissemination throughout the lymphoid tissue, even though they may remain _____ or not recalling experiencing symptoms.

A

acute

mono

asymptomatic

54
Q

Establishment of Chronic and Persistent Infection

HIV infection is unique among human viral infections. Despite the robust cellular and humoral immune responses that are mounted following primary infection (see “Immune Response to HIV” below) once infection has been established the virus succeeds in _____ complete immune-mediated clearance, paradoxically seems to thrive on _____ activation, and is never completely eliminated from the body.

Inherent to the establishment of chronicity of HIV infection is the ability of the virus to _____ adequate control and elimination by both the cellular and humoral limbs of the immune system. There are a number of _______ whereby the virus accomplishes this evasion.

Paramount among these is the establishment of a sustained level of replication associated with the generation of viral ______ via m____ and re______.

The lvl of _____-state viremia, called the viral set point at ~1 year following acquisition of HIV infection has important prognostic implications for the _____ of HIV disease in an untreated patient.

It has been demonstrated that as a group untreated HIV-infected individuals who have a ___ set point at 6m to 1 yr following infection progresses to AIDS much more slowly than individuals whose set point is very high at that time.

A

escaping clearance, thrives on immune activation

evade, mechanisms

diversity via mutation and recombination

steady state, progression

low set point = progression to AIDS is more slow

Blue line highest viral set point -> slope of that line is very steep - rate of progression v high

55
Q

Advanced Disease

In untreated pts or in pts in whom therapy has not adequately controlled virus replication, after a variable period, usually measured in years, the CD4+ T cell count falls below a critical lvl <_____ /uL and the pt becomes highly susceptible to ______ disease.

Definition of AIDS = all HIV-infected individuals over 5yo with CD4 counts below _____

The depletion of CD4+ T cells continues to be progressive and unrelenting in this phase. It is not uncommon for CD4 counts in the untreated pt to drop as low as 10 or even _____

Long-term Nonprogressors vs. Elite “controllers”: Originally, individuals were considered to be long-term nonprogressors if they had been infected with HIV for a long period (> 10 yrs), their CD4+ T cell counts were in _____ range, and they remained ____ over years without receiving cART. Approx 5-15% of HIV infected individuals fell into this broader nonprogressor category.

From this broader group, a much smaller subgroup of “elite” controllers or nonprogressors was identified, and they constituted less than 1% of HIV infected individuals. These elite controllers, by definition, have?

A

<200, susc to opportunistic disease

<200

0

normal range, remain stable

extremely low lvls of plasma viremia and normal CD4+ T cell counts. It is noteworthy that certain of their HIV specific immune responses are robust and clearly superior to those of HIV infected progressors.

56
Q

Stage of HIV Infection Defined by age-dependent CD4 counts

Overall takeaway?

A

The younger the person, the stages progress even though cell counts are higher bc immune system is less mature in babies/kids

57
Q

Opportunistic Diseases

  • Can happen in someone without HIV but when it happens in HIV pts will?
  • Some almost always only happen in HIV pts such as (1)
A
  • progresses much more rapidly
  • Kaposi Sarcoma
58
Q

Combination Antiretroviral Therapy (cART)

Early in the AIDS epidemic, prior to the availability of therapy, if a patient presented with a life-threatening opportunisti infection, the median survival was ___ weeks from time of presentation.

Currently, an HIV-infected 20-yr old individual in a high income country who is appropriately treated with cART can expect to live at least ___ yrs

In the face of cART, long term survival is becoming commonplace.

A

26wks

to

50 yrs with cART

59
Q

cART

(4)

A
  1. Entry Inhibitors: impairs ability for GP120 to bind to receptors on cells and prevent entry
  2. Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors: blocks reverse transcriptase to prevent virus’s ability to convernt RNA to DNA
  3. Integrase Inhibitors: blocks ability of viral DNA to incorporate/integrate into host genome
  4. Protease Inhibitors: block formation of virus specific proteins (prevents assembly of new virus that leaves and infects another cell)

Combo allows smaller doses of each to help control SE/AE, less drug resistance