Immune Responses Flashcards

1
Q

IgG

A

Main antibody in 2° response to an antigen. Most abundant isotype in serum. Fixes complement, opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses. Only isotype that crosses the placenta (provides infants with passive immunity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IgA

A

Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes; does not fix complement. Monomer (in circulation) or dimer (with J chain when secreted). Crosses epithelial cells by transcytosis. Produced in GI tract (eg, by Peyer patches) and protects against gut infections (eg, Giardia). Most produced antibody overall, but has lower serum concentrations. Released into secretions (tears, saliva, mucus) and breast milk. Picks up secretory component from epithelial cells, which protects the Fc portion from luminal proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IgM

A

Produced in the 1° (immediate) response to an antigen. Fixes complement. Cannot cross the placenta. Antigen receptor on the surface of B cells. Monomer on B cell, pentamer with J chain when secreted. Pentamer enables avid binding to antigen while humoral response evolves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IgD

A

Unclear function. Found on surface of many B cells and in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

IgE

A

Binds mast cells and basophils; cross-links when exposed to allergen, mediating immediate (type I) hypersensitivity through release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine. Contributes to immunity to parasites by activating eosinophils. Lowest concentration in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Classic Complement Pathway

A

IgG or IgM mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alternative Complement Pathway

A

microbe surface molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lectin Complement Pathway

A

mannose or other sugars on microbe surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

C3b functions

A

opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C3a, C4a, C5a functions

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

C5a functions

A

neutrophil chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

C5b-9 functions

A

cytolysis by MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Opsonins functions

A

C3b and IgG are the two 1° opsonins in bacterial defense; enhance phagocytosis. C3b also helps clear immune complexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inhibitors functions

A

decay-accelerating factor (DAF, aka CD55) and C1 esterase inhibitor help prevent complement activation on self cells (eg, RBCs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Early complement deficiencies (C1-C4)

A

Increased risk of severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections. Increased risk of SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Terminal complement deficiencies (C5–C9)

A

Increased susceptibility to recurrent Neisseria bacteremia

17
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

A

Causes hereditary angioedema due to unregulated activation of kallikrein ->
bradykinin.

Characterized by decreasedC4 levels.

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated.

18
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

A defect in the PIGA gene preventing the formation of anchors for complement inhibitors, such as decay-acclerating factor (DAF/CD55) and membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL/CD59). Causes complement-mediated lysis of RBCs

19
Q

IL-1

A

SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

Causes fever, acute inflammation. Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules. Induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBCs. Also known as osteoclast-activating factor.

20
Q

IL-6

A

SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

Causes fever and stimulates production of acutephase proteins

21
Q

IL-8

A

SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils

22
Q

IL-12

A

SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

Induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells. Activates NK cells

23
Q

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha

A

SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

Activates endothelium. Causes WBC recruitment, vascular leak

24
Q

IL-2

A

SECRETED BY ALL T CELLS

Stimulates growth of helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells, and NK cells

25
Q

IL-3

A

SECRETED BY ALL T CELLS

Supports growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. Functions like GM-CSF

26
Q

INF-gamma

A

FROM Th1 CELLS

Secreted by NK cells and T cells in response to antigen or IL-12 from macrophages; stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens. Inhibits differentiation of Th2 cells

27
Q

IL-4

A

FROM Th2 CELLS

Induces differentiation of T cells into Th (helper) 2 cells. Promotes growth of B cells. Enhances class switching to IgE and IgG

28
Q

IL-5

A

FROM Th2 CELLS

Promotes growth and differentiation of B cells. Enhances class switching to IgA. Stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils.

29
Q

IL-10

A

FROM Th2 CELLS

Attenuates inflammatory response. Decreases expression of MHC class II and Th1 cytokines. Inhibits activated macrophages and dendritic cells. Also secreted by regulatory T cells

30
Q

Interferon-α and -β

A

A part of innate host defense against both RNA and DNA viruses. Interferons are glycoproteins synthesized by virus-infected cells that act on local cells, “priming them” for viral defense by downregulating protein synthesis to resist potential viral replication and upregulating MHC expression to facilitate recognition of infected cells.