Imaging CPC Flashcards

1
Q

What are the indications for EEG?

A
• Epilepsy
		○ Likelihood and location of seizure
	· Level of sleep/sedation
	· Sleep disorders
	· Encephalopathy/dementia
	· Encephalitis
	· Brain death
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2
Q

What is the role of EEG in epilepsy?

A

· Not diagnostic
· 1% of normal population have epileptiform abnormalities on EEG
· 15% of epileptics do not show activity
· Can show likelihood of epilepsy or reinforce diagnosis
· Can suggest location of seizure
· Can clarify the seizure types to assist with treatment
· Can assist in diagnosis of non-epileptic events

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3
Q

What is Electro-diagnosis?

A

· Involves nerve conduction and electromyography
· Used interchangeably
· Nerve conduction
○ Stimulation of electrical impulses at different points along a nerve
○ Can stimulate the motor or sensory nerves
○ Triggers an AP
○ Time relationship to stimulus is measured
○ Size of response is measured
○ Usually only a minor discomfort
· EMG
○ Needle is put into the muscle
○ Record electrical activity of the muscle
○ Muscle is silent at rest
○ Motor units are recruited with effort giving an interference pattern
· Risks:
○ Bleeding in people on anticoagulants
○ Pace makers or central lines- then avoid stimulation around the chest which you usually don’t do anyway

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4
Q

When is electro-diagnosis helpful?

A
·  consider as an extension of clinical examination
	· Provides some quantitative data
	· Can localise site of lesion
		○ CNS versus PNS
		○ Within a peripheral nerve ie wrist versus elbow
		○ Conduction block 
	· Can show neuropathic versus myopathic versus neuromuscular junction issues
	· Can determine type of neuropathy
		○ Axonal versus demyelinating (ie GB)
		○ Focal (ie carpel tunnel)
		○ Mononeuritis multiplex
	· Can pick up subclinical abnormality
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5
Q

What are some practical considerations when performing nerve conduction?

A

· nerves closest to the skin are most easily stimulated
· Sensory and motor responses can be measured
· Large fibre neurones preferentially stimulated

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6
Q

What is the Imaging of choice for ischaemic stroke?

A
CT 
		○ Performed first because it is fast
		○ aim:
			§ Exclude haemorrhage
			§ Identify tumour
			§ Identify complications such as midline shift, hydrocephalus or coning
			§ Confirm infarction
			§ Evaluate vessel disease
		○ Non contrast
			§ 60% visible at 6-8 hours 
			§ 100% visible at 24 hours
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7
Q

What are the signs of ischaemic stroke on CT?

A
• May be normal on non-contrast CT
	• Oedema
	• Sharp linear borders
	• Wedge shaped
	• Loss of grey white differentiation
	• Hypodensity of grey and white matter
	• Defines vessel territory 
	• Low attenuation brain tissue
	• Sulcal effacement 
	• Loss of basal ganglia definition
	• Small lacunar infarct
	• Loss of insular ribbon
	• Dense MCA sign
		○ Or other thrombosed vessel
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8
Q

What is CT angiography used for?

A

• Assess for vessel stenosis or occlusion

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9
Q

When is CT perfusion performed?

A

• advanced imaging technique
• Performed in a therapeutic window ( up to 3-6 hours)
• Identifies dead brain versus ischaemic brain
○ Ischaemic brain can be revived
• Helps guide management and prognosis

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10
Q

What is the gold standard for imaging of acute stroke?

What are the considerations?

A
•  MRI
	• Most sensitive in the acute setting
	• Not all patients are suitable
		○ Confused
		○ Pace makers
	• Not available in some settings - ie not 24 hours
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11
Q

What is digital subtraction angiography used for?

A
  • Identify vascular disease

* Deliver treatment

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12
Q

What are the functions of CSF?

A
•  Mechanical 
		○ Hydrostatic buffer against trauma
	• Homeostatic
		○ Maintains PH
		○ Maintains osmolality etc
	• Immunological
		○ Privileged site
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13
Q

Where is CSF produced?
What is the total volume?
Where is it absorbed?

A
  • choroid plexus and brain parenchyma produce it
    • Total volume is 130-140 mls
    • The body produces about 500mls daily
    • Absorbed by the arachnoid villi
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14
Q

What controls the production of CSF?

A
Increases production:
	• Ach stimulation
	• Cholera toxin
	• Caffeine
	• Hyptonicity
	• Hyperthermia
Decreases production:
	•  Ad stimulation
	• Cardiac glucosides
	• Hypertonicity
	• Hypothermia
	• Glucocorticoids
	• Acetazolamide
	• Furosemide
	• Increased CSF pressure
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15
Q

What is the immunological contents of CSF?

A
• ABSENT
		○ Complement proteins
		○ Leukocytes (PMLs)
	• LOW
		○ Antibodies
	• PRESENT:
		○ Lymphocytes
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16
Q

What are the indications for LP?

A
  • measure CSF pressure
    • Sample CSF cells and conduct biochemisty
    • Administer therapy
    • Imaging
17
Q

What are the risks of lumbar puncture?

A

coning
• Introduce infection
• Local trauma (nerve root)
• Post LP headache

18
Q

What is part of the CSF examination?

A
  • Gross appearance (3 samples)
    • Cells (number and type)
    • Protein (EPG/IEPG, IgG/Albumin)
    • Glucose
    • Biochemistry (Pigments, CI)
    • Micro-organisms
    • PCR
    • Culture/sensitivity
19
Q

What are the features of raised intercranial pressure?

A
• Symptoms:
		○ Headahce with morning exacerbation
		○ Headache with cough/strain exacerbation
		○ Vomiting 
		○ Visual disturbance
	• Signs
		○ Papilloedema
		○ False localising signs (VI nerve paresis)
		○ Systemic hypertension
		○ Decreased LOC
20
Q

What are the possible sites that could cause obstructive hydrocephalus?
What could be causing the obstruction?

A
Sites:
	•  Foramen of munro (interventricular foramina)
	• 3rd ventricle
	• Cerebral aqueducts
	• 4th ventricle
Possible causes:
	• Colloid cyst
	• Pinealoma
	• Aqueduct stenosis
	• Space occupying lesion
21
Q

What is a lacunar infarct?

A
  • Penetrating artery infarct
    • Usually takes out a few nerve fibres
    • Common stroke syndrome
22
Q

What are the features of a total anterior circulation infarct?
What supplies this?

A
  • Higher function deficit
    • Homonymous hemianopia
    • Hemiparesis
    • Sensory deficit

Supplied by:
• Internal Carotid artery