Iggy Questions Cpt 29 & 30 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these clients will the charge nurse on the medical unit assign to an RN who has floated from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU)?

A) Client with allergic rhinitis scheduled for skin testing
B) Client with emphysema who needs teaching about pulmonary function testing    C)  Client with pancreatitis who needs a preoperative chest x-ray
D)Client with pleural effusion who has had 1200 mL removed by thoracentesis
A

D

Correct: A nurse working in the PACU would be familiar with assessing vital signs and respiratory status after procedures such as thoracentesis.

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2
Q

An RN and an LPN/LVN are working together to provide care for a client hospitalized with dyspnea who requires all of these nursing actions. Which of these actions is best accomplished by the RN?

A) Administer the purified protein derivative (PPD) for tuberculosis testing.    B) Assess vital signs and the puncture site after thoracentesis.
C) Monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry every 4 hours.
D) Plan client and family teaching regarding upcoming pulmonary function testing.
A

D

Correct: Developing the teaching plan is the most complex of the skills listed and requires RN education and licensure

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3
Q

A client has returned to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after a bronchoscopy. Which of these nursing tasks is best for the charge nurse to delegate to the experienced nursing assistant working in PACU?

A) Assess breath sounds.
B) Check gag reflex.
C) Determine level of consciousness.
D) Monitor blood pressure and pulse.
A

D

Correct: A nursing assistant working in the PACU would have experience in taking client vital signs after the client has had conscious sedation or anesthesia.

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4
Q

The RN has received report about all of these clients. Which client needs the most immediate assessment?

A) Client with acute asthma who has an oxygen saturation of 89% by pulse oximetry
B) Client admitted 3 hours ago for a scheduled thoracentesis in 30 minutes
C) Client with bronchogenic lung cancer who returned from bronchoscopy 3 hours ago
D) Client with pleural effusion who has decreased breath sounds at the right base
A

A

Correct: An oxygen saturation level less than 91% indicates hypoxemia and requires immediate assessment and intervention to improve blood and tissue oxygenation.

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5
Q

The home health nurse is assigned to visit all of these clients when a change in agency staffing requires that one of the clients should be rescheduled for a visit on the following day. Which of these clients would be best to reschedule?

A) Client with emphysema who has been on home oxygen for a month and has SPO2 levels of 91% to 93%
B) Client with history of a cough, weight loss, and night sweats who has just had a positive Mantoux test
C) Client with newly diagnosed pleural effusion who needs an admission visit and an initial intake assessment
D) Client with percutaneous lung biopsy yesterday who called in to report increased dyspnea
A

A

This client has an appropriate Spo2 for home oxygen use.

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6
Q

Which of these assessment findings will be of greatest concern when the nurse is assessing a client with emphysema?

A) Barrel-shaped chest
B) Bronchial breath sounds heard at the bases
C) Hyperresonance to percussion of the chest
D) Ribs lying horizontal
A

B

Correct: Bronchial breath sounds are not normally heard in the periphery and may indicate increased lung density, as in a tumor or an infective process such as pneumonia.

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7
Q

People involved in which occupations or activities are encouraged to wear masks and to have adequate ventilations? Select all that apply.

    A) Bakers
    B) Coal miners
    C) Electricians
    D) Furniture refinishers
    E) Plumbers
    F) Potters
A

A,B,D,F

Correct: Being exposed to flour as a baker for prolonged periods of time may cause a condition called occupational asthma.
Correct: Coal miners are at risk to develop pneumoconiosis as the result of inhalation of coal dust.
Correct: Owing to the chemicals used to refinish furniture (paint strippers, solvents), masks and adequate ventilation are essential for furniture refinishers. One of the main solvents involved will metabolize in the body to carbon monoxide and will impair the ability of the tissue to extract oxygen.
Correct: Silicosis or inhalation of silica dust is a hazard for professional and recreational potters.

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8
Q

Which nursing intervention is the priority in preparing the client for pulmonary function testing (PFT)?

A) Administer bronchodilator medication on call.
B) Encourage clear fluid intake 12 hours before the procedure
C) Ensure no smoking 6 hours before the test.
D) Provide supplemental oxygen as testing begins.
A

C

Correct: If the client has been smoking, this may alter parts of the PFT (diffusing capacity [DlCO]), yielding inaccurate results.

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9
Q

The nurse is performing a client assessment for the client’s potential employer. The client reports dyspnea when climbing stairs but is not dyspneic at rest. Which dyspnea classification does the nurse assign to this client in the report to the employer?

A) Class I, can perform perform manual labor
B) Class II, can perform desk job
C) Class III, minimally employable
D) Class IV, must remain at home
A

B

Correct: This client is dyspneic when climbing stairs or walking on an incline but not on level walking. Therefore, this client is employable only for a sedentary job or under special circumstances.

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10
Q

A client comes to the emergency department with a productive cough. Which symptom does the nurse look for that will require immediate attention?

A) Blood in the sputum
B) Mucoid sputum
C) Pink frothy sputum
D) Yellow sputum
A

C

Correct: Pink frothy sputum is common with pulmonary edema and requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent the client’s condition from getting worse.

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11
Q

A client with asthma reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse assessing when auscultating this client’s chest?

A) Adventitious breath sounds
B) Fremitus
C) Oxygenation status
D) Respiratory excursion
A

A

Correct: Adventitious sounds are additional breath sounds superimposed on normal sounds. They indicate pathologic changes in the lung.

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12
Q

Four clients are sent back to the emergency department from triage at the same time. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate attention?

A) Client with acute allergic reaction
B) Client with dyspnea on exertion 
C) Client with lung cancer with cough
D) Client with sinus infection with fever
A

A

Correct: An acute allergic reaction can lead to immediate respiratory distress. This is an emergent situation that requires the immediate attention of the nurse.

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13
Q

The nurse auscultates popping, discontinuous sounds over the client’s anterior chest. How does the nurse classify these sounds?

A) Crackles
B) Rhonchi
C) Pleural friction rub
D) Wheeze
A

A

orrect: Crackles are described as a popping, discontinuous sound caused by air moving into previously deflated airways. The airways have been deflated due to the presence of fluids in the lungs, and crackles should be considered to be a sign of fluid overload.

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14
Q

In the older adult client, which respiratory change does not require further assessment by the nurse?

A) Increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter
B) Increased respiratory rate 
C) Shortness of breath
D) Sputum production
A

A

orrect: Increased AP diameter is normal with aging.

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15
Q

In assessing the client’s respiratory status, blood gas test results reveal pH of 7.50, PaO2 of 99, PaCO2 of 29, and HCOes001-1.jpg of 22. What action does the nurse need to take first?

A) Call the physician.
B) Encourage the client to slow his breathing rate.
C) Nothing. These results are within the normal range.
D) Provide oxygen support.
A

B

Correct: The arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis, which is commonly caused by hyperventilation. Encouraging the client to slow down his breathing rate may help him return to normal breathing and may correct this abnormality.

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16
Q

The client returns to the medical unit after a therapeutic bronchoscopy. Which intervention does the nurse apply first?

A) Assess the puncture site for drainage.
B) Implement NPO (nothing by mouth) status.
C) Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis.
D) Perform aggressive chest physiotherapy.
A

B

Correct: Until the client has a gag reflex and is fully alert, he should be maintained on NPO status to prevent aspiration.

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17
Q

Why are the turbinates important?

A) They decrease the weight of the skull on the neck.
B) They increase the surface area of the nose for heating and filtering.
C) They move inspired particles from nose to throat for removal.
D)They separate two nasal passages down the middle.
A

B

Correct: The turbinates increase the surface area of the nose, so that more heating, filtering, and humidifying of inspired air can occur before air passes into the nasopharynx.

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18
Q

A client is having surgery. He asks his nurse, “When they put that tube in my throat, where does it really go?” What is the name of the opening of the vocal cords?

A) Arytenoid cartilage
B) Epiglottis
C) Glottis
D) Palatine tonsils
A

C

Correct: The glottis is the opening of the vocal cords into which the endotracheal tube is passed during intubation for surgery.

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19
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A) Acinus
B) Alveolus
C)Bronchus
D) Carina
A

B

Correct: The alveolus is the structural unit of the lung where gas exchange occurs.

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20
Q

The client has a fever of 40° C. In which direction, if any, will this shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A) Down
B) To the left
C) To the right
D) Will not shift
A

C

Correct: A client with fever has a higher demand for oxygen, so the curve will shift to the right for easier dissociation.

21
Q

Which of the components of a client’s family history are of particular importance to the home health nurse who is assessing a new client with asthma?

A)Brother is allergic to peanuts.
B) Father is obese.
C)Mother is diabetic.
D) Sister is pregnant.
A

A

Correct: Clients with asthma often have a family history of allergies. It will be important to assess whether this client has any allergies that may serve as triggers for an asthma attack.

22
Q

Four clients arrive in the emergency department simultaneously with chest pain. The client with which type of chest pain requires immediate attention by the nurse?

A) Client with pain on deep inspiration
B) Client with pain on palpation
C) Client with pain radiating to the shoulder
D) Client with pain that is rubbing in nature
A

C

Correct: Chest pain radiating to the shoulder should be assumed to be cardiac in origin until proven otherwise; this requires the immediate attention of the nurse

23
Q

The nurse is working in an urgent clinic. Which of these four clients needs to be evaluated first by the nurse?

A) Client who is short of breath after walking up two flights of stairs
B)Client with soreness of the arm after receiving purified protein derivative (PPD) (Mantoux) skin test
C) Client with sore throat and fever of 39° C oral
D)Client who is speaking in three-word sentences and has SaO2 of 90% by pulse oximetry
A

D

Correct: A client should be able to speak in sentences of more than three words, and Sao2 of 90% indicates hypoxemia that requires intervention on the part of the nurse.

24
Q

A client is admitted to the medical floor with a new diagnosis of lung cancer. How can the nurse assist the client initially with the anxiety associated with the new diagnosis?

A) Encourage client to ask questions and verbalize concerns.
B) Leave client alone to deal with his own feelings.
C) Medicate client with diazepam (Valium) for anxiety every 8 hours.
D) Provide journals about cancer treatment.
A

A

Correct: Anxiety causes increased oxygen consumption. Oxygen availability is limited in lung cancer. The availability of the nurse to answer questions and listen to the client’s concerns will decrease anxiety.

25
Q

A client is admitted to the surgical floor with chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxemia after having a knee replacement. What diagnostic test will the nurse teach the client about to help confirm the diagnosis?

A) Bronchoscopy
B) Chest x-ray
C) Computed tomography (CT) scan 
D)Thoracoscopy
A

C

Correct: CT scans, especially spiral or helical CT scans, with injected contrast can detect pulmonary emboli.

26
Q

You are a charge nurse on a surgical floor. The LPN/LVN informs you that a new client who had an earlier bronchoscopy has the following vital signs: heart rate 132, respiratory rate 26, and blood pressure 98/50. The client is anxious and his skin is cyanotic. What will be your first action?

A) Call the Rapid Response Team.
B) Give methylene blue 1% 1 to 2 mg/kg by IV injection
C) Administer oxygen.
D) Notify the physician immediately.
A

C

orrect: Administering oxygen and reassessing vital signs to observe for improvement is the first action. Administration of oxygen by itself may help relieve the client’s anxiety.

27
Q

A client had a thoracentesis 1 day ago. He calls the home health agency and tells the nurse that he is very short of breath and anxious. What is the major concern of the nurse?

A) Abscess
B) Pneumonia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pulmonary embolism
A

C

Correct: A pneumothorax would be the complication of thoracentesis that causes the greatest concern, along with these symptoms.

28
Q

An RN from the orthopedic unit has been floated to the medical unit. Which client assignment for the floated RN is the best?

A) The client with a resolving pulmonary embolus who is receiving oxygen at 6 L/min through a nasal cannula
B) The client with chronic lung disease who is being evaluated for possible home oxygen use
C) The client with a newly placed tracheostomy who is receiving oxygen through a tracheostomy collar
D) The client with chronic bronchitis who is receiving oxygen at 60% through a Venturi mask
A

A

Correct: Orthopedic nurses are familiar with pulmonary emboli and with administration of oxygen through nasal cannulas.

29
Q

Which value indicates clinical hypoxemia and the need to increase oxygen delivery?

A) Hemoglobin of 22 g/dL
B) PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg
C) PaO2 of 65 mm Hg
D) Oxygen saturation of 88%
A

C

Correct: Pao2 of 65 mm Hg indicates low levels of oxygen in the arterial blood; this is termed hypoxemia.

30
Q

For client safety and quality care, which technique is best for the nurse to use when suctioning the client with a tracheostomy tube?

A) Hyperoxygenate before and after suctioning.
B) Repeat suctioning until the tube is clear.
C) Apply suction during insertion of the tube.
D) Suction for 30 seconds.
A

A

Correct: The client should be preoxygenated with 100% oxygen for 30 seconds to 3 minutes to prevent hypoxemia. After suctioning, the client should be hyperoxygenated for 1 to 5 minutes, or until the client’s baseline heart rate and oxygen saturation are within normal limits.

31
Q

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has a physician’s prescription stating, “Adjust oxygen to keep SpO2 at 90% to 92%.” Which nursing action can be delegated to a nursing assistant working under the supervision of an RN?

A) Adjust the position of the oxygen tubing.
B) Assess for signs and symptoms of hypoventilation.
C) Change the O2 flow rate to keep SpO2 as prescribed.
D) Choose which O2 delivery device should be used for the client.
A

A

Correct: The scope of a nursing assistant’s work includes positioning of oxygen tubing for client comfort.

32
Q

The client with a new tracheostomy has a soiled dressing. What is the best nursing intervention?

A) Cut sterile 4 × 4 gauze to fit around the tracheostomy tube.
B) Reinforce the dressing with sterile 4 × 4 gauze.
C) Replace the dressing with clean, folded 4 × 4 gauze.
D) Replace the dressing with sterile, folded 4 × 4 gauze.
A

D

33
Q

An older adult client is being discharged home with a tracheostomy. Which nursing action is an acceptable assignment for an experienced LPN/LVN?

A) Complete the referral form for a home health agency.
B) Suction the tracheostomy using sterile technique.
C) Teach the client and spouse about tracheostomy care.
D) Consult with the physician about using a fenestrated tube.
A

B

Correct: Complex sterile procedures are within the education, scope, and practice of the experienced LPN/LVN.

34
Q

The peak pressure alarm is sounding on the ventilator of the client with a recent tracheostomy. What intervention should be done first?

A) Assess the client's respiratory status.
B) Decrease the sensitivity of the alarm.
C) Ensure that the connecting tubing is not kinked.
D) Suction the client.
A

A

Correct: The client must always be assessed before attention is turned to equipment.

35
Q

A client has just arrived in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) following a successful tracheostomy procedure. Which nursing action must be taken first?

A) Suction as needed.
B) Clean the tracheostomy inner cannula and stoma.
C) Listen to lung sounds. 
D)Change the tracheostomy dressing as needed.
A

C

Correct: Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process. All other actions and procedures are driven by assessment findings. The first nursing action for a client following an airway procedure is to assess the client’s respiratory status; this requires auscultation of the lungs.

36
Q

A client who smokes is being discharged home on oxygen. The client states, “My lungs are already damaged, so I’m not going to quit smoking.” What is the discharge nurse’s best response?

A) "You can quit when you are ready."
B) "It's never too late to quit."
C) "Just turn off your oxygen when you smoke."
D) "You are right, the damage has been done.    But let's talk about why smoking around oxygen is dangerous."
A

D

Correct: This is a great opening for the nurse to educate the client about the dangers of smoking in the presence of oxygen, as well as the benefits of quitting.

37
Q

The client who is concerned about getting a tracheostomy says, “I will be ugly, with a hole in my neck.” What is the nurse’s best response?

A) "But you know you need this to breathe, right?"
B) "Do you have a pretty scarf or a large loose collar that you could place over it?"
C) "Your family and friends probably won't even care."
D) "It won't take you long to learn to manage."
A

B

Correct: Suggesting strategies to cover the tracheostomy recognizes client concerns and explores options for dealing with the effects of the procedure.

38
Q

Which client has the most urgent need for frequent nursing assessment?

A) An older adult client who was admitted 2 hours ago with emphysema and dyspnea and has a 45-year 2-pack-per-day smoking history, and is receiving 50% oxygen through a Venturi mask
B) A young client who has had a tracheostomy for 1 week, who is on room air with SpO2 at percents in the upper 90's, who has been receiving antibiotic therapy for 16 hours, and who has foul-smelling drainage on the tracheostomy ties
C) An older adult client who is anxious to go home with her new tank of oxygen and supply of nasal cannulas and is being discharged with a new prescription for home oxygen therapy
D) A middle-aged client who was admitted yesterday with pneumonia and is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula
A

A

Correct: An older adult client with a long history of smoking and chronic lung disease who is receiving high-flow oxygen delivery is at elevated risk for respiratory depression owing to the hypoxic drive of respirations countered by high levels of oxygen. This client must be assessed frequently while receiving high-flow oxygen.

39
Q

The older adult client with degenerative arthritis is admitted for tracheostomy surgery. What is the best communication method for this client during the postoperative period?

A) Computer keyboard
B) Magic Slate
C) Picture board
D) Pen and paper
A

C

Correct: A picture board does not require very much dexterity for communication. Dexterity can be limited to the extent the client finds comfortable.

40
Q

Respirations of the sedated client with a new tracheostomy have become noisy, and the ventilator alarms indicate high peak pressures. The ventilator tube is clear. What is the best immediate action by the nurse?

A) Humidifying the oxygen source
B) Increasing oxygenation
C) Removing the inner cannula of the tracheostomy
D) Suctioning the client
A

D

Correct: Suctioning the client will likely result in clear lung sounds and lower peak pressure, and the appearance of the sputum will indicate whether bleeding is a concern.

41
Q

A client has just been admitted to the emergency department and requires high-flow oxygen therapy after suffering facial burns and smoke inhalation. Which oxygen delivery device should the nurse use initially?

A) Face tent
B) Venturi mask
C) Nasal Canula
D)Non-rebreather mask
A

A

Correct: A client with smoke inhalation and facial burns who requires high-flow oxygen should initially be placed on a face tent because this is the only noninvasive high-flow device that will minimize painful and contaminating contact with burned facial tissue.

42
Q

A “Do not resuscitate” (DNR) client has a non-rebreather oxygen mask, and breathing appears to be labored. What does the nurse do first?

A) Ensures that the tubing is patent and that oxygen flow is high
B) Notifies the chaplain and the family member of record
C) Calls the Rapid Response Team and prepares to intubate    D) Comforts the client and confirms that signed DNR orders are in the chart.
A

A

Correct: Labored breathing and ultimately suffocation can occur if the reservoir bag kinks, or if the oxygen source disconnects or is not set to high flow levels.

43
Q

A client with a tracheostomy is at increased risk for aspiration. Which nursing intervention(s) will reduce this risk? Select all that apply.

A) Encourage frequent sipping from a cup.
B) Encourage water with meals.
C) Inflate the tracheostomy cuff during meals.
D) Maintain the client upright for 30 minutes after eating.
E) Provide small, frequent meals.
F) Teach the client to "tuck" the chin down in the forward position to swallow.
A

D,E,F

Correct: At least 30 minutes is required for thinner liquids in the stomach to be thickened in combination with stomach contents and/or removed from the stomach; this reduces the chance of aspiration.
Correct: Eating requires significant time and energy. When the client becomes tired, he is more likely to aspirate. Shorter and more frequent intervals of eating tire the client less and reduce the chance of aspiration.
Correct: Tucking the chin downward helps to open the upper esophageal sphincter.

44
Q

A new graduate RN discovers that her client, who had a tracheostomy placed the previous day, has completely dislodged both the obturator and the tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse take first?

A) Auscultate the client's breath sounds while applying a nasal cannula.
B) Direct someone to call the Rapid Response Team while using a resuscitation bag and facemask.
C) Apply a 100% non-rebreather mask while administering high-flow oxygen.
D) Replace the obturator while reinserting the tracheostomy tube.
A

B

Correct: Because a fresh tracheostomy stoma will collapse, the client will lose his airway patency, which will require the nurse to ventilate the client through the mouth and nose while waiting for assistance to re-cannulate the client. Directing someone else to call the Rapid Response Team allows the nurse to provide immediate care required by the client.

45
Q

The client is being discharged home with a tracheostomy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching about correct tracheostomy care?

A) "I can only take baths, no showers."
B) "I can put normal saline in my tracheostomy to keep the secretions from getting thick."
C) "I should put cotton or foam over the tracheostomy hole." 
 D)"I will have to learn to suction myself."
A

A

Correct: The client does not understand that he can shower with the use of a shower shield over the tracheostomy tube to prevent water from entering the airway. Additional teaching is necessary.

46
Q

The client is admitted to the hospital for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and the physician requests a nasal cannula at 2 L/min. Within 30 minutes, the client’s color improves. What does the nurse continue to monitor that may require immediate attention?

A) Increasing carbon dioxide levels
B) Decreasing respiratory rate
C) Increasing adventitious breath sounds
D) Increased coughing
A

B

Correct: Respiratory rate and depth should be monitored closely while the client receives oxygen, because hypoventilation is seen during the first 30 minutes of oxygen therapy in clients with hypoxic drive for respiration. The client’s color will improve (from ashen or gray to pink) because of an increase in Pao2 level before apnea or respiratory arrest occurs from loss of the hypoxic drive.

47
Q

The client with respiratory failure has been intubated and placed on a ventilator and is requiring 100% oxygen delivery to maintain adequate oxygenation. Twenty-four hours later, the nurse notes new-onset crackles and decreased breath sounds, and the most recent arterial blood gases (ABGs) show a PaO2 level of 95 mm Hg. The ventilator is not set to provide positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Why is the nurse concerned?

A) The low PaO2 level may result in oxygen toxicity.
B) The 100% oxygen delivery requirement indicates immediate extubation.
C) Lung sounds may indicate absorption atelectasis.
D) The level of oxygen delivery may indicate absorption atelectasis.
A

C

Correct: High levels of oxygen delivery can result in collapsed alveoli and absorption atelectasis. PEEP can help alveoli remain properly inflated.

48
Q

A client who has experienced a panic attack is being transferred to the medical-surgical ward. The transfer nurse reports that the client is doing much better after receiving bronchodilators via nebulizer and a small dose of oral Valium 4 hours ago in the emergency department. Vital signs are stable with oxygen delivered at 4 L/min via simple facemask. Why is this client at high risk for subsequent respiratory distress?

A) The client is not being treated for asthma.
B) The client has a mental disorder.
C) The client received a dose of Valium.
D) The client is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min.
A

D

Correct: A simple facemask must receive oxygen at a rate of at least 5 L/min to prevent inhalation of exhaled breath, which has low levels of oxygen and can eventually suffocate the client.