immune deficiency/infections Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 types of Abs?

A

neutralizing, opsonizing, complement activating

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2
Q

which Ig can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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3
Q

where do B cells mature and differentiate?

A

BM

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4
Q

what region is found on the HC but not LC?

A

D

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5
Q

what are processes that contribute to B cell diversity?

A

recombination, chain pairing, junctional diversity, somatic hypermutation

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6
Q

when does negative selection happen for B cells?

A

before leaving BM

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7
Q

where does somatic hypermutation happen?

A

LN

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8
Q

through which receptor do B cells present Ag to Th cell?

A

MHCII

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9
Q

what ligand mediates B/T cell binding?

A

CD40

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10
Q

what are T-independent Ags made of?

A

polysaccharide, lipid

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11
Q

what Ag is produced by T-independent B cells?

A

IgM

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12
Q

what does positive selection in B cells do?

A

select for V-nt variations that lead to better Ag binding

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13
Q

what is the most common PID?

A

humoral

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14
Q

what are the different types of B cell deficiencies?

A

maturation defect, Ab production defect, crosstalk defect

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15
Q

what Ig is impacted by transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy?

A

IgG

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16
Q

deficiency in which Ig is the most common?

A

IgA

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17
Q

what infection are pts with selective Ab deficiency at risk for?

A

Strep pneumoniae (no response to pneumovax)

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18
Q

what are examples of encapsulated bacteria?

A

strep, staph, H influenza, N meningitidis, klebsiella, pseudomonas

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19
Q

what are PE signs of agammaglobulinemia?

A

no LN/tonsils

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20
Q

what is the mode of inheritance of agammaglobulinemia?

A

mostly Xlinked through BTK mutation (some AR)

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21
Q

what class of diseases do pts with CVID struggle with?

A

chronic inflammatory diseases (lung, hep, granulomas, IBD)

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22
Q

what is the definition of CVID?

A

decreased levels of 2 Ig types, poor vaccine response, r/o other causes of deficiency

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23
Q

what are hyper IgM pts at risk for?

A

OI (CMV, pneumocystitis), autoimmunity, malignancy

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24
Q

how are pts with humoral deficiencies treated?

A

Ig replacement, antibiotics (prophylaxis), aggressively tx infections, monitor closely

25
where do T cells mature?
thymus
26
what are the different types of APC?
B cells, dendritic cells, macrophages
27
Which MHC moelcule is used to present to Th cells? Tc?
Th-MHCII | Tc-MHCI
28
what is Th1 responsible for? what molecule does it release?
intracellular microbe killing (stimulate macrophage and Ab) IFN-g
29
what is Th2 responsible for? what molecule does it release?
stimulate eosinophils to fight parasites, also activate macrophage in tissue repair IL4, IgE
30
what is Th17 responsible for? what molecule does it release?
recruit neutrophil and monocytes for autoimmune diseases IL17, 22
31
what is T reg responsible for? what molecule does it release?
immunosuppression IL10, TGFb
32
how do cancer cells evade the immune system?
look like self Ag, no MHCI, secrete immunosuppressive proteins
33
what is MSDS?
defect in IFg and IL12 that cause susceptibility to intracellular organisms
34
what organism causes CMC? What deficiency is this caused by?
candida albacans, Th17 deficiency
35
what is SCID?
combined deficiency due to maternal engraftment or T cell mutations
36
why can't live vaccines be given to pts with SCID?
no T cells, so can contract disease
37
what are examples of live vaccines?
varicella, MMR, rota, flu
38
what is the presentation of Xlinked SCID (common gamma chain defect)?
low T/NK, normal B levels but no Igs (maturation defect)
39
what is the triad of wiskott aldrich disease?
eczema, recurrent infection, thrombocytopenia
40
what is the presentation of DiGeorge syndrome?
absence of thymus, low T cells, cardiac abnormalities, hypocalcemia, cleft palate, learning disability
41
GATA2 deficiency presentation
low monocytes, B cells, CD4 HPV infections (NK deficiency)
42
what is the CD4 count in AIDS-defining illness?
<200
43
what are the tests for HIV disease status?
4th gen test (screening), western blot (confirmation)
44
what is the UN 90-90-90 goal?
90% HIV infected know their stat 90% diagnosed on ARV 90% on ARV have suppressed viral loads
45
how are ARV regimens built?
3 drugs from different classes: 2 NRTIs, one of NNRTI, protease inhibitor, or integrase inhibitor
46
what infections are pts with complement deficiency at risk for? How is this deficiency confirmed?
pyogenic/neisseria infection, or SLE CH50 test
47
how do we test for oxidative burst capacity in CGD?
dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry
48
what are examples of catalase + organisms?
staph, Ecoli, klebsiella, pseudomonas, candida, aspergillus
49
what test determines T cell proliferation rate?
mitogen
50
what drugs are used to tx a pseudomonas infection?
piperacillin, ceftazidime, meropenem, gentamycin, cipro
51
what is the nature of a pseudomonas infection?
green pus in burns or cathethers
52
why can't azoles be used to treat PJP?
no ergosterol
53
what is the presentation of PJP?
fever, dry cough, chest pain (batwing on XR)
54
what is the tx for cryotococcus neoformans infections?
L-amphoterocin, fluconazole
55
what complications are associated with toxoplasma gondii infections?
chorioretinitis, brain abscess
56
what does the halo sign indicate in XR?
pulmonary aspergillosis
57
what are the DDx for mono?
cancer, CMV, toxoplasma gondii
58
seeing the owl eye sign on an IBD biopsy indicates what disease?
CMV infection
59
what do gram - cocci pairs indicate in pt that have undergone a splenectomy?
nesseria menigitis