Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

Appropriateness of Imaging Scores

A

1-3 = not appropriate, 4-6 = may be appropriate, 7-9 = appropriate

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2
Q

How does the heart look on a PA view, how do you deal with that?

A

Heart always looks bigger, always order a lateral view as well

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3
Q

How is the quality of an oblique X-Ray?

A

Poor quality, can be used as a guide but not for dx

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4
Q

ABCDEFGH Mneumonic for CXR

A

Airway, Bone and soft tissue, Cardiac Silhouette and Mediastinum, Diaphragm, Effusions/Extras (lines, tubes, devices, surgeries), Fields (lung), Gastric bubble, Hilum

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5
Q

Fluoroscopy Uses

A

Functional information, PO contrast is required, evaluates the mucosa of the bowel

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6
Q

Angiography Uses

A

Reveals veins and arteries

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7
Q

Non-Contrast CT Uses

A

Evaluation of acute and subacute blood products, pre-surgical planning complex fractures, acute onset pain multi-joint arthropathy with no changes on plain radiographs, lung parenchyma, renal stones

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8
Q

Does contrast effect the dose of radiation administered?

A

Yes, contrast absorbs radiation at a higher rate and more radiation must be administered

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9
Q

What are the advantages of contrast?

A

Evaluation of solid organs and soft tissue

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10
Q

Why would you use oral contrast?

A

Suspicion of bowel pathology, abcess or lymphadenoapthy

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11
Q

When to use and avoid Gastrograpffin

A

More expensive, tastes terrible, can cause pneumonitis if aspirated, only used with suspected perforation

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12
Q

Benefits of Barium over Gastrograpffin

A

Well tolerated, inexpensive, can cause peritonitis

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13
Q

When would you use IV contrast

A

Evaluation of solid organs, vascular system, enhancement, patterns of masses, advanced function such as organ perfusion

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14
Q

Definition of Contrast Nephropathy

A

0.5 mg or 25% increase in serum creatinine at 48-72 hours after exposure

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15
Q

Risk Factors for Contrast Nephropathy

A

Cardiovascular disease, DM

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16
Q

What do you have to test before you send a patient for a CT with contrast?

A

BUN and SCr

17
Q

Mild Contrast Rxn

A

Nausea, vomiting, urticaria, injection site warmth, injection site pain. Tx with observation 20-30 min

18
Q

Moderate Contrast Rxn

A

Hives, vasovagal rxn, bronchospasm, mild laryngeal edema. Tx Saline, oxygen, leg elevation, Diphenhydramine, beta agonists, epinephrine

19
Q

Severe Contrast Rxn

A

Severe bronchospasm, severe laryngeal edema, loss of consciousness, seizures, cardiac arrest. Tx life support equipment and CPR

20
Q

CT Pre-Imaging Allergy Treatment

A

Prednisone 50 mg at 13, 7 and 1 hour. Diphenhydramine 50 mg oral, IV or IM 1hr prior. Methylprednisolone 32 mg orally 12 and 2 hours prior - optional Benadryl

21
Q

Normal SCr

A

0.5 - 1.2 mg/dL

22
Q

Metformin

A

Hold for 48 hours AFTER the exam (some say 48 hours before as well)

23
Q

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis

A

Vessels become fibrotic, no longer work. All vasculature in the kidney is scarred. Irreversible. Avoid MRI contrast if GFR <30

24
Q

When do you use High resolution CT?

A

Lung inflammation and scarring. Ex) Pulmonary fibrosis

25
Q

SOB after surgery think…?

A

Embolism

26
Q

What is the well’s Criteria used for?

A

Evaluating risk of DVT

27
Q

If you have a suspected PE with a wells score of <4

A

D-dimer assay. If it is normal, PE is excluded. If it is abnormal PE cannot be excluded, do CT with pulmonary angiography

28
Q

If you have a suspected PE with a wells score of >4

A

CT with pulmonary angiography

29
Q

Advantages of MRI

A

Excellent soft tissue contrast resolution, imagines in any plan, no radiation

30
Q

Limitations of MRI

A

No dense bone detail or calcification, limited resolution

31
Q

What is MRI the imaging of choice for?

A

Pelvic disease

32
Q

When do you need a contrast MRI?

A

Neoplastic lesions, vasculature (not blood flow), inflammatory or infectious processes

33
Q

Myelopathy

A

Cord compression - medical emergency, risk of paralysis

34
Q

When to use Ultrasound

A

Reproductive organs, peripheral venous and arterial, biliary system, fetal assessment, heart structure, renal stones, liver, spleen, pneumonia/pleural effusions

35
Q

PET scan isotope

A

Radioisotope 18-fluorodeogyglucose

36
Q

How does PET work?

A

FDG transported across cell membrane of actively metabolizing cells. Tumors are visualized because they have greater glucose metabolism

37
Q

Where do you see false positive PET?

A

Highly metabolic normal tissue (brain, bowel, GU, uterus)

38
Q

Where do you see false negative PET

A

Tumor <1cm, low metabolic tumors