Immune Defense Failure Flashcards by Michaela Miles

What is antigenic drift?

the way that point mutations in influenza virus genes cause changes in the protein structure of viral surface antigens

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

T/F: Antigenic drift can cause antigenic variation

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which RNA viruses are more error prone?

HIV and influenza

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is antigenic shift ?

the process by which influenza viruses reassert their segmented genomes and change surface antigens radically

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What mechanisms cause an epidemic?

Mutations and antigenic drift

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What mechanisms cause a pandemic?

Recombination and antigenic shift

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what 3 ways can antigenic shift occur?

Without undergoing genetic change: a bird strain of influenza A can jump from duck to another bird or human
Without undergoing genetic change: a bird strain of influenza A can jump from duck or bird to an intermediate animal host then to humans
A person passes a strain of influenza A to an intermediate host (i.e chicken), a bird passes bird strain to same host. Virus genes from both viruses mix forming new strain that can go back to humans

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What occurs during gene conversion?

a gene in the expression site is excised and replaced by a different gene to cause a different expression of protein

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe trypanosome brucei gene conversion and host defense

The protozoan undergoes gene conversion changing the the variable surface glycoprotein (VSG). The host will make antibodies against the VSG but the protozoan makes new ones that the body does not recognize

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the effect of parasite cycling?

The body gets into a state of constant inflammation and accrues neurological damage. The host is not able to clear the infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Viruses are cleared by _______ cells

CD8 T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A virus is hard to clear when it is in what state?

Quiescent / latent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why are neurons a good site for a latent virus?

Because neurons express low levels of MHC I molecules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This bacteria evades the immune system by preventing the fusion of phagosome with lysosome within macrophages.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the host for trypanosome brucei

insect and human

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where are the HSV reservoirs?

neurons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the HIV reservoirs?

macrophages and CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does mycobacterium tuberculosis evade the immune system?

A. Encloses itself into a impenetratable membrane enclosed vesicle that does not fuse with other vesicles

B. coats itself in human protein

C. Takes over host cell replication machinery

D. Prevents fusion of phagosome with lysosome within macrophage

D. Prevents the function of phagosome and lysosome within macrophages, flourishing inside the vesicle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does Treponema palladium evade the immune system?

A. Encloses itself into a impenetratable membrane enclosed vesicle that does not fuse with other vesicles

B. coats itself in human protein

C. Takes over host cell replication machinery

D. Prevents fusion of phagosome with lysosome within macrophage

B. coats itself with human protein to prevent antibody binding

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does toxoplasma gondii evade the immune system?

A. Encloses itself into a impenetratable membrane enclosed vesicle that does not fuse with other vesicles

B. coats itself in human protein

C. Takes over host cell replication machinery

D. Prevents fusion of phagosome with lysosome within macrophage

it prevents fusion with other vesicles thus causing issues with antigen presentation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What bacterium causes syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are primary immunodeficiency diseases?

Immunological Defects that were inherited that causes an enhanced susceptibility to infection or autoimmunity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are secondary immunodeficiency diseases?

immunological defects due to environmental factors such as immunosuppressive drugs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Only one allele is required for a ______ immunodeficiency diseases to be presented.

Dominant

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

______ immunodeficiency diseases are seen in children

dominant

A ________ primary immunodeficiency disease requires two alleles for disease to be presented. Person can be a carrier

recessive

What is antibody deficiency?

poor clearing of extracellular bacteria

People with antibody deficiency are susceptible to _______ bacteria

encapsulated

What is important about Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase

- it is required for B cell activation | - required for pre-B cell activation and differentiation

What is the main defect in X linked agammaglobulinemia

Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase defect

XLA is treatable with

antibiotics and injections of immunoglobulin against common pathogens

Is XLA recessive or dominant

Recessive

What is the main characteristic of X Linked agammaglobulinemia

The absence of mature B cells *Defect in BTK prevents B cell maturation

When does XLA begin to present?

After 6 months of age when maternal IgG is no longer present

Non Bruton Type agammaglobulinemia is a. Sex Linked Dominant b. Sex Linked Recessive C. Autosomal Recessive D. Autosomal Dominant

Defects in phagocyte function leads to enhanced susceptibility to ______ infection. A. Viral B. Protozoan C. Bacterial

C: bacterial

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is a. Sex Linked Dominant b. Sex Linked Recessive C. Autosomal Recessive D. Autosomal Dominant

C: autosomal recessive

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency causes A. Complement Dysfunction B. T cell Dysfunction C. T cell development dysfunction D. Phagocyte Dysfunction

Phagocyte Dysfunction

A defect in LFA-1 protein is characteristic of which immunodeficiency?

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is characterized by a defect in

LFA-1

A defect in _____ prevents the adherence and migration of phagocytes out of blood vessels A. LYST gene B. LFA-1 B. NADPH Oxidase

LFA-1

List the presentations of LAD-1 (4)

- recurrent bacterial infections - absent pus formation - poor wound healing - delayed separation of umbilical cord

Why is neutrophilia seen in peripheral blood smear in those with Leukocyte adhesion deficiency 1?

Because of the inability of phagocytes to exit circulation

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome (CHS) is caused by a defect in A. LYST gene B. LFA-1 B. NADPH Oxidase

A: LYST gene

CHS is A. an autosomal dominant immunodeficiency B. An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency C. A X linked recessive immune deficiency D. a Secondary immunodeficiency

B: autosomal recessive

What is the LYST gene?

Lysosomal trafficking regulator gene

CHS causes A. Complement Dysfunction B. T cell Dysfunction C. T cell development dysfunction D. Phagocyte Dysfunction

D: Phagocyte dysfunction

LYST gene defect A. prevents phagocyte adherence to the epithelium of blood vessels B. Leads to microtubule disfunction in phagocytes C. Causes dysfunctional. neutrophils D. Causes a deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor

All of the following are presentations found in CHS except: A. Pyogenic Infections B. Partial Albinism C. Peripheral Neuropathy D. Edema

D: Edema

Chronic Granulomatous Disease is characterized by

a deficiency of neutrophil NADPH oxidase

Which of the following diseases have dysfunctional neutrophils A. LAD-1 B. Chronic Granulomatous Disease C. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

Those suffering from CGD have A. increased susceptibility to infection by catalase producing organisms B. increased susceptibility to infection by encapsulated bacteria C. Neutropilia in peripheral blood

Chronic granulomatous disease is characterized by a deficiency of

Neutrophil NADPH oxidase

A deficiency of neutrophil NADHP oxidase is a characteristic of

Chronic granulomatous disease

Patients with CGD have increased susceptibility to infection by

infection by catalase producing organisms

What does NADPH oxidase do

generates reactive oxygen species in a neutrophil which is converted into hydrogen peroxide which is an antibacterial

List 4 catalase positive organisms

- S. aureus. - E. coli - Pseudomonas - Aspergillus

What are catalase positive organisms?

Bacteria that break down hydrogen peroxide

What are the treatments for CGD (3)

1. Lifelong antibiotics and antifungals 2. IFN-gamma treatment 3. Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant

The classical pathway of complement is required for the elimination of

Immune complexes

What is the effect of C3 deficiency?

Susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria

What role does C3 play in complement?

An opsonin that promotes elimination of bacteria by phagocytosis

Deficiency of C1, C2 and C4 results in A. Susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria B. Hereditary Angiodema C. Accumulation of immune complexes in blood D. Susceptibility to Neisseria

C: accumulation of immune complexes in blood and deposition of immune complexes in tissue

A patient who presents to the clinic with S. aureus, normal antibody titer levels, and normal neutrophil function is likely to have A. Antibody Deficiency B. Dysfunction in phagocytes C. Chronic Granulomatous Disease D. C3 Deficiency

D: C3 deficiency | * S. aureus is an encapsulated bacteria , C3 Deficiency leads to susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria

C4-C9 Deficiency leads to susceptibility to infection by what microbe

Increased susceptibility to Neisseria infections

Hereditary angiodema is due to deficiency in

C1 Esterase Inhibitor

How does a deficiency in C1 Esterase inhibitor affect complement?

Unchecked activation of complement components leading to a decreased C2 and C4 protein

Hereditary Angiodema is A. an autosomal dominant immunodeficiency B. An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency C. A X linked recessive immune deficiency D. a Secondary immunodeficiency

what does SCID stand for

Severe combined immunodeficiency

What is the most common cause of SCID

an X linked defect leading to impaired common gamma chain on cytokine receptors

What are the 2 causes of SCID

1. X linked defect causing impaired common gamma chain on cytokine receptors 2. Cellular absence of adenosine deaminase (ADA) or pure nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP)

What is the result of a deficiency in T cells?

A decrease in cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity

In SCID that is X linked there will be an absence of A. T cells B. B Cells C. NK cells D. All of the above

A. | *X linked SCID--absence of T cells

In SCID that is Autosomal recessive there will be an absence of of A. T cells B. B Cells C. NK cells D. All of the above

D | * all of the above

What is the defective protein in SCID?

gamma chain on cytokine receptors

What are the functional effects of a defect in the common gamma chain on cytokine receptors

Defects in cytokine signaling resulting in the non development of T cells B cells and NK cells

A genetic abnormality caused by a spontaneous deletion of part of chromosome 22 causes A. SCID B. Hereditary Angiodema C. DiGeorge Syndrome D. Chronic Granulomatous Disease

C. DiGeorge Syndrome

DiGeorge Syndrome is caused by

a spontaneous deletion of a part of chromosome 22

Improper formation of the thymus presents in A. HIV B. DiGeorge Syndrome C. Wiskott-Aldridch Syndrome D. Hyper IgM Syndrome

B: DiGeorge Syndrome | * also causes defects in other organ structures

List 4 Treatment options for DiGeorge Syndrome

- Occupational and physical therapy - Replacement of PTH, GH, and TH - Antibiotics to treat infections - Calcium supplements

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is A. an autosomal dominant immunodeficiency B. An autosomal recessive immunodeficiency C. A X linked recessive immune deficiency D. a Secondary immunodeficiency

All of the following are presentations of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome EXCEPT ``` A. Recurrent Bacterial Infections B. Eczema C. Elevated IgM D. Purpura E. Epistaxis F. Splenogegaly ```

C: elevated IgM * IgM levels are LOW * IgE and IgA levels are HIGH

T/F: the WASp gene is on the short arm of the X chromosome

True

True/ False: the WASp gene is expressed in all cells

False | *only in hematopoietic cells

Which antibodies are elevated in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

IgA and IgE

What is the role of the WASp protein

relayes extracellular signals to the actin cytoskeleton of a cell

What is the main treatment for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

hematopoetic stem cell treatment

When does Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome usually present with symptoms

Early childhood in males

Hyper IgM Syndrome is an immunoglobulin deficiency characterized by

- normal or elevated serum IgM levels | - decreased levels or absence of other serum Immunoglobulins

Hyper IgM results in susceptibility to

bacterial infections

What is the consequence of a deficiency of CD40L in Hyper IgM Syndrome?

-T lymphocytes are unable to tell B cells to switch immunoglobulin class from IgM to IgG , IgA and IgE

The most common form of HIGM syndrome results from a deficiency or defect of

CD40 ligand on activated T cells

CD40L deficiency: Hyper IgM Syndrome:: _______: Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Low IgM

True or False: IgM levels are high in Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

False

What is the treatment for HIGM syndrome?

immunoglobulin replacement therapy

Patients with Hyper IgM have severe_____ deficiency | *an antibody

IgG

What genetic material does HIV have

RNA

HIV is a

Retrovirus

What is the role of intergrase

to integrate viral cDNA into host genome

What cells doe HIV infect

Macrophages CD4 T cells Dendritic Cells

Tat protein A. Amplifies transcription of viral RNA B. Integrates viral DNA into host genome C. Forms the viral spike envelope

A: amplifies viral RNA

What receptors are required for HIV to infect cells

CCR5 and CD4

Immune Defense Failure Flashcards

(102 cards)