Imaging criteria stuff Flashcards

1
Q

How do you ascertain a good inspiration in paediatric chest imaging under 2 years old?

A

A good inspiration is shown by visualization of 6 anterior ribs above the diaphragm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the thymus and why is it important in pediatric chest imaging?

A

The thymus is a lymphatic organ in the anterior mediastinum, often visible in infants. It can mimic pathology, so MITs must differentiate it from abnormal findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Radiographic signs of Pneumonia?

A

Patchy or consolidated opacities, often localized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Radiographic signs of Bronchiolitis?

A

Hyperinflation, flattened diaphragm, increased peribronchial markings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Radiographic signs of Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Hyperinflation, bronchial wall thickening, mucus plugging, possible areas of collapse or infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are bucket handle and corner fractures?

A

Metaphyseal fractures caused by shearing forces; strong indicators of non-accidental injury (NAI).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Salter-Harris classification system?

A

A system categorizing growth plate fractures (Types I–V), important for prognosis and treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Salter-Harris Type I?

A

Fracture through the growth plate only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Salter-Harris Type II?

A

Fracture through the growth plate and metaphysis (most common type).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Salter-Harris Type III?

A

Fracture through the growth plate and epiphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Salter-Harris Type IV?

A

Fracture through the metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Salter-Harris Type V?

A

Crush injury to the growth plate, often hard to detect but serious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common age and location for a toddler’s fracture?

A

Age 1–3 years; spiral or oblique fracture of the distal tibia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name two lines used to assess supracondylar fractures.

A

Anterior Humeral Line (should intersect capitellum) and Radiocapitellar Line (should pass through capitellum on all views).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is CRITOL and why is it important?

A

Mnemonic for elbow ossification centers (Capitellum, Radial Head, Internal Epicondyle, Trochlea, Olecranon, Lateral Epicondyle). Helps in assessing skeletal maturity and injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SUFE/SCFE: Demographic and description?

A

Adolescents, especially overweight males. Fracture through the growth plate of femoral head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes: Demographic and description?

A

Age 4–8 years, males > females. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

18
Q

DDH (Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip): Demographic and description?

A

Newborns/infants. Congenital or idiopathic abnormal hip development/dislocation.

19
Q

What is Vesico-ureteric reflux (VUR)?

A

Retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureters/kidneys.

20
Q

Radiographic procedure to assess VUR?

A

Micturating Cystourethrogram (MCUG): contrast introduced via catheter, images taken during filling and voiding.

21
Q

Why is intussusception a medical emergency?

A

One part of the bowel telescopes into another, causing obstruction and ischemia. Treated with air or contrast enema, or surgery if unsuccessful.

22
Q

Most common type of idiopathic scoliosis and age group affected?

A

Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis; affects 10–18 years old.

23
Q

What is Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)?

A

Also called clubfoot. A common developmental disorder of the lower limb affecting ~1 in 1000 births. More common in males (2:1) and Polynesians (up to 75 per 1000 births). Bilateral in 30–50% of cases.

24
Q

Types of Congenital Talipes Equinovarus?

A

Structural and Environmental.

25
What are the three primary mechanisms of cervical spine injury?
Axial Compression Injuries, Hyperflexion Injuries, Hyperextension Injuries
26
What is a Jefferson fracture?
A Jefferson fracture is a burst fracture of the C1 ring caused by axial loading.
27
What is a Hangman’s fracture?
A Hangman’s fracture is a fracture through the pedicles of C2, which is unstable and typically caused by hyperextension and axial loading.
28
What is an Odontoid fracture and what are the types?
An Odontoid fracture involves the dens of C2 and is classified as: Type I: Stable, Type II: Unstable, Type III: Unstable
29
What causes a wedge fracture in the cervical spine?
A wedge fracture results from compression injuries, causing a wedge-shaped vertebra.
30
What is a burst fracture?
A burst fracture involves an anterior fragment being pushed forward and a posterior fragment being pushed back into the spinal canal, which may injure the spinal cord.
31
What is a Clay Shoveler’s fracture and how does it appear on imaging?
A Clay Shoveler’s fracture is caused by hyperflexion and rotation, usually involving C6 or C7. On an AP image, it appears as 'ghosting' of a spinous process.
32
What are the three types of thoracolumbar injuries?
Type A: Compression injuries (e.g., Wedge and Burst Fractures), Type B: Flexion-Distraction injuries (e.g., Chance Fractures), Type C: Displacement/Dislocation injury – Highly unstable
33
What are the three types of fractures in the lower spine?
Wedge Fractures: Compression fractures that result in a wedge-shaped vertebra. Burst Fractures: Unstable compression fractures through the entire vertebral body. Chance Fractures: Horizontal fractures through the spinous process, laminae, pedicles, and vertebral body.
34
What is a Bucket-Handle fracture?
A Bucket-Handle fracture is a type of long bone fracture, typically seen in the distal femur or tibia, where a portion of the bone is fractured and displaced in a shape resembling a handle of a bucket. It is often associated with child abuse and can also result from traumatic injuries.
35
What is the mechanism of injury for a Bucket-Handle fracture?
The mechanism of a Bucket-Handle fracture typically involves a combination of axial loading and rotational forces, which causes the bone to fracture in a characteristic pattern resembling the shape of a bucket handle.
36
What is a Corner Fracture?
A Corner fracture is a type of fracture seen in the metaphyseal region of the long bones, typically in infants and young children, often associated with non-accidental injury (NAI). The fracture involves the corner of the bone, leading to a triangular or angular shape.
37
What is the mechanism of injury for a Corner fracture?
Corner fractures are typically caused by shearing forces and abrupt traction applied to the limb, which commonly occur during violent shaking or pulling of a child, often in the context of child abuse. The shearing forces affect the growth plates, leading to this distinct fracture pattern.
38
What is a Chance fracture?
A Chance fracture is a horizontal (flexion-distraction) fracture through the vertebral body, pedicles, and spinous process—most commonly at the thoracolumbar junction (T12–L2).
39
How does a Chance fracture typically occur?
It is typically caused by sudden forward flexion of the spine, often from a lap belt injury in a motor vehicle accident (especially without a shoulder harness).
40
What injuries may be associated with a Chance fracture?
It may be associated with intra-abdominal injuries, particularly to the bowel.