blood cancers Flashcards

1
Q

which cell lines are granulocytes?

A

basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the limit for neutrophilia?

A

> 9 ANC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what happens to the neutrophil proportion in the blood during an infection?

A

left shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the neutrophil compartments in the blood?

A

marginal pool and circulating pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the normal order of wbc differential?

A
Neutrophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
Eosinophil
Band
Basophil
never let monkeys eat bad bananas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a red flag in neutrophilia?

A

blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most common cause of reactive neutrophilia?

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does basophilia indicate?

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what mutation is responsible for CML?

A

Ph (9;22 translocation), BCR-ABL mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does a blast crises indicate?

A

CML–>AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most effective Tx for CML?

A

gleevec/imatinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does gleevec work?

A

bind BCR-ABL kinase domain and stops proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the limit for neutropenia?

A

<1.5 ANC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is Kostmann syndrome?

A

congenital severe neutropenia with risk of AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can we identify febrile neutropenia?

A

temp>38 in pt with ANC<0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is febrile neutropenia treated?

A

broad spec IV antibiotics and GCSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the organisms most commonly associated with neutropenic pts?

A

staph aureus, coagulase (-) staph, gram - bacteria, fungi (candida, aspergillus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what cytomarker is indicative of leukemia?

A

CD34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what PBS feature points to AML?

A

auer rods (crystallized granules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is leukostasis?

A

In AML, high blasts count occludes vessels and damage endothelium (ischemia/bleeds).

Cause dyspnea, hypoxia, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what causes DIC in AML?

A

blast secretes TF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are symptoms of TLS?

A

cardiac arrhythmia (K+), renal failure (uric acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what’s the difference between cell cycle specific and non specific agents?

A

specific-target divide cells only

nonspecific-toxic to all cells

24
Q

why is combined chemo preferred over single agent?

A

different spectrum of toxicity and resistance to treat cancer

25
which cells are most impacted by chemo?
sperm/ova (rapid division), BM, hair/nails, gut mucosa
26
what is a syngeneic transplant?
from identical twin
27
what is the graft vs leukemia effect?
T cells protect against malignancy in transplanted organ
28
which part of the body is BMT retrieved from?
Pelvic (rich in HPSC)
29
what is SIADH and what disease does it usually present with?
ADH secretion-->low Na levels, common in small cell lung cancer with neuroendocrine metastasis
30
what does MAH present with?
bone pain, kidney stones, abd pain, confusion
31
what are the clinical presentations of hyperviscosity syndrome?
bleeds, visual disturbances, poor tissue perfusion
32
where do most B cell lymphomas happen?
germinal centre
33
how does hodgkin lymphoma present?
cervical adenopathy, B symptoms
34
what is the difference between lymphoma and leukemia?
lymphoma: originate from solid organs, stay in organs leukemia: originate in BM, cells circulate blood
35
why is CLL considered both a leukemia and a lymphoma?
can originate from BM or LN
36
what are examples of aggressive lymphomas? why are they called this?
T cell lymphoma, Burkitts, DLBCL grow quickly, can be life threatening at early stage, need urgent Tx. curable
37
what does Ann Arbor stage 4 indicate in lymphoma?
metastatic disease
38
How do you stage lymphomas?
PET scan
39
how do autologous and allogeneic SCT differ in terms of mechanism to fight lymphoma?
autologous: relies on chemo to Tx allogeneic: relies on new immune system (graft vs lymphoma) to tx
40
what is the Tx for CLL?
FLK3 inhibitor
41
what is the distinction between reactive and neoplastic lymphocytosis?
reactive-polyclonal, mostly T cells neoplastic-monoclonal, mostly B cells
42
why must we exclude neoplasm when diagnosing mono?
mono has symptoms similar to B symptoms
43
reactive lymphocytes are also called
atypical lymphocytes
44
which lymphoid cell line is affected in CLL?
Bcells
45
what is the PBS indication of CLL?
smudge cells
46
what are the flow cytometry markers for CLL?
CD5, 19, 23 need 5E9 of these cells for Dx
47
what is methotrexate?
chemo drug, cause pancytopenia
48
what is MGUS?
type of plasma cell dyscasias, low level monoclonal gammopathy (benign). <10% plasma cells in BM
49
what are the characteristics of MM?
>10% BM plasma cells, >30g/l proteins in urine hypercalcemia, renal, anemia, bone disease (CRAB)
50
what causes AL amyloidosis?
organ deposition of abnormal insoluble protein in beta pleats
51
what is MM?
BM cancer with monoclonal plasma cell proliferation
52
what are the complications of MM?
skeletal destruction, marrow infiltration (anemia), RF, Ig reduction (infection)
53
what PBS signs are associated with MM?
monoclonal plasma cells, rouleaux RBC
54
how do you treat MM?
only if symptomatic: chemo (proteosome inhibitors), bisphosphonates for bones, pain control, hydration
55
what is the evolution pathway of meyloma?
MGUS-->asymptomatic/smoldering myeloma-->symptomatic myeloma