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Phase 2a mocks > Immun / Path > Flashcards

Immun / Path Flashcards

1
Q

What causes a positive coagulase test?

A

The conversion on fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

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2
Q

What colour go gram positive organisms stain and why?

A

Purple
Peptidoglycan layer

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3
Q

What organism does the optochin test identify?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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4
Q

What is the antibiotic used for treatment of staphylococcal pneumonia?

A

Flucloxacillin and Rafampicin

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5
Q

What kind of bacteria is E.coli?

A

Gram negative bacilli

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6
Q

What colour would E.coli colonies show as on MacConkey’s agar?
What does this colour tell you about E.coli bacteria?

A

Pink

Lactose fermenting bacteria

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7
Q

What agar plate is used to determine if the bacteria has simple or fastidious growth requirements?

A

Chocolate agar

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8
Q

How would you treat traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

Oral rehydration
Antimotility agents e.g. loperamide

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9
Q

Clostridium difficile is an infective cause of diarrhoea, name 2 antibiotics that can cause C.diff infection

A

co-amoxiclav
cephalosporins e.g. cephalexin
ciprofloxacin
clindamycin

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10
Q

Following a venepuncture, bleeding is stopped by…

A

Platelet and fibrin plug formation over the area of damaged endothelial wall

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11
Q

What does TLR2 detect?

A

Lipoeichoic acid on gram positive bacteria

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12
Q

What does TLR1 detect?

A

Malaria

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13
Q

What does TLR4 detect?

A

Lipopolysaccharide on gram negative bacteria

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14
Q

What does TLR5 detect?

A

Flagellin

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15
Q

What does 1,3 beta-D-glucan assay detect?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus, Candida albicans, and pneumocystis jirovecii

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16
Q

Describe how cholera causes diarrhoea

A

Toxin degranualtion of ion transport in endothelial cells

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17
Q

1st line antibiotic for chest infection?

A

Amoxicillin / Clarithromycin / Doxycycline

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18
Q

What is myocolic acid and what does it do?

A

In the cell wall of pathogens, allows them to resist phagocytic killing

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19
Q

How does flucloxacillin work?

A

Disrupts peptidoglycan

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of amoxicillin antibiotic resistance?

A

Βeta lactamase hydrolysis

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21
Q

What sputum smear confirms TB diagnosis?

A

Acid fast bacilli

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22
Q

What its the most common causative organism of CAP?

Describe the microscopy

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Gram positive cocci, α haemolytic, optochin sensitive

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23
Q

What is the second most common cause of CAP?

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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24
Q

Young adult presents with CAP, haemolytic anaemia, raynauds.
Most likely causative organism?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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25
Q

What kind of pneumonia does Haemophilus influenza cause? Describe the microbiology.
Why is it now rare?

A

CAP

Gram negative coccobacilli

Rare due to Hib vaccine

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26
Q

When might Staphylococcus aureus cause CAP?

A

As a complication of recent influenza infection

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27
Q

What 3 gram negative causative organisms are common in HAP?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae

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28
Q

What is CLED agar mostly used for?

A

Urinary bacterial infections i.e. differentiating E.coli which is yellow on CLED agar

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29
Q

What is MacConkey used for?

A

Testing lactose fermenting

Pink = Lactose fermenting e.g. E.coli
Yellow/colourless = non-lactose fermenting e.g. salmonella, shigella

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30
Q

How do you differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella on microscopy?

A

XLD agar

Red with black centres = Salmonella
Red only = Shigella

31
Q

What is the agar used for fungus?

A

Sabourard agar

32
Q

How is S.aureus differentiated from other staphs on microscopy?

A
  • Coagulase test: S.aureus is coagulase positive, the others are negative
  • Blood agar culture: S.aureus is gold, others are colourless
33
Q

What are the sterile sites of the body?

A
  • blood
  • CSF
  • pleural fluid
  • peritoneum
  • joints
  • urinary tract
  • lower respiratory tract
34
Q

Gram negative, lactose fermenting. What could it be?

A
  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella
35
Q

What are the two main approaches for diagnosing viral infection?

A

Viral detection via PCR, e- microscopy
Serology testing via ELISA, immunoflourescence etc

36
Q

How does serology work?

A

Detects immunoglobulins against the virus

37
Q

Throat infection / glandular fever.

How do you determine the causative organism?

A
  • Black charcoal swab is used to exclude S.pyogenes
  • EBV is diagnosed via blood tests: IgM +ve = acute infection, IgG +ve = chronic/prior infection
38
Q

What is the characteristic feature of cytomegalovirus?

A

Owl eye inclusion bodies

39
Q

What are the 4 main AIDS defining illnesses?

A
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • PCP (pneumocystis pneumonia)
  • Oral candida
  • Lymphoma
40
Q

How is CMV treated in AIDS pts?

A

IV ganciclovir (antiviral)

41
Q

What are the 3 HIV markers tested for in blood?

A

HIV immunoglobulin
HIV RNA
P24 antigen

42
Q

Is TLR3 intracellular or extra cellular?

A

Intracellular

43
Q

Where is TLR5 expressed ?

A

Type II dendritic cells in the terminal ileum

44
Q

Which TLRs are intracellular?

A

3,7,8,9

45
Q

What makes mycoplasma resistant to β-lactam antibiotics?

A

They lack a cell wall

46
Q

How do β-lactam antibiotics work?

A

Act by inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls

47
Q

What is the mechanism of dubutamine?

A

β1-agonist

Treatment of cardiogenic shock

48
Q

Bacterial meningitis diagnosis. Which cell type would be expected to predominate in the CSF?

A

Neutrophils

49
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is SLE?

A

Type III

Involving damage to tissues to tissues mediated by the deposition of antibody-antibody complexes, resulting in activation of complement.

50
Q

Which peripheral leukocyte can become pulmonary macrophages?

A

Monocytes

51
Q

which antibody response is the initial response to virus?

A

IgM

52
Q

What type of immunity is antibody transfer from mother to in fact during breastfeeding?

A

Naturally acquired, passive

53
Q

What is secreted by virally infected cells as part of a signalling mechanism?

A

Interferon-α

54
Q

Which cell in the normal lymph node is a specialised, highly efficient antigen-presenting cell (APC) found mostly in areas of T-cell concentration?

A

Dendritic cells

55
Q

Which is the most common causative organism of traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)

56
Q

Which pathogen is most commonly isolated in cases of chronic diarrhoea associated with HIV?

A

Campylobacter

57
Q

What cells express MHC-1?

A

All nucleated cells

58
Q

Explain the difference between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics

A

pharmacodynamics = what the drug does to the body

pharmacokinetics = what the body does to the drug

59
Q

What are the properties of mycobacterium ?

A
  • slow growing
  • predominantly immobile
  • rod shaped
  • intracellular
  • gram positive
60
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

61
Q

Malaria prophylaxis?

A

Doxycycline

62
Q

What types of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis and what immunoglobulin is involved?

A

Type I

IgE

63
Q

Explain the mechanism of re-exposure in anaphylaxis

A
  • allergen binds to IgE
  • receptor cross linking causes a cascade
  • mast cell degranulation of histamine
64
Q

What microorganism causes complicated malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

65
Q

Stages of malaria

A
  1. Expo-erythrocytic stage
  2. Endo-erythrocytic stage
  3. Dormant stage
66
Q

Give 2 examples of organisms that can cause UTIs and their gram stain

A
  • Escherichia coli- gram –ve rod (lactose- fermenting)
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae- gram –ve cocci
67
Q

Give an example of an upper UTI and a lower UTI

A

Upper: pyelonephritis, ureteritis

Lower: urethritis, cystitis

68
Q

Give 4 examples of antibiotics that can be used to treat UTI

A
  • nitrofurantoin
  • trimethoprim
  • amoxicillin
  • cefalexin
69
Q

What is the name of the criteria used in infective endocarditis diagnosis?

A

Modified Dukes criteria

70
Q

Name the two major Dukes criteria

A
  • blood culture positive >12hrs apart
  • evidence of endothelial involvement on ECHO
71
Q

List some minor Dukes criteria

A
  • fever >38 degrees C
  • vascular phenomena e.g. Janeway lesions
  • evidence from immunology e.g. Roth spots, Oslers nodes, glomerulonephritis
  • predisposing factor e.g. IVDU, prosthetic valve
72
Q

Microscopy of streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Gram positive cocci in chains

Αlpha haemolytic

73
Q

What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin ?

A

Macroglide - inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50s subunit of ribosomes

74
Q

Which immunoglobulin provides immunity to parasites ?

A

IgE

Phase 2a mocks (11 decks)

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