Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a mocks > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Describe cardiac tamponade

A

An accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity that reduces cardiac function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the classic clinical features of cardiac tamponade

A

Beck’s triad:
- hypotension
- raised JVP
- muffled heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the characteristic features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
  • VSD (ventricular septal defect)
  • misaligned/overriding aorta
  • pulmonary stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the features of left sided heart failure?

A

ABCDE
- alveolar oedema
- Kerley B lines
- cardiomegaly
- dilated upper lobe vessels
- pleural effusion

Also..
- dyspnoea
- reduced ejection fraction
- pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What hormone is used to diagnose heart failure? Where is it released from?

A

BNP (b type natriuretic peptide)
Released from the ventricles (mainly left)

Higher levels = worse prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the pathology of Wolff-Parkinson White

A

Congenital accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles
Causes atrioventricular re entry tachycardia

No slowing of conduction… therefore, AF can very quickly deteriorate to VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What the the ECG changes seen in Wolff-Parkinson white?

A
  • delta waves (wide QRS complex, with a slurred uptake)
  • short PR interval
  • axis deviation to the opposite side of the accessory pathway…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause an ejection systolic murmur that is louder on expiration?

A
  • aortic stenosis
  • hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can cause an ejection systolic murmur that is louder on inspiration?

A
  • pulmonary stenosis
  • atrial septal defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of murmur does VSD cause?

A

Pan systolic murmur, harsh in character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the murmur heard in mitral / tricuspid regurgitation

A

Pan systolic
High pitched, ‘blowing’ in character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes late systolic murmur?

A
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • coarctation of the aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic regurgitation

A

Early diastolic, high pitched, ‘blowing’ in character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the murmur heard in pulmonary regurgitation

A

“Graham-steel murmur”
Early diastolic, high pitched, ‘blowing’ in character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the murmur heard in mitral stenosis

A

Mid-late diastolic
‘Rumbling’ in character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the clinical feature of right sided heart failure?

A
  • fatigue
  • raised JVP !!
  • pitting oedema
  • ascites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the first and second line pharmacological treatment of angina

A

1 = beta blocker OR cardioselective CCB (verapamil, diltiazem)
2 = beta blocker AND non-cardioselective CCB (nifedipine)

dont combine β blocker with a cardioselective CCB as can cause a systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the immediate management of STEMI

A
  • dual anti platelets: aspirin + clopidogrel/Ticagrelor/prasugrel
  • anticoagulation, via unfractioned heparin
  • PCI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the first and second line pharmacological management of chronic heart failure

A

1st line = ACEi + βblocker
2nd line = add an aldosterone antagonist (mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist) e.g. spironolactone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In pts who are on medication for chronic heart failure, including ACEi and aldosterone antagonists, what do you need to monitor?

A

Potassium levels! Both drugs can cause hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In a pt presenting with high blood pressure for the first time, who is 60 years old and has T2DM, what is your first line pharmacological treatment option?

A

ACEi or ARB.

Any pt with T2DM should be on this treatment plan instead on CCP, despite their age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a pt presenting with hypertension for the first time, who is 40 and of Afro-carribbean descent, what is your first line treatment option?

A

CCB!

No matter the age, pts of Afro-Caribbean descent with hypertension should be put on CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At what treatment line can thiazide-like diuretics be introduced for pts with hypertension?

A

Second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what line can Spironolactone be introduced for hypertensive pts?

A

4th line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At what line can β blockers be introduced for hypertensive pts?

A

4th line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Stroke prevention in a pt with a metallic heart valve replacement. What drug is preferred?

A

Warfarin.

DOACs less effective if metallic heart valve in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the pharmacological management of pericarditis ?

A

NSAIDs + colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the Pathophysiology of aortic stenosis

A

Narrowing of the aortic valve, either due to degeneration calcification or the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the clinical features of aortic stenosis

A
  • ejection systolic murmur, louder on expiration
  • slow rising pulse
  • soft/absent S2
  • S4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would be seen on CXR in mitral stenosis?

A

An enlarged left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What would be heard on auscultation in mitral stenosis?

A
  • Mid/late diastolic murmur, louder on expiration
  • loud S1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the initial investigations required in suspected infective endocarditis?

A
  • FBC
  • blood cultures
  • urinalysis
  • ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give 3 medical primary care interventions for ischaemic heart disease

A
  • aspirin
  • statins
  • antihypertensives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give 3 lifestyle primary care interventions for ischaemic heart disease

A
  • smoking cessation
  • dietary advice
  • encourage regular exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the signs / symptoms of a STEMI? (9)

A
  • central, crushing chest pain
  • N/V
  • light headed / dizzy
  • SOB
  • sweating
  • anxiety / feeling of dread
  • palpitations
  • pallor
  • hypotensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the effects of RAAS activation
(7)

A
  • anterior vasoconstriction
  • increased sympathetic activity
  • increased tubular reabsorption of Na+ and Cl-
  • increased tubular excretion of K+
  • ADH secretion, causing increased H20 retention
  • aldosterone secretion, causing increased Na+ retention
  • overall, salt and water retention increase the blood pressure !!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are 6 modifiable risk factors of STEMI?

A
  • smoking
  • hypertension
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • physical inactivity
  • poor diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are 4 non-modifiable risk factors of STEMI?

A
  • advanced age
  • male sex
  • family history of coronary artery disease
  • previous history of coronary artery disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the ECG changes seen in 1st degree heart block

A

Prolonged PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the ECG changes seen in 2nd degree heart block, Mobitz type I

A

Progressive prolongation of the PR interval, followed by a dropped QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the ECG changes seen in 2nd degree heart block, Mobitz type II

A

Intermittently non-conducted P waves.
Non preceded by prolonged PR interval OR followed by shortened PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the ECG changes seen in 3rd degree heart block

A

No association between P waves and QRS complex…
Atrial rate ~100bpm
Ventricular rate ~40bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define embolism

A

Blocked vessel caused by a foreign body e.g. blood clot, gas bubble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define thrombosis

A

Formation of a blood clot in a blood vessel, obstructive blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define infarction

A

Death of heart muscle due to reduced or absent blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define ischaemia

A

Restricted blood supply to tissues, causing oxygen shortage and therefore reduced cell function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the difference between essential hypertension and secondary hypertension?

A

Essential hypertension is idiopathic, occurring independently of any identifiable cause.

Secondary hypertension occurs as a result of an identifiable cause

48
Q

List 3 causes of secondary hypertension

A
  • renal artery stenosis
  • conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
  • stress
  • preeclampsia
  • coarctation of the aorta
  • pheochromocytoma
49
Q

How does renal artery stenosis cause secondary hypertension?

A

Reduced lumen diameter of the renal arteries decreases the afferent arteriole pressure and renal perfusion.
This stimulates renin release, which causes angII and aldosterone release, causing increased renal reabsorption of Na+ and water.
Increased blood pressure via stimulation of RAAS

50
Q

How does Conn’s syndrome cause secondary hypertension?

A

Hyper secretion of aldosterone -> renal retention of Na+ and water -> increased blood volume and pressure

51
Q

How does stress cause secondary hypertension?

A

Emotional stress activates the sympathetic nervous system
Increased cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
Increased BP

52
Q

How does pregnancy cause secondary hypertension?

A

Increased blood volume!

53
Q

How does coarctation of the aorta cause secondary hypertension?

A

Obstruction of the aorta reduced systemic arterial pressure, which activates RAAS.
RAAS works to increase BP

54
Q

How does pheochromocytoma cause secondary hypertension?

A

Catecholamine (epinephrine) secretion increased vasoconstriction and cardiac output -> increased BP

55
Q

ST elevation in leads V3, V4. What aspect of the heart is affected by this MI? Therefore, which artery is most likely affected?

A

Anterior aspect
LAD

56
Q

An ECG is taken on someone suspected of suffering a myocardial infarction. They show abnormalities in leads II, III, and aVF.
Which 2 coronary arteries might be implicated?

A

Right coronary artery OR left circumflex

57
Q

STEMI showing ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5-V6
What two arteries are likely to be affected?

A

Left circumflex or LAD

58
Q

STEMI showing ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF.
What two arteries might be affected?

A

Right coronary artery or Left circumflex

59
Q

What does the left circumflex artery supply?

A

LA, LV

60
Q

What does the LAD supply?

A

RV, LV, intraventricular septum

61
Q

What does the left marginal artery supply?

A

LV

62
Q

What does the right marginal artery supply?

A

RV, apex

63
Q

What does the right coronary artery supply?

A

RA, RV

64
Q

Describe the acute management of an MI

A

MONA

Morphine
O2 (if <95%)
Nitrates
Aspirin

65
Q

Describe the management of a pt with a previous MI

A
  • ACEi e.g. Ramipril
  • Dual antiplatelet therapy: Aspirin and Clopidogrel
  • Β blocker e.g. Propanolol
  • Statin e.g. atorvostatin
66
Q

In a pt with Px MI, asthma, what medication swap needs to be made?

A

CCB instead of β blocker

67
Q

What CXR findings are found in heart failure?

A

ABCDE

Alveolar oedema
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Dilation of upper lobe vessels
Effusions

68
Q

List 3 DD for ST elevation on ECG

A

STEMI, Pericarditis, Prinzmetal angina

69
Q

What is the first line management for supra ventricular tachycardia?

A

Valsalva manouvre

70
Q

What is the first line investigation in suspected heart failure?

A

BNP

71
Q

What is CHA2DS-VASc score used for?

A

To assess the starting of anticoagulation therapy in pts who have had a stroke

72
Q

What is HAS-BLED score used for?

A

Estimates the risk of bleeding in pts who are on anticoagulation meds

73
Q

What is QRISK3 used for?

A

Estimates the risk of a pt having a heart attack or stroke in the next 10 years

74
Q

Describe the symptoms of aortic stenosis

A

SOB on exertion, angina, syncope

75
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic stenosis

A

Ejection systolic murmur, crescendo-decrescendo pattern, radiation to the carotids

76
Q

How is aortic stenosis diagnosed?

A

Echocardiogram (Doppler echo)

77
Q

Name 2 risk factors for developing Mitral Valve Stenosis

A
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Untreated streptococcus infections
78
Q

Give 2 RFs for developing mitral valve stenosis

A
  • increasing age
    -rheumatoid fever
  • untreated streptococcus infection
79
Q

Give 2 characteristic heart sounds of Mitral Valve Stenosis

A
  • Diastolic murmur
  • Loud opening S1 snap
80
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for diagnosing Mitral Valve Stenosis (1 mark)

A

Echocardiogram

81
Q

Name 1 class of drug used to manage Mitral Valve Stenosis and give 1 example

A
  • Beta Blockers + example: e.g. bisoprolol/ propranolol etc.
  • Diuretics + example: e.g. Furosemide (Salt + loop diuretic) / Bendroflumethiazide (thiazide diuretic) etc.
82
Q

Name 2 surgical interventions that can be used to treat Mitral Valve Stenosis

A
  • Percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy
  • Mitral valve replacement
83
Q

What cardiac arrhythmia is often associated with Mitral Valve Stenosis?

A

Atrial Fibrillation

84
Q

Aside from IVDU, give 2 other risk factors for Infective Endocarditis

A
  • Old age
  • Prosthetic valve
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Poor dental hygiene
  • Skin + soft tissue infection
  • IV cannula
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Pacemaker
85
Q

What is the name of the criteria used to diagnose Infective Endocarditis?

A

modified dukes criteria

86
Q

What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

87
Q

What aspect of chest pain differentiates pericarditis and an MI

A

Does NOT radiate to the jaws and teeth in pericarditis

88
Q

Name 2 features elicited on clinical examination that would make you suspect pericarditis

A
  • pericardial rub
  • sinus tachycardia
  • fever
  • effusion signs
89
Q

What would you expect on an ECG of a pt with pericarditis?

A

Saddle shaped ST elevation

90
Q

How long should colchicine be given for in pts who have had acute pericarditis

A

6-8 weeks

91
Q

What are the points awarded in CHADSVASc?

A

Congestive heart failure = 1
Hypertension = 1
Age 75 or over = 2
Diabetes mellitus = 1
Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism = 2
Vascular disease = 1
Age 65-74 = 1
Sex female = 1

92
Q

Severe aortic stenosis signs

A

Small volume
Slow rising pulse

93
Q

What does TIMI stand for?

A

Thrombolysis in myocardial infarction

94
Q

What does ST elevation indicate?

A

Full thickness myocardium involvement

95
Q

How does MI lead to scar formation?

A

Lack of oxygen -> necrosis -> formation of granulation tissue

96
Q

What classic sign might a chest x-ray show in tetralogy of fallot?

A

Boot shaped heart!!

97
Q

In an older child, which feature of TOF is squatting during exercise characteristic of?

A

Right to left shunt

98
Q

What kind of murmur is caused by patent Decius arteriosus?

A

Continuous machinery murmur, loudest on S2

99
Q

Define infarction

A

Death of heart muscle cells due to reduced/absent blood supply

100
Q

Which feature of the clinical examination would suggest that the aortic stenosis is now severe?

A

A small volume and slow rising pulse

101
Q

GS investigation of aortic stenosis?

A

Echocardiogram

102
Q

Commonest cause of myocardial dysfunction leading to heart failure?

A

Ischaemic heart disease

103
Q

What drug can be given to reduce the chance of recurrence of pericarditis? How long is it taken for?

A

Colchicine 1-2mg for the first day. 0.5mg for up to 6 months

104
Q

What is a common side effect of CCB?

A

Ankle swelling

105
Q

What is the first line management for haemodynamilcally unstable AF?

A

Cardio version with DC shock + anti coagulation

106
Q

What is the first line management of haemodynamically stable AF?

A

Βeta blocker + anti coagulation

107
Q

Why should CCB be stopped in heart failure?

A

CCB are relatively cardioselective.
Negative inotropes should be stopped as can worsen cardiac failure

108
Q

What artery supples the AVN in most pts?

A

Right coronary artery

109
Q

What is the first and second line management for supra ventricular tachycardia?

A

1 = modified Valsalva manoeuvre
2 = IV adenosine

110
Q

Define endocarditis

A

Inflammation of the endocardium/heart valves due to infection

111
Q

What is seen on echocardiogram in infective carditis?

A

Vegetations on the heart valves

112
Q

Stable angina symptoms

A
  • dyspnoea
  • nausea
  • sweatiness
  • faintness
113
Q

Stable angina ECG changes?

A

ST segment depression, T wave inversion

114
Q

What is the who definition of hypertension?

A

140/90

115
Q

Indications of end organ damage in hypertension?

A

Retinopathy, proteinuria

Phase 2a mocks (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions