IM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition and Clinical Presentation of Retinal Detachment

A

Separations of the layers of the retina, in patients 40-70s, caused by myopia or trauma, through which fluid seeps in and separates the retinal layers.

Photopsia (flashes of light), floaters (spots in the visual field), and curtain coming over the eyes

Tx: laser therapy and cryotherapy are done to create permanent adhesions between the neurosensory retina and the retinal pigment epithelium and choroid

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2
Q

Choroidal rupture

A

Blunt ocular trauma resulting in central scotoma, retinal edema, hemorrhagic detachment of the macula sub retinal hemorrhage, crescent shaped streak concentric to the optic nerve.

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3
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)

A

Sudden painless loss of vision in one eye, pallor of the optic disc, cherry red fovea, and boxcar segmentation of blood in the retinal veins.

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4
Q

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Initial stages is asymptomatic but later with decrease visual acuity. Neovascularization is the hallmark of proliferative diabetes retinopathy

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5
Q

Exudative macular degeneration

A

Acute or insidious progressive blurring of central vision bilaterally. Abnormal vessels in the retinal space.

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6
Q

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

A

Deficiency of Uroporhyrinogen decarboxylase, part of the Heme synthesis pathway. Results in painless blisters and fragility on the dorsal surface of the hand, facial hypertrichosis, and hyperpigmentation. Can be triggered by ingestion of certain substances (estrogen, ethanol). Elevated urinary prophyrin levels confirms the diagnosis. Phlebotomy and hydroxychloroquine and alpha interferon may provide some relief.

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7
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiform

A

Pruritic papules and vesicles that are mainly on the elbows and knees, buttocks, posterior neck, and scalp. The condition arises in the context of gluten-sensitive enteropathy, which may be subclinical

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8
Q

Crigler’s Najjar syndrome Type 1

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of bilirubin metabolism characterized by severe jaundice, and neurological impairment from kernicterus. In infants, indirect bilirubin + 20-25, but can go to 50. If intravenous phenobarbital is administered, the serum bilirubin remains unchanged. Phototherapy and plasmapheresis typically helpful for short term, but liver transplant is the only cure.

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9
Q

Crigler’s Najjar syndrome type 2

A

Milder autosomal recessive disorder of bilirubin metabolism characterized by lower serum bilirubin levels (<20) and survival into adulthood with no neurological impairment from kernicterus. Liver enzymes and histology are normal. Intravenous phenobarbital can reduce the serum bilirubin levels. Treatment is often unnecessary though periodic administration of phenobarbital or clofibrate can reduce serum bilirubin levels.

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10
Q

Gilbert’s Syndrome

A

Familial syndrome of bilirubin glucuronidation, where the levels of UDP glucuronyl transferase is reduced. Approximately 9% are homozygous, while another 30% are heterozygous and asymptomatic. Manifestations include icterus 2/2 mild predominately unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia - normal levels are <3. Those who are symptomatic have nonspecific complaints such as abdominal pain, increasing fatigue or malaise. Certain events such as hemolysis, fasting, or costuming a fat free diet, physical exertion, stress, fatigue can trigger for hyperbilirubinemia in these patients.

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11
Q

Dx for Man with syncope when micturating or coughing?

A

Situational syncope 2/2 autonomic dysregulation by straining and rapid bladder emptying.

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12
Q

How does weight loss affect the systolic blood pressure?

A

5-20 per 10kg weight loss

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13
Q

How does the dash diet affect systolic blood pressure?

A

Reduction in 8-14 lbs

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14
Q

In atrial fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular response, how do you manage?

A

In atrial fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular response, rate control should be attempted initially with a beta blocker or calcium blocker (diltiazem). Immediate synchronized is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients with rapid atrial fibrillation.

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15
Q

What is Beck’s Triad?

A

Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and Jugular venous distention (and pulses paradoxus) –> Tamponade. It can be a complication of aortac dissection

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16
Q

HACEK organisms

A

Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Carciobacterium hominis, Eikenella Carrodens, Kingella kingae

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17
Q

Risk factors for OSA?

A

Obesity, Hypothyroidism, tonsillar hypertrophy.

Typical symptoms: daytime sleepiness, headache in the morning, snoring, poor judgement, impotence

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18
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Poorly regulated rapid eye movement, patients may also suffer from hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations

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19
Q

Pickwickian Syndrome

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome impeding the expansion of the chest and abdomen during breathing causing under ventilation of lungs at all hours.

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20
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Worsening of RUQ pain with inspiration, indication of cholecystitis

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21
Q

When does cholecystitis normally arise

A

It is secondary to stone formation and most commonly arises when gallstone impacts the cystic duct

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22
Q

Cluster headache

A

recurrent episodes of unilateral, periorbital headache accompanied by ipsilateral rhinorrhea, lacrimation, red eye, and Horner syndrome. Episodes typically affect men between 20-50, occur at night and less than 2 hours.

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23
Q

Enthesitis

A

When the site where the ligaments/tendon attach to bone becomes inflamed. Typical site include the heel, tibial tuberosity, and iliac crest. Common finding in Ankylosing Spondylitis and other HLA-B27 associated

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24
Q

What drugs/supplement increases the effect of warfarin?

A

Acetominophen, NSAIDs, antibiotic/antifungal, amiodarone, cranberry juice, ginkgo, vitamin E, omeprazole, thyroid hormone SSRI

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25
Q

What drugs/supplement decrease the effect of warfarin?

A

Leafy green, Rifampin, Carbamazepine, Oral contraception, Ginseng, St. John’s wort, Green vegetables

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26
Q

What is the pH of empyema?

A

<7.2. This indicates the need to remove by thoracostomy

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27
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Dopamine receptor antagonist used to treat nausea, gastroparesis, vomitting. Should be monitored for drug induced extrapyramidal signs (tar dive dyskinesia, dystonic reaction, parkinsonism)

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28
Q

What is mixed cryoglobulinemia?

A

Palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria. Other suggestive clinical manifestations include non-specific symptoms, arthralgias, hepatosplenomegaly, hypocomplementemia, majority of patients have an underlying HCV

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29
Q

Henoch Scholein Purpura

A

Presents in childhood with palpable purpura on the buttocks, arthralgias, proteinuria, and hematuria with RBC casts on urinalysis. Serum complement levels are normal.

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30
Q

Tumor lysis Syndrome

A

Tumors with high cell turnover which are commonly poorly differentiated lymphomas (i.e. Burkitt’s lymphoma) and leukemias. Results in hyperphosphotemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperuricemia. Allopurinol has greatly reduced the rate of acute urate nephropathy.

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31
Q

Most common type of blood transfusion reaction

A

Febrile Non-hemolytic: fevers, chills, within 1-6 hours of transfusion, caused by cytokine accumulation during blood storage.

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32
Q

Other types of blood transfusion reactions: Acute hemolytic

A

Acute hemolytic: flank pain, hemoglobinuria, renal failure & DIC, within one hour of transfusion, positive direct Coomb’s test, pink plasma, Caused by ABO incompatibility

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33
Q

Blood transfusion reaction: Delay Hypersensitivity

A

2-10 days after, mild fever, hemolytic anemia, positive direct Coomb’s test, positive new antibody screen, caused by anamnestic antibody response

Anaphylactic: Rapid onset of shock; angioedema/urticaria & respiratory distress, within seconds to minutes of transfusion, caused by recipients anti-IgA antibodies

Urticaria/allergic: urticaria, flushing, angioedema, & pruritis, , within 2-3 hours of transfusion; caused by recipient IgE antibodies and mast-cell activation

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34
Q

Primary Raynaud’ Phenomenon

A

No underlying cause
Usually woman < 30
Possible prevalence in multiple family members
Symmetric attacks, no tissue injury, digital pitting, negative nailfold capillary examination, negative antinuclear antibodies, erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Tx: no further evaluation, avoidance of aggravating factors
Avoidance of aggravating factors
Calcium channel blockers for persistent symptoms

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35
Q

Secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon

A

Connective Tissue Diseases, Occlusive vascular conditions (i.e. Buerger’s disease), sympathomimetic drugs (i.e. ephedrine, epinephrine), vibrating tools, hyper viscosity syndromes (cryoglobinemia)

Usually men>40, asymmetric attacks, presence of another attack, painful episodes of tissue injury, abnormal nailfold capillary examination. Abnormal studies for vascular or autoimmune disorder

Tx: eval/tx underlying etiology, Ca blocker for symptoms, aspirin if at risk for digital ulceration, chemical/surgical sympathectomy for severe ischemia

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36
Q

Those with suspected secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon should have which tests?

A

Urinalysis
ANA and RF
Complete Blood count/metabolic panel
Erythrocyte sedimentation and complement levels

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37
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Ascending polyradiculoneuropathy that often preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection or diarrhea (i.e. Campylobacter Jejeuni). Presents as bilateral leg weakness that ascends to the arms, respiratory muscles, and face to generalized flaccid paralysis. Distal parasthesia is common. Reflexes are diminished or absent. Reflexes are diminished/absent. Autonomic disturbances are common and include tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, orthostatic hypotension, and urinary retention.

Tx: IVIG, plasmapheresis

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38
Q

CSF composition of Guillain Barre

A

Protein - increased (due to increase permeability of BBB) (normal is <40)
WBC - normal (0-5)
RBC - normal
Glucose - normal (40-70)

Albuminocytologic dissociation

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39
Q

CSF composition of Bacterial, fungal, tubercular meningitis

A

Protein - increased
WBC - increased
RBC - normal
Glucose - decreased

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40
Q

CSF composition of viral meningitis

A

Protein - normal to slightly elevated
WBC - increased
RBC -normal
glucose - normal

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41
Q

What type of toxicity is seen in smoke inhalation

A

CO poisoning, CO binds to hemoglobin with an affinity of 260x O2, it will displace the O2 and decrease the Hg binding sites available for O2. CO will cause a LEFT shift to the oxyhemoglobin curve. This disallow unloading of the oxygen to the tissues. This results in an increased anaerobic metabolism by the tissue leading to increase lactic acid production and development of an anion gap metabolic acidosis

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42
Q

What induces a seizure?

A

Emotions, sleep loss, alcohol withdrawal, flashing lights

Clinical clues: auras (olfactory, hallucinations), can occur with sleeping or sitting position, head movements, tongue bitting, rapid, strong movements

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43
Q

What induces a syncope?

A

Upright position, emotion, heat, crowded places

Clinical clues: signs of pre syncope (i.e. lightheadedness), unlikely to occur with sleeping, or sitting, rarely several clonic jerks can occur with prolonged cerebral hypo perfusion, pallor and diaphoresis, weak slow pulses

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44
Q

Pseudotumor cerebri

A

young obese female with headaches that suggest brain tumor but has normal neuroimaging and normal CSF pressures.

tx: weight reduction and acetozolamide if weight loss fails. Shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration can prevent blindness

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45
Q

What is pronator drift indicative of?

A

Upper motor neuron disease

46
Q

How to test for proprioception?

A

Patient closes eyes, and you move patients fingers. Romberg’s test (patient closes eyes, and see if he falls over)

47
Q

What does the parietal control

A

sensation, perception, and the integration of sensory input

48
Q

How to test the cerebellum

A

Dysmetria, and rapidly alternating movements. Lesion can also produce upward drift

49
Q

When is infliximab used?

A

TNF-alpha blocker - Inflammatory bowel disease, ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis

50
Q

When is cyclophosphamide used?

A

SLE with renal involvement, chemotherapeutic agent

51
Q

When is hydroxychloroquine used?

A

Prophylaxis for malaria, treatment for acute malaria, SLE, and rheumatoid arthritis

52
Q

Sarcoidosis presentation and treatment

A

X-ray with hilar adenopathy with or without reticulonodular infiltrates, and biopsies showing noncaseating granulomas. Others: erythema nodosum, anterior uveitis, acute polyarthritis. ACE may be elevated. If symptomatic, treat with glucocorticoids

53
Q

What are some etiology of left axis deviation

A

LVH, LBBB, inferior MI, WPW

54
Q

What are some etiologies of right axis deviation

A

RVH, PE, COPD, septal defects, lateral MI, WPW

55
Q

What does DVT management entail?

A

Acute anti-coagulation and stabilization of the clot, chronic anticoagulation, and treatment of DVT complications.

Heparin retards further thrombus formation, and stabilizes it, however, does not lyse existing clot. It normally takes 4-5 days before warfarin comes into effect, hence bridging with Heparin is needed. New DVTs should wear compression stockings to decrease the risk of developing post-phlebitic syndrome, a devastating complications. First time DVT are treated with anticoagulants for 6 months.

56
Q

Are thrombolytics indicated for DVT?

A

NO. They are indicated for hemodynamically significant pulmonary emboli.

57
Q

What is delayed sleep phase syndrome?

A

A circadian sleep wake disorder characterized by sleep onset insomnia and excessive morning sleepiness.

Advanced sleep phase syndrome is the opposite problem

58
Q

What is pseudo gout?

A

Caused by calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (CPPD) deposition. Synovial fluid reveals rhomboid shaped, positive bifirengent crystals.

59
Q

Heart murmur at the left sternal border that decreases with increase preload is classic for what?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

60
Q

What drugs induce drug-induced lupus?

A

hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid

61
Q

What are signs of Cushing syndrome?

A

Fatigue, weight gain, easy bruising, central adiposity, proximal muscle weakness, hyperglycemia, osteopenia, and osteoporosis, hypertension, acne, susceptibility to infections. Excess corticosteroids can act like mineral corticoids like aldosterone and induce potassium wasting.

62
Q

What is the significance of leukocyte esterase and nitrites?

A

Leukocyte esterase indicates the prescence of significant pyuria. While nitrites indicates the presence of Enterobacteriacaece which turns the urinary nitrate to nitrite

63
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A
Renovascular disease (renal artery stenosis)
Severe hypertension (>180 mmHg systolic and/or 120 mmHg diastolic) after age 55. Possible recurrent pulmonary edema or resistant heart failure. Unexplained rise in serum creatinine, abdominal bruit

Should be suspected in asymmetric kidneys, diffuse atherosclerosis, recurrent pulmonary edema, elevated serum creatinine >30% after starting a ACE inhibitor or ARB.

64
Q

Other causes of secondary hypertension?

A

Renal parenchymal disease - elevated serum creatinine, abnormal urinalysis (proteinuria, RBC casts)

Primary aldosteronism - easily provoked hypokalemia, slight hypernatremia, hypertension with adrenal incidentaloma

Pheochromocytoma - paroxysmal elevated blood pressures with tachycardia, pounding headaches, palpitations, diaphoresis, vanillylmandelic acid

Cushing Syndrome, Hypothyroidism, Primary hyperparathyroidism, Coarctation of the aorta

65
Q

What is mupirocin used for?

A

Topical antibiotic used to treat superficial skin infections like impetigo and to eradicate MRSA colonization from the nares

66
Q

Uses for topical 5-fluorouracil?

A

Skin conditions that rapidly divide like actinic keratosis and basal cell carcinoma

67
Q

How does cauda equine syndrome present?

A

Severe lower back pain with unilateral radiculopathy, saddle anesthesia, hyporeflexia, profound asymmetric motor weakness, and late-onset bowel and bladder dysfunction

68
Q

How does conus medullaris syndrome present?

A

severe back pain with less degree of radiculopathy, perianal anesthesia, hyperreflexia, mild bilateral motor weakness, and early-onset bowel and bladder disturbances.

69
Q

Lumbar spinal stenosis

A

Degenerative condition where the spinal canal is narrowed resulting in compression of 1+ spinal roots. Most commonly due to enlarging osteophytes at the facet joints and hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. Most affected patients are over 60. Patients experience pain that radiates to the buttocks and thighs. Numbness and paresthesias may occur. Typically worse on extension, and better on flexion. Diagnosis confirmed with MRI.

70
Q

Lumbar disc herniation

A

Present with acute onset of back pain with or without radiation down one leg. Patient can recall the inciting event. Flexion and sitting will make it worse.

71
Q

How does metastatic disease of the back present?

A

Pain that is chronic, dull, worse at night, and change little with activity. Usually non-radiating.

72
Q

Serum Osmolarity and Osmolar gap

A

Serum Osmolarity = 2Na + Glu/18 + BUN/2.8
Osmol gap = Observed osmolarity - calculated osmolarity
Normal = <10

73
Q

Normal Anion gap

A

6-12

74
Q

Interstitial lung disease findings

A

Decreased lung volumes ( low residual volume) with preserved or increased FEV1/FVC ratios, reduced DLCO, and increase A-a gradients.

75
Q

What are clinical associations with minimal change disease?

A

NSAIDs, lymphoma

76
Q

What are clinical associations with focal segmental glomerulonephritis

A

African American, Hispanic, HIV and Heroine use

77
Q

Clinical associations with membranous nephropathy

A

Adenocarcinoma(breast lung), NSAID, Hep B, SLE

78
Q

Clinical associations with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Hep B, C, lipodystrophy, chronic bacterial infection (i.e. endocarditis)

79
Q

Clinical associations with IgA nephropathy

A

Upper respiratory tract infections

80
Q

How does total parenteral nutrition increase risk for gallstones?

A

The normal stimulation of CCK and gallbladder contraction (protein and fat in duodenum) is absent –> biliary stasis – >stones.

81
Q

Lead time bias?

A

Prolongation of apparent survival in patients to whom a test (screening) is applied without changing the prognosis of the disease

82
Q

EKG of atrial fibrillation

A

Absent p waves which are replaced with tiny chaotic fibrillatory waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals and narrow QRS complexes. Pulmonary veins are the most common origin for ectopic foci that cause atrial fibrillation.

83
Q

Where does Paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycardia form re-entry circuits

A

Most commonly within the AV node or via accessory bypass tracts

84
Q

What does whole blood contain that chelates calcium

A

Citrate anticoagulant chelates the calcium and magnesium and can cause hypocalcemia

85
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A

Nocturnal polysomnography

86
Q

What are smudge cells pathognomonic for?

A

CLL. Disease of older individuals (median age = 70). Flow cytometry can prove clonality of the abnormal lymphocyte and is generally used to confirm the diagnosis.

87
Q

What is JAK2 mutations used to diagnose?

A

Myeloproliferative disease particularly polycythemia vera

88
Q

When is serum protein electrophoresis used?

A

Detect elevated levels of a monoclonal protein as seen in multiple myeloma

89
Q

When is Epstein Barr virus serology used?

A

Confirm a diagnosis of mononucleosis which typically targets a younger population

90
Q

What is the most common cause of ductopenia (vanishing bile duct syndrome)?

A

Primary Biliary cirrhosis.

91
Q

Hyperestrogenemia from cirrhosis of the liver can lead to what findings?

A

Gynecomastia, palmar erythema, spider angioma, testicular atrophy, decrease body hair

92
Q

What is the murmur heard for infective endocarditis?

A

Tricuspid valve.

Holosystolic murmur that gets louder upon inspiration.

93
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Synthetic (synthesizes coagulation factors, cholesterol, proteins)
Metabolism (metabolism of estrogen, drugs, steroids)
Excretion (bile excretion)

94
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalemia if you want to remove from the body?

A

K+ can be removed from the body via diuretics, cation-exchange resin (kayexalate), or dialysis!

95
Q

Treatment for hyperkalemia which shifts the potassium into the cells

A

Sodium bicarbonate, insulin plus dextrose drip, and beta agonist will drive the potassium into the cells.

96
Q

What are the vascular phenomenons of infective endocarditis? (makes up minor criteria in Duke’s Criterias)

A

Systemic arterial emboli (focal neurological deficits, renal or splenic infarcts)
Septic pulmonary infarcts
Janeway lesion - macular, erythematous lesions on the palms and soles
Conjunctival hemorrhages
mycotic aneurysms

97
Q

What are the immunological phenomenons of infective endocarditis? (makes up a minor criteria in Duke’s Criteria)

A

Osler’s Node - painful, violaceous nodules seen on the fingertips and toes
Roth spots - edematous and hemorrhagic lesions on the retina
Glomerulonephritis
Arthritis or positive RF

98
Q

Classic triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Cognitive dysfunction, gait difficulty, and urinary incontinence

99
Q

Presentation of spinal cord compression

A

Worsening focal back pain, bilateral lower-extremity weakness, sensory loss, and gait ataxia. Bowel/bladder disturbances are late findings. In the acute phase of the spinal injury, there can be flaccid paralysis and absence of reflexes

100
Q

What are the three categories of diabetic retinopathy?

Tx?

A

(1) Background, simple retinopathy - microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
(2) Pre-proliferative retinopathy - cotton wool spots
(3) Proliferative/malignant retinopathy - neovascularization

Visual impairment occur with macular edema
Tx: Argon photolaser coagulation for prevention of complications

101
Q

Central retinal vein occlusion

A

Sudden, unilateral visual impairment that normally happens in the mornings. Ophthalmoscopy reveals disc swelling, venous dilation, and tortuosity, retinal hemorrhage, and cotton wool spots

102
Q

Macular degeneration

A

Affects central vision - distorted vision and central scotoma. Macular degeneration affects central vision. Ophthalmoscopy findings are:

Atrophic - multiple sores in the macular region
Exudative form - new blood vessels that may leak, bleed and scar the retina

103
Q

Open angle glaucoma

A

Gradual loss of peripheral vision, resulting in tunnel vision. Ophthalmoscopy shows pathologic cupping of the optic disc.

104
Q

What are normal changes to the aging heart?

A

Decrease in resting and maximal cardiac output, decreased maximum heart rate, increase contraction, and relaxation time of the heart, increased myocardial stiffness, during diastole, decreased myocyte number and pigment accumulation in myocardial cells

105
Q

What are the causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia?

A

Renal loses (diuretic)
Acute blood loss
Primary adrenal insufficiency
GI loss - Diarrhea and vomiting

106
Q

What are the causes of euvolemic hyponatremia?

A

SIADH (i.e. due to drugs and malignancy)
Primary (psychogenic polydipsia)
Secondary adrenal insufficiency
Hypothyroidism

107
Q

What are the causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia?

A

CHF
Cirrhosis
Chronic kidney disease or nephrotic disease

108
Q

Cause of hyponatremia

A

Excess water intake that is greater than the kidney’s ability to remove the free water. Thus hyponatremia is due to increase water intake, inability to suppress ADH release or impaired renal ability to excrete free water.

Hypovolemic hyponatremia has appropriately increased ADH levels. Euvolemic and hypervolemic usually have inappropriately elevated ADH.

109
Q

How is ADH secretion regulated?

A

Primarily by plasma osmolarity. However, significant hypovolemia is also a potent stimulator of ADH release.

110
Q

Rotator cuff tears causes, dx, and tx.

A

Result from chronic rotator cuff tendonitis and shoulder trauma. Shoulder pain and weakness when lifting the arms, above the head is suggestive of rotator cuff pathology. Lidocaine injections ameliorate the pain of rotator cuff tendonitis, but does not improve symptoms of rotator cuff tear. MRI is a great way to look at soft tissue structures and the study of choice for rotator cuff tears.

111
Q

What do patients with atrial fibrillation need to be screened for?

A

Occult hyperthyroidism