immune system Flashcards

1
Q

difference between primary + opportunistic pathogens?

A
primary = cause disease in non-immunocompromised
opportunistic = only infection in damaged host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 ways primary pathogens cause disease

A
  1. intrinsic virulence
  2. toxic production
  3. induction of abnormal host response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what virus causes oral hairy leukoplakia

A

epstein barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what virus causes cold sore

A

herpes simplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what virus causes herpangina within mouth

A

enteroviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what virus are kaposis sarcoma associated with?

A

HHV 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which number of herpes virus is herpes simplex?

A

1 + 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does HIV effect immune system?

A

CD4 decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

treatment for aids?

A

NRTI

HAART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causes of hepatitis?

A

viral
drug interactions
autoimmune - uncommon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is acute hepatitis?

A

self limiting liver inflammation

caused by: viral, acute alcoholic hepatitis, drugs, toxins, medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is chronic hepatitis?

A

clinical features of cirrhosis

caused by chronic Hep B or alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

signs of liver disease in clothed pt

A
jaundice:
yellow 
easy bruising 
spider naevi
liver flap - asterisks 
sialosis
dupuytrens contracture
palmar erythema 
gynaecomastia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oral manifestation of gonorrhoea?

A

burning sensation in pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

oral manifestations of syphilis?

A

primary - painless ulcer on lip
secondary - mucous patches on mucosa, ulcers, lymphadenopathy
tertiary - gumma, glossitis, syphilitic leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

difference between bacteriostatic + bactericidal?

A
bacteriostatic = inhibit growth
bactericidal = kills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

difference between gram negative + positive bacteria?

A
  • second outer membrane, don’t stain

+ thicker layer of peptidoglycan, stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do beta lactic e.g. penicillin antibiotics work?

A

inhibitor of peptidoglycan (cell wall) synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do tetracyclines + aminoglycoside antibiotics work?

A

inhibit protein synthesis from 30s ribosome site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do macrolides + clindamycin antibiotics work?

A

inhibit protein synthesis from 50s ribosome site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does metronidazol work as an antibiotic?

A

metabolised into toxic metabolites, interfere with DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how do sulphonamides act as antibiotics?

A

inhibit folate synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is vertical gene transfer?

A

spontaneous mutation, transferred during DNA replication

24
Q

what is horizontal gene transfer?

A

conjugation - sex
transformation - death
transduction - viruses

25
Q

how does aciclovir treat herpes?

A

analogue of purine nucleoside guanosine + incooprorated/interferes with replication of viral nucleic acid

26
Q

what is AZT used to treat?

A

HIV/AIDS pts that are symptomatic

27
Q

what must be considered if your pt has a prion disease?

A

can’t sterilise instruments - disposable only

28
Q

2 conditions where amoxicillin is CI because of rash?

A

lymphocytic leukaemia + glandular fever

29
Q

dental antibiotic best for use during pregnancy?

A

amoxicillin

try and avoid all medications in first trimester

30
Q

why must tetracycline be avoided in pregnancy + breast-feeding?

A

dental discolouration

31
Q

what 2 things is metronidazole CI with?

A

alcohol + warfarin

32
Q

symptoms of immunodefiency

A
SPUR
s = serious infections
p = persistance infections 
u = unusual sites
r = recurrent infections
33
Q

6 clinical examples of primary immunodefiency?

A
  1. SCID
  2. X - linked agammaglobulinaemia
  3. common variable immunodeficiency
  4. chronic granulomatous disease
  5. chronic mucocutaneous candiasis
  6. Di George syndrome
34
Q

what is SCID?

A

T cells absent, B cells might be absent

35
Q

what is x-linked agammaglobulinaemia?

A

mutation in btk gene
low/absent B cells + reduced immunoglobulins
absent tonsils

36
Q

what is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

thymus fails to develop - no/reduced T cells

37
Q

causes of secondary immunodeficiency?

A
  1. malnutrition
  2. medication
  3. infection
  4. radiotherapy
  5. splenectomy
38
Q

what oral manifestations of chronic granulomatous disease?

A

recurrent abscess + gingivitis

39
Q

what antibody mediated type I hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

40
Q

what antibodies mediate type II + III hypersensitive?

A

IgM + IgG

41
Q

what mediated type IV hypersensitivity?

A

CD4 T cells

42
Q

what happens in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE mediated degranulation of mast cells + basophils
release of histamine, heparin, lysosomal enzymes + proteases

increased capillary permeability + smooth muscle contraction

43
Q

test for type I hypersensitivity

A

skin prick test + blood test for specific IgE

44
Q

3 treatments for type I reaction?

A
  1. antihistamines
  2. steroids
  3. bronchodilators
45
Q

what would result of patch test be in burning mouth syndrome?

A

negative - not an allergy

46
Q

how do glucocorticoids causes immunosuprresion?

A

suppression of T cells

47
Q

how do glucocorticoids cause anti-inflammatory?

A

decrease gene transcription for TNFalpha + interfere + IL1

48
Q

complications of glucocorticoids

A

adrenal supression
osteoporosis
increased risk of infection
duodenal ulcers

49
Q

how does cyclosporin cause immunosuprresion?

A

targets T cells via inhibition of IL2

50
Q

2 types of calineurin inhibitor?

A

ciclosporin + tacrolimus

51
Q

2 types of antimetabolite immunosuppressants?

A

azathioprine + methotrexate

52
Q

how do monoclonal antibodies work and what are they used for?

A

inhibit cytokines involved in innate repsosne

autoimmune disease

53
Q

how is the small intestine damaged in coeliac disease?

A

gluten activated series of immunological mechanisms

  1. loss of villi
  2. crypt hyperplasia
  3. chronic inflammatory infiltrate
54
Q

what is good pastures?

A

autoimmune disease of kidney

55
Q

what other autoimmune disease is associated with sjorgrens disease?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

56
Q

what is ESR?

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

sign of inflammation