Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > IHC > Flashcards

IHC Flashcards

1
Q

What markers are associated with Squamous cell carcinoma?

A

high molecular weight cytokeratins, EMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What markers are used to identify Melanoma?

A

S100, MELAN-A, HMB-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify the markers for Mesothelioma.

A

calretinin, CK5/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the markers for Adenocarcinoma lung?

A

CK7+, CK20-, TTF+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What markers characterize Adenocarcinoma colon?

A

CK7-, CK20+, TTF1-, CDX2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which markers are associated with Neuroendocrine tumors?

A

chromogranin, synaptophysin, neuron specific enolase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What markers are used to identify GIST?

A

CD117, PDGFRa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the markers for Hepatocellular carcinoma.

A

HePAR1, AFP, EMA, pankerattin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What markers are associated with Adrenocortical neoplasms?

A

inhibin, melanA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the markers for Pheochromocytoma.

A

NSE, chromogranin, synaptophysin, opiod peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What markers characterize Renal cell carcinoma?

A

CK8, CK18, CD10, RCC antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the markers for Transitional cell carcinoma.

A

thrombomodulin, uroplakin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What markers are associated with Seminoma?

A

PLAP, CD117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What markers are used to identify Embryonal carcinoma?

A

CD30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the marker for Yolk sac tumor?

A

AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Identify the markers for sex cord stromal tumors.

A

Inhibin, calretinin, activin, mullerian inhibiting substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What markers are associated with Leiomyoma?

A

smooth muscle actin, caldesmon, calponin, desmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What markers characterize Serous ovarian tumors?

A

CK7+, CK20-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What markers are used for Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast?

A

ER, PR, Her2neu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a specific marker for Invasive lobular carcinoma?

A

absence of Ecadherin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does CD45 represent?

A

common leucocyte antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the Pan B markers.

A

CD19, CD20, CD21, CD22, PAX5, CD79a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List the Pan T markers.

A

cytoplasmic CD3, CD2, CD5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What markers are associated with NK cells?

A

CD56, CD16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What markers are used for Plasma cells?

A

CD138, immunoglobulin kappa/lambda light chains, MUM1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the marker for ALL and Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

CD10 positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does Tdt positivity indicate?

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What markers are associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

CD15, CD30 - CLASSIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What markers characterize Anaplastic large cell lymphoma?

A

CD30+, ALK1, EMA+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What markers are used for Mantle cell lymphoma?

A

cyclinD1, CD5+, pan B markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What markers are associated with Langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

CD1a, S100, LANGERIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What markers are used for Hairy cell leukemia?

A

CD19, CD20, CD22, CD11c, CD25, CD103

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What markers are associated with Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

CD99, vimentin, NSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does Cytokeratin indicate?

A

Carcinomas, epithelioid sarcoma, synovial sarcoma, some angiosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas, mesothelioma, extrarenal rhabdoid tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does Vimentin indicate?

A

Sarcomas, melanoma, some carcinomas and lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does Desmin indicate?

A

Benign and malignant smooth and skeletal muscle tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does Glial fibrillary acidic protein indicate?

A

Gliomas, some schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do Neurofilaments indicate?

A

Neuroblastic tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does Pan-muscle actin indicate?

A

Benign and malignant smooth and skeletal muscle tumors, myofibroblastic tumors and pseudotumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does Smooth muscle actin indicate?

A

Benign and malignant smooth muscle tumors, myofibroblastic tumors and pseudotumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do Myogenic nuclear regulatory proteins indicate?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does S-100 protein indicate?

A

Melanoma, benign and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, cartilaginous tumors, normal adipose tissue, Langerhans cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does Epithelial membrane antigen indicate?

A

Carcinomas, epithelioid sarcoma, synovial sarcoma, perineurioma, meningioma, anaplastic large cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does CD31 indicate?

A

Benign and malignant vascular tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does von Willebrand factor indicate?

A

Benign and malignant vascular tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does CD34 indicate?

A

Benign and malignant vascular tumors, solitary fibrous tumor, hemangiopericytoma, epithelioid sarcoma, dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does CD99 indicate?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumor, some rhabdomyosarcomas, some synovial sarcomas, lymphoblastic lymphoma, mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, small cell osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does CD45 indicate?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does CD30 indicate?

A

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, embryonal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does CD68 indicate?

A

Macrophages, fibrohistiocytic tumors, granular cell tumors, various sarcomas, melanomas, carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are Melanosome-specific antigens used for?

A

Melanoma, PEComa, clear cell sarcoma, melanotic schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do MDM2/CDK4 indicate?

A

Atypical lipomatous tumor and dedifferentiated liposarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does Glut-1 indicate?

A

Perineurioma, infantile hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does Protein kinase C ϑ indicate?

A

GIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does Bcl-2 indicate?

A

Synovial sarcoma, solitary fibrous tumor, other spindle cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Angiosarcoma?

A

Endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the useful marker for Angiosarcoma?

A

CD31, CD34, FLI-1, von Willebrand factor, ulex lectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Leiomyosarcoma?

A

Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the useful markers for Leiomyosarcoma?

A

Muscle (smooth) actins, desmin, caldesmon, myosin heavy chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the useful markers for Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

MyoD1, myogenin; muscle (sarcomeric) actins; desmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor?

A

Nerve sheath (e.g., Schwann cell, perineurial cell)

63
Q

What are the useful markers for Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor?

A

S-100, CD57, NGF receptor, EMA, claudin-1, Glut-1

64
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Liposarcoma?

A

Adipocyte

65
Q

What are the useful markers for Liposarcoma?

A

S-100 protein, MDM2, CDK4

66
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Chondrosarcoma?

A

Chondrocyte

67
Q

What are the useful markers for Chondrosarcoma?

A

S-100 protein

68
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Osteogenic sarcoma?

A

Osteocyte

69
Q

What is the useful marker for Osteogenic sarcoma?

A

Osteocalcin

70
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Kaposi sarcoma?

A

Endothelium

71
Q

What are the useful markers for Kaposi sarcoma?

A

CD31, CD34, VEGFR3, LANA

72
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Myofibroblastic lesions?

A

Myofibroblast

73
Q

What are the useful markers for Myofibroblastic lesions?

A

Smooth muscle actins

74
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Gastrointestinal stromal tumor?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

75
Q

What are the useful markers for Gastrointestinal stromal tumor?

A

CD117a (c-kit), CD34, protein kinase C ϑ

76
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Hemangiopericytoma?

A

?

77
Q

What are the useful markers for Hemangiopericytoma?

A

CD34, bcl-2

78
Q

What is the normal cell counterpart for Glomus tumors?

A

Glomus cell

79
Q

What are the useful markers for Glomus tumors?

A

Smooth muscle actins, type IV collagen

80
Q

What type of inclusions does pox virus cause?

A

Cytoplasmic

81
Q

What type of inclusions does herpes virus cause?

A

Nuclear

82
Q

What type of inclusions does measles cause?

A

Both nuclear and cytoplasmic

83
Q

What type of inclusions are associated with adenovirus?

A

Basophilic inclusions

84
Q

What are Negri bodies?

A

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions in rabies

85
Q

What are guaneri bodies?

A

Intracytoplasmic multiple smaller inclusions in vaccinia

86
Q

What are Bollinger bodies?

A

Fowl pox

87
Q

What are Molluscum bodies?

A

Larger intracytoplasmic inclusions in molluscum contagiosum

88
Q

What are Cowdry type A inclusions associated with?

A

Herpes virus, yellow fever virus

89
Q

What are Cowdry type B inclusions associated with?

A

Adenovirus, polio virus

90
Q

What type of inclusions does Cytomegalovirus cause?

A

Both basophilic intranuclear inclusion and eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion

91
Q

What inclusions are associated with Parvo virus B19?

A

Intranuclear inclusions in erythroblasts

92
Q

What are Donovan bodies?

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

93
Q

What inclusions does Chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A

Halbersteadter Prowazek bodies

94
Q

What are Miyagawa’s granulocorpuscles?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis causing lymphogranuloma venereum

95
Q

What are Levinthal cole lilies bodies?

A

Chlamydia psittaci causing psittacosis

96
Q

What are Sclerotic / copper penny/ meddlers bodies associated with?

A

Chromoblastomycosis

97
Q

What are Maltese crosses seen in?

A

Peripheral smear - RBCs - babesiosis

98
Q

What are Civatte (colloid) bodies associated with?

A

Lichen planus

99
Q

What are Kamino bodies associated with?

A

Spitz nevus

100
Q

What inclusions are seen in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Senile neuritic plaques & neurofibrillary tangles

101
Q

What are Hirano bodies associated with?

A

Alzheimer’s disease - elongated eosinophilic glassy inclusions

102
Q

What are Pick bodies associated with?

A

Pick disease - cytoplasmic filamentous inclusions in the neurons

103
Q

What are Aschoff bodies associated with?

A

Rheumatic fever

104
Q

What are Russel bodies?

A

Intracytoplasmic inclusions in plasma cell myeloma

105
Q

What are Dutchers bodies?

A

Intranuclear inclusions in plasma cell myeloma

106
Q

What are Gamna gandy bodies associated with?

A

CVC spleen

107
Q

What are Mallory bodies associated with?

A

Alcoholic liver disease

108
Q

What kind of lesions are Onion skin lesions?

A

Hypertensive arteriolosclerosis

109
Q

What does Stag horn appearance indicate?

A

Hemangiopericytoma

110
Q

What does Bovine heart appearance indicate?

A

Syphilis

111
Q

What does Tree bark appearance of vessel indicate?

A

Syphilitic aneurysm

112
Q

What does Banana shaped ventricular cavity indicate?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

113
Q

What are Skip lesions associated with?

A

Crohn’s disease

114
Q

What does Creeping fat indicate?

A

Crohn’s disease

115
Q

What does Cobblestone appearance indicate?

A

Crohn’s disease

116
Q

What are Pseudopolyps associated with?

A

Ulcerative colitis

117
Q

What does Arborizing pattern indicate?

A

Peutz Jeghers polyp

118
Q

What does Row of tombstone appearance indicate?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

119
Q

What does Dilapidated brick wall appearance indicate?

A

Hailey Hailey disease

120
Q

What are Corps ronds and grains associated with?

A

Dariers disease

121
Q

What does Palisaded pattern indicate?

A

Schwannoma

122
Q

What does Herring bone pattern indicate?

A

Fibrosarcoma

123
Q

What does Storiform pattern indicate?

A

Fibrohistiocytoma

124
Q

What are Rosettes associated with?

A

Flexner winterstriner rosettes - retinoblastoma

125
Q

What are Homer Wright rosettes associated with?

A

Neuroblastoma

126
Q

What are Fleurettes associated with?

A

Retinoblastoma

127
Q

What does Crookes hyaline change indicate?

A

ACTH adenoma

128
Q

What does Tennis racket appearance indicate?

A

Birbeck bodies - Langerhans cell histiocytosis

129
Q

What does Wind blown appearance of nuclei indicate?

A

Bowen’s disease

130
Q

What does Zellballen pattern indicate?

A

Paraganglioma

131
Q

What does Swiss cheese appearance indicate?

A

Cystoglandular hyperplasia of endometrium

132
Q

What does Shredded carrot appearance indicate?

A

Neurofibroma

133
Q

What does Plexiform vasculature /crow feet vessels indicate?

A

Myxoid liposarcoma

134
Q

What does Chicken wire calcification indicate?

A

Chondroblastoma

135
Q

What does Gram stain identify?

A

Gram positive bacteriae, actinomyces

136
Q

What does Acid fast stain identify?

A

Mycobacteria, nocardiae

137
Q

What does Silver stain identify?

A

Fungi, legionellae, pneumocystis

138
Q

What does Periodic acid stain identify?

A

Fungi, amoebae, to delineate basement membrane, glycogen

139
Q

What does Mucicarmine stain identify?

A

Cryptococcus

140
Q

What does Giemsa stain identify?

A

Helicobacter pylori, leishmania, malarial parasites

141
Q

What does Perls stain identify?

A

Iron stain - ringed sideroblasts in myelodysplastic syndrome, increased in hemochromatosis, seen in hemosiderin laden macrophages

142
Q

What does Masson Fontana stain identify?

A

Stains for melanin

143
Q

What does PAS positive indicate?

A

Glycogen storage diseases - Gaucher disease

144
Q

What does Sudan black B stain identify?

A

Lipid storage diseases - Niemann Pick disease

145
Q

What does Oil red O stain identify?

A

Neutral fat in Burkitt’s lymphoma

146
Q

What does Myeloperoxidase staining indicate?

A

In AML

147
Q

What does Van Geison’s stain identify?

A

Elastin (black colour)

148
Q

What does Mason’s trichrome stain identify?

A

Collagen (green/blue), muscle (red), nuclei (yellow)

149
Q

What does Congo red stain identify?

A

Amyloidosis - apple green birefringence

150
Q

What does Reticulin stain indicate?

A

In myelofibrosis for grading

151
Q

What does Indian ink staining identify?

A

Cryptococcus

152
Q

What does Rubeanic acid staining identify?

A

Copper in Wilson’s disease

153
Q

What does TRAP Positive indicate?

A

Hairy cell leukemia

154
Q

What does Von Kossa and Alizarin red S stain identify?

A

Calcium stain

Pathology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions