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IFR Theory > IFR Theory > Flashcards

IFR Theory Flashcards

1
Q

Max speed for holding up to FL140 (CAT C)

A

230kts

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2
Q

Max speed for holding from FL140 to FL200

A

240kts

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3
Q

Max speed for holding above FL200

A

265kts

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4
Q

Max time outbound for a hold up to FL140

A

1 min or time limit specified on the chart

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5
Q

Max time outbound for a hold above FL140

A

1.5 min or time limit specified on the chart

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6
Q

Rate of turn allowed in a holding pattern

A

25° or rate one (whichever is the less)

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7
Q

What does the “DME Limit” mean in regards to holding patterns?

A

The DME distance at which to start turning onto the reciprocal track

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8
Q

What do you need in order to start a DME/GNSS Arrival?

A
  1. Database card must be current
  2. The VOR/NDB must not be capable of modification by the crew
  3. RAIM must be available
  4. The VOR/NDB must be used for lateral guidance
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9
Q

If RAIM is lost during a DME/GNSS Arrival, what must the pilot do?

A

Conduct a missed approach

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10
Q

If a DME slope takes a pilot OCTA, does he need to get clearance to re-enter CTA?

A

Yes

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11
Q

What does the term “cancellation of published speed restrictions” mean?

A

Cancellation of all speeds published on a SID/STAR

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12
Q

When will noise abatement not be a determining factor on RWY selection?

A
  1. When there’s low cloud, TS and poor visibility
  2. For a DRY RWY… if the XW is >20kts and the TW is >5kts
  3. For a WET RWY… if the XW is >20kts and there is a TW component
  4. When wind shear has been reported
  5. If safety is compromised for a particular aircraft
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13
Q

When can an aircraft descend below the LSALT/MSA?

A
  1. When visual by day
  2. When descending via the DME/GNSS steps
  3. When being cleared to fly an MVA
  4. When in the circling area
  5. When flying an instrument approach
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14
Q

CAT C Vat

A

121-140kts

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15
Q

CAT C Initial and Intermediate

A

160-240kts

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16
Q

CAT C Final

A

115-160kts

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17
Q

CAT C Circling

A

180kts

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18
Q

CAT C Missed Approach

A

240kts

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19
Q

What does the DA need to be adjusted to, in order to account for pressure error?

A

PEC for the aircraft type or +50ft to the DA

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20
Q

If there is a discrepancy b/w the altimeter and the final check height published on an ILS chart, what must the pilot do?

A

Carry out a missed approach

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21
Q

If the LOC or GS indicates a full-scale deflection at any time during the approach, what must the pilot do?

A

Carry out a missed approach

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22
Q

When is the ILS critical and sensitive areas NOT protected?

A

When cloud is >600ft and visibility >2000m

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23
Q

When is ONLY the ILS critical area protected, and what are the conditions?

A
  1. When cloud is <600ft but >CAT 1 minimums, and visibility is <2000m but >CAT 1 minimums
  2. The critical area is protected except…
    - When a preceding aircraft enters the area while LDG or vacating the RWY
    - When the aircraft has not reached the OM or 4nm yet
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24
Q

When is BOTH the ILS critical and sensitive areas protected, and what are the conditions?

A
  1. When cloud and visibility is
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25
Q

When is a LOC critical and sensitive areas protected during a LOC T/O and what are the conditions?

A
  1. When visibility is <550m

2. The critical and sensitive areas are both protected until the aircraft has completed its T/O

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26
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance gradient for a missed approach?

A

2.5% or 152ft/min

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27
Q

When can an aircraft commence an approach w/o entering a holding pattern?

A
  1. In CTA… when an aircraft is cleared for an approach
  2. OCTA, when…
    - The reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied.
    - The DME arc procedure entry requirements are satisfied
    - When the aircraft is within 30° of the inbound course or reversal
    - For an RNAV… when the aircraft is within the capture regions
    (90° either side of the outer IAP fixes and 70° either side of the middle IAP fix for a x3 IAP Approach)
    (90° either side of the out IAP fix and 70°/110° either side of the middle IAP for a x2 IAP Approach)
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28
Q

What does “established on track” mean?

A
  1. Within half-scale for an ILS, VOR and GNSS.
  2. Within 5° for an NDB
  3. Within 2nm for a DME Arc
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29
Q

What is the maximum vertical speed allowed after crossing the FAF

A

1000ft/min

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30
Q

Describe the 45°/180° procedure turn…

A

45° turn away from the outbound track for 1min 15secs (CAT C), followed by an 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track

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31
Q

Describe the 80°/260° procedure turn…

A

80° turn away from the outbound track, immediately followed by a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track

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32
Q

Describe the base turn…

A

A specified outbound track for a specified time/DME distance, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track

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33
Q

When must a missed approach be executed…

A
  1. When after the FAF, the aircraft is not maintained within the appropriate tolerances
  2. Below the MSA, the NAVAID becomes suspect and/or fails
  3. You’re not visual by the DA or MAPT
  4. A straight-in LDG cannot be performed unless you can circle under the circling minima
  5. Visual reference is lost while circling
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34
Q

If you don’t get visual by the MDA height, do you have to track to the MAPT before conducting the missed approach? What are the conditions of this?

A

Yes, however you can initiate a climb prior to reaching the MAPT

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35
Q

If you have to conduct a missed approach while circling… what must you do?

A

Make an initial climbing turn towards the LDG RWY and make sure that you are overhead the airport before conducting the missed approach

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36
Q

If you lose RAIM after passing the IAF of a GNSS approach, what must you do?

A

Conduct a missed approach

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37
Q

If RAIM comes back while you are in the missed approach part of a GNSS approach, may you use your GNSS equipment for missed approach guidance?

A

Yes

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38
Q

If RAIM is still lost while you are in a missed approach, what must you do?

A

Use an alternative means of guidance or dead-reckon the missed approach

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39
Q

When can you descend below the MDA whilst circling?

A
  1. When within the circling area
  2. When visibility is > the circling minimums on the approach chart
  3. When you can maintain visual contact with the RWY environment (ie. threshold lighting, approach lighting or RWY edge lighting)
  4. By night or day… when you are in a position where you can maintain a continuous normal descent to the threshold whilst maintaining minimum obstacle clearance until you are aligned with the RWY
  5. By day only… when you are able to maintain the minimum obstacle clearance within the circling area until you are aligned with the RWY
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40
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance CAT C and D

A

400ft

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41
Q

Circling area CAT C

A

4.2nm

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42
Q

When can you descend below the straight-in MDA/DA?

A
  1. When you are visual
  2. When the cloud base and visibility is not < the minimum for the MDA/DA
  3. When you are in a position where you can descend safely to the threshold
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43
Q

When can you circle in a “no circling” area?

A

Visual by day

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44
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by day?

A

Not below the MSA/LSALT, until you are…

  1. Clear of cloud
  2. In sight of ground and water
  3. Visibility not <5000m
  4. Within 30nm
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45
Q

When can you conduct a visual approach by night?

A

Not below the MSA/LSALT, until you are…

  1. Clear of cloud
  2. In sight of ground and water
  3. Visibility not <5000m
  4. Within the circling area or…
    - 5nm (7nm with ILS RWY) aligned with the centreline not below “on-slope” on a T-VASIS or PAPI
    - 10nm (14nm for 16L and 34L at Mascot) aligned with the centreline not below full-scale on an ILS GP
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46
Q

What are the qualifying requirements for a multi-engine aeroplane in regards to the T/O Minima?

A

The aeroplane is…

  1. Two-pilot operated
  2. Single-pilot jet
  3. Single-pilot propellor aeroplane with auto-feather

For an MTOW >5700kg…
1. The aeroplane can meet the obstacle clearance requirements of CAO 20.7.1B

For a two-pilot operation, each pilot is…

  1. Endorsed on type
  2. Multi-Crew trained on type
  3. Multi-Crew proficiency checked within the previous 13 months
  4. Instrument rated
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47
Q

What is the T/O minima for a QUALIFYING multi-engine aeroplane?

A
  1. Ceiling of 0ft
  2. Visibility of 550m in the following conditions…
    - RWY has edge lighting not >60m between each other + centreline lighting or centreline markings
    - The STBY switchover capability of the RWY lighting is 1 second or less where centreline lighting is not provided
    - At a CTAF, the T/O is by day only and it must be at a CTAF where you need to have radios
  3. Visibility of 800m if the above requirements cannot be met
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48
Q

What is the T/O minima for a NON QUALIFYING multi-engine aeroplane?

A
  1. Ceiling of 300ft

2. Visibility of 2000m

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49
Q

What are the conditions of the T/O Minima?

A
  1. If you need to land at the departure airport due to an engine failure, you need to be able to land via an instrument or visual approach
  2. If engine failure happens after V1, you need terrain clearance until the enroute LSALT or departure airport MSA
  3. If you can’t land at the departure airport, you need enough performance and fuel to land at an alternate
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50
Q

What is the Landing Minima for an airport w/o an Instrument Approach chart?

A
  1. IFR by day… visual approach requirements

2. IFR by night… VMC from LSALT within 3nm

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51
Q

What happens to the LDG minima for a LOC approach if HIAL is not available?

A

Visibility must be increased by 900m

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52
Q

When would you need a minimum visibility of 1500m for an approach which would otherwise have CAT 1 minima?

A

When HIAL is not available

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53
Q

When would you NOT need a minimum visibility of 1200m for an approach which would otherwise have CAT 1 minima?

A
  1. If the aeroplane can be flown to the CAT 1 DA using an FD or autopilot with either LOC/GS or GLS
  2. The aeroplane has got a failure warning system for the AH and DG
  3. HIAL is available
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54
Q

When would you need a minimum visibility of 800m for an approach which would otherwise have CAT 1 minima?

A

If RVR information in the threshold zone is not available

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55
Q

Prior to passing the IAF, what type of QNH must you set?

A
  1. Actual airport QNH
  2. Aerodrome forecast (TAF) QNH
  3. Forecast area QNH
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56
Q

If using a FORECAST TERMINAL QNH, what must be done to the ceiling minima?

A

It must be increased by 100ft

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57
Q

If using a FORECAST AREA QNH, what must be done to the ceiling minima?

A

It must be increased by 150ft

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58
Q

Which aircraft can use special alternate minima?

A

Aircraft with dual ILS/VOR capability… duplicated LOC/GP/Marker/VOR receivers

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59
Q

When will special alternate minima not be available?

A
  1. When METAR/SPECI or TAFs are not available

2. When an otherwise controlled airport is not controlled

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60
Q

What priority will ATC place aircraft when it comes to aircraft wanting to land ASAP?

A
  1. Aircraft in an emergency including hijacking
  2. A multi-engined aircraft which has suffered an engine failure
  3. Aircraft with a radio failure
  4. Aircraft which has declared a mercy flight
  5. Aircraft undergoing SAR, MEDIVAC or Fire and Flood Relief Operations
  6. Aircraft operating under “POLAIR RED” engaged in operations where life is at risk
  7. Aircraft involved in transporting heads of state
  8. State aircraft special requirements where clearance has been pre-arranged
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61
Q

What are the vertical boundaries of a CTAF?

A
  1. SFC to 5000ft
  2. SFC to LL or CTA if 8500ft or less
  3. SFC to a nominated level
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62
Q

What do RA1, RA2 and RA3 mean when talking about Restricted Areas?

A

RA1: Pilots can plan through and can expect clearance through the RA
RA2: Pilots can’t plan through the RA unless on a route specified in the “Enroute” section of the Jepps or under agreement with the Armed Forces. May still not get a clearance through the RA
RA3: Pilots cannot plan through and will not get clearance through the RA

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63
Q

What are the speed limits for IFR in Class C airspace?

A

Nil

64
Q

What are the speed limits for IFR in Class D airspace?

A
  1. 200KIAS within 4nm of Class D airport at or below 2500ft AAL
  2. 250KIAS elsewhere
65
Q

What are the speed limits for IFR in Class D airspace?

A

250KIAS below 10000ft AMSL

66
Q

What are the speed limits for IFR in Class G airspace?

A

250KIAS below 10000ft AMSL

67
Q

Airport minimum lighting requirements for PVT, AWK or CHTR aircraft operating at night?

A
  1. RWY Edge Lighting
  2. Threshold Lighting
  3. Windsock Lighting
  4. Obstacle Lighting
68
Q

Airport minimum lighting requirements for RPT aircraft operating at night?

A
  1. RWY Edge Lighting
  2. Threshold Lighting
  3. Windsock Lighting
  4. Obstacle Lighting
  5. Taxiway Lighting
  6. Apron Floodlighting
69
Q

What does the acronym ACVWPPLS mean in regards to alternate airports?

A 
A - AIDS
C - Cloud
V - Visibility
W - Wind
P - PROB Forecast
P - Provisional Forecast
L - Lighting
S - Storms
70
Q

When must you provide for an alternate airport in regards to Wind, Visibility or Cloud?

A
  1. Wind: When the XW or TW is > aircraft capabilities (gusts must be considered)
  2. Visibility: < the alternate minima, or > the alternate minima if forecast is endorsed with a PROB30/40 with < the alternate minima
  3. Cloud: More than SCT below the alternate minima
71
Q

How much holding fuel do you need for a TEMPO?

A

30mins

72
Q

How much holding fuel do you need for an INTER?

A

60mins

73
Q

If the weather after a FM/BECMG period gets better, when does that bad weather still remain valid?

A

30mins after the end of the FM/BECMG period

74
Q

What is the alternate minima for an airport WITH an instrument approach procedure?

A

The alternate specified on the approach chart

75
Q

If the TAF for an aerodrome is unavailable or is “provisional”, must you plan for an alternate?

A

Yes

76
Q

What is the alternate minima for an airport WITHOUT an instrument approach procedure?

A
  1. Ceiling: Route LSALT + 500ft

2. Visibility: 8km

77
Q

What are the Airport NAVAID requirements for an RPT/CHTR operation in regards to alternates?

A
  1. Destination has a x1 NAVAID and the aircraft has x2 independent systems which can track off that one NAVAID
  2. Destination has x2 NAVAIDS and the aircraft has x1 system which can track off each NAVAID
78
Q

What are the Airport NAVAID requirements for a PVT/AWK operation in regards to alternates?

A
  1. Destination has a x1 NAVAID and the aircraft has x1 system which can track off that NAVAID
79
Q

If the RWY lighting at the destination is portable, do you need an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

80
Q

If the RWY lighting is fixed or pilot activated, but has NO STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

81
Q

If the RWY lighting is pilot activated and has STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

Yes, unless there is a responsible person in attendance

82
Q

If the RWY lighting is fixed and has STBY power, do you need to plan for an alternate?

A

No

83
Q

If you do need an alternate due to RWY lighting, what are the requirements of the alternate airport in terms of lighting?

A
  1. Alternate must not have PAL

2. Alternate can have PAL but a responsible person must be in attendance

84
Q

If you’re operating non-RPT, Cargo RPT or RPT <3500kg MTOW, and the alternate has PAL, do you need a responsible person in attendance?

A

No, unless you have either…

  1. Dual VHF
  2. Single VHF and HF + 30mins holding fuel
85
Q

If you originally needed an alternate due to lighting but you intend to land just before first light, do you still need an alternate?

A

Yes, unless you had carried enough holding fuel to allow for first light + 10mins

86
Q

If the RWY edge lighting spacing goes from 60m to 120m due to a failure of a circuit, what happens to the minimum visibility requirement?

A

Minimum visibility on the approach chart must be multiplied by 1.5

87
Q

What does a STEADY GREEN signal mean from TWR either in flight or on the ground?

A
  1. In Flight: Cleared to Land

2. On the Ground: Cleared for T/O

88
Q

What does a FLASHING GREEN signal mean from TWR either in flight or on the ground?

A
  1. In Flight: Return for LDG

2. On the Ground: Cleared for Taxi

89
Q

What does a STEADY RED signal mean from TWR either in flight or on the ground?

A
  1. In Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
  2. On the Ground: Stop
90
Q

What does a FLASHING RED signal mean from TWR either in flight or on the ground?

A
  1. In Flight: Airport unsafe… DO NOT LAND!

2. On the Ground: Taxi clear of LDG Area

91
Q

What does a FLASHING WHITE signal mean from TWR on the ground?

A

Return to airport starting point

92
Q

How do you acknowledge the TWR light signals in flight during the day or at night?

A
  1. Day: Rocking aircraft wings (except on base or final)

2. Night: By flashing the LDG lights twice, or NAV lights if LDG lights not fitted

93
Q

How do you acknowledge the TWR light signals on the ground during the day or at night?

A
  1. Day: Moving the ailerons or rudder

2. Night: By flashing the LDG lights twice, or NAV lights if LDG lights not fitted

94
Q

What does a “Horizontal White Dumbbell” mean?

A

Use only hard or sealed surfaces

95
Q

What does a “White Cross” mean?

A

Aerodrome unserviceable

96
Q

What does a “White Double Cross” mean?

A

Gliding OPS in progress

97
Q

If PAL is not being used, from what period do you need portable lighting available on for departure?

A

10mins before departure to 30mins after T/O

98
Q

If PAL is not being used, from what period do you need portable lighting available on for arrival?

A

30mins before ETA til when LDG and Taxi has been completed

99
Q

How long do the pulses need to be to activate PAL w/o AFRU?

A

3 secs “ON” x3 times w/ 1 sec “OFF” in between

100
Q

How long do the pulses need to be to activate PAL with AFRU?

A

1 sec “ON” x3 times w/ 1 sec “OFF” in between

101
Q

How long is PAL activated for? And what happens to the Wind Indicator Lighting after 20mins?

A

30mins… after 20mins Wind Indicator Lights flash at 1 sec intervals and the AFRU will transmit the message “RWY LIGHTS 10MINS REMAINING”

102
Q

If x2 altimeters are used, what must they be read within? What happens if x1 is out of tolerance?

A

60ft… x1 can read b/w 60-75ft up to the 1st point of LDG, if it still reads >60ft, it is unserviceable

103
Q

What must an aircraft operating under the IFR be navigated by?

A
  1. Use of an approved area navigation system (GPS)
  2. Use of a radio navigation system (NDB/VOR) on routes where, after making allowance for possible track errors of +/-9° from last positive fix, the aircraft can fall within coverage of another NAVAID to determine the current position of the aircraft… time interval b/w fixes not exceeding 2 hours
  3. Visual reference to ground or water by day
104
Q

What is the order of precision for NAVAIDS in regards to track-keeping?

A

LOC, GNSS, VOR, NDB

105
Q

What is a positive fix determined by?

A
  1. The passage over an NDB, VOR, TACAN, Marker Beacon or DME
  2. The intersection of x2 or more position lines which intersect at angles not < 45° and which are obtained from NDB’s, VOR’s, LOC’s or DME’s.
  3. GNSS
106
Q

If you obtain a positive fix using x2 NDB’s, what is the maximum range that they can be from one another?

A

30nm

107
Q

If you obtain a positive fix using any combination of x2 NAVAIDS (besides x2 NDB’s) what is the maximum range that they can be from one another?

A

Must fall within rated coverage of each AID

108
Q

What is the maximum amount of track deviation that you can have before you have to notify ATC?

A
  1. LOC/VOR/GNSS = Half Scale
  2. NDB = +/- 5°
  3. DME = +/- 2nm
  4. Visual Reference to Ground/Water = 1nm
109
Q

What are the minimum aircraft navigation requirements (including GNSS) to operate in RPT/CHTR IFR?

A
  1. x1 GPS (TSO-C129 or later) + x1 ADF/VOR
  2. x2 GPS (TSO-C145 or later)
  3. x1 Navigation System which incorporates GNSS and Inertial Navigation
110
Q

What are the minimum aircraft navigation requirements (including GNSS) to operate in AWK/PVT IFR?

A
  1. x1 GPS (TSO-C129 or later) + x1 ADF/VOR
  2. x1 GPS (TSO-C145 or later)
  3. x1 Navigation System which incorporates GNSS and Inertial Navigation
111
Q

What are the minimum aircraft navigation requirements (NOT including GNSS) to operate in RPT/CHTR IFR?

A
  1. x2 ADF and/or VOR + x1 DME or GPS
  2. x2 ADF and/or VOR (CHTR <5700kg or less in CTA)
  3. x1 ADF and/or VOR (CHTR <5700kg or less OCTA)
112
Q

What are the minimum aircraft navigation requirements (NOT including GNSS) to operate in AWK/PVT IFR?

A
  1. x2 ADF and/or VOR + x1 DME or GPS (AWK >5700kg in CTA only)
  2. x2 ADF and/or VOR (AWK <5700kg or less in CTA or PVT CTA)
  3. x1 ADF and/or VOR (CHTR <5700kg or less OCTA or PVT OCTA)
113
Q

What type of aircraft need a WX Radar? And which aircraft are exempt from this requirement?

A
  1. IFR RPT/CHTR Multi-Crew Aircraft

2. Unpressurised Turbine Aircraft <5700kg + Unpressurised Piston Aircraft are exempt

114
Q

If your WX Radar is broken before your flight, can you T/O?

A

Yes, unless there is forecast TS or Cloud w/ SEV TURB on the route, including the route to the alternate

115
Q

If your WX Radar is broken during your flight, can you continue the flight?

A

Yes, as long as you avoid any Cloud w/ SEV TURB

116
Q

What type of aircraft need a GPWS?

A

Turbine RPT/CHTR Aircraft with MTOW >15,000kg or is carrying >10 pax

117
Q

Can you depart an aerodrome with your GPWS U/S?

A

Yes, unless it is one where the GPWS could be fixed

118
Q

What is the maximum time that the GPWS can be U/S?

A

24 hours from where the GPWS is deemed to be U/S

119
Q

Do you need an ADSB Transponder if you need to fly IFR?

A

Yes

120
Q

When must you notify ATC in CTA if RAIM is not available?

A
  1. RAIM is lost for >5min
  2. RAIM is lost when ATC require a GNSS distance or when a GNSS distance is included in a clearance
  3. DR mode is on for >1min
  4. The GNSS receives loss of navigation for >1min
121
Q

If RAIM comes back in CTA, must you notify ATC?

A

Yes

122
Q

Are you allowed to land at an airport with less than the Fixed Reserve Fuel?

A

No

123
Q

What are the conditions regarding fuel dumping in flight?

A
  1. You must notify ATC

2. You must dump fuel in an area nominated by ATC above 6000ft

124
Q

What period must a destination/alternate forecast be valid for in regards to planned ETA’s?

A

From 30min before to 60min after the planned ETA

125
Q

What is the order of preference in regards to submitting a flight notification?

A
  1. NAIPS
  2. In Writing
  3. By telephone
  4. Via ATC
126
Q

When can you be cleared a visual departure?

A

By day VMC, if ATC is assured that the pilot can maintain VMC up to either the MVA or the MSA/LSALT

127
Q

What must the pilot do if cleared a visual departure?

A
  1. Maintain HDG/TRK given from ATC
  2. Remain not <500ft ABV LL of CTA
  3. Visually maintain obstacle clearance
128
Q

Unless tracking via a SID, how far from the departure airport must you be established on-track by?

A

5nm

129
Q

What must an IFR pilot do if he is cleared “VFR on top?’

A
  1. Fly at the appropriate VFR levels
  2. Comply with class E VFR meteorological minima
  3. Comply with instrument flight rules
  4. Advise ATC prior to any altitude change
  5. Visually maintain separation from other traffic
130
Q

When can ATC clear you for a visual approach BY DAY?

A
  1. Aircraft is within 30nm
  2. The pilot can continue flight to the airport w/ reference to ground or water
  3. Visibility is not <5000m
131
Q

When can ATC clear you for a visual approach BY NIGHT?

A
  1. Aircraft is within 30nm
  2. The pilot can continue flight to the airport w/ reference to ground or water
  3. Visibility is not <5000m
  4. If being vectored, the flight has been assigned an MVA and given HDG or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position the aircraft into the circling area
132
Q

If cleared a visual approach BY DAY, what distance from the airport must you maintain TRK/HDG to?

A

5nm

133
Q

If cleared a visual approach BY NIGHT, what distance from the airport must you maintain TRK/HDG to?

A

The circling area from the category of operation

134
Q

Recommended CCT height for a jet or turboprop?

A

1500ft AAL

135
Q

How far from the threshold of the RWY can an aircraft turn opposite to the CCT direction?

A

3nm or CCT Height + 500ft

136
Q

What distance from the threshold must you be established on final by during a straight-in approach?

A

3nm

137
Q

When can you cancel SARWATCH?

A
  1. Changing to the CTAF
  2. In the CCT Area
  3. After LDG
138
Q

Regarding LAHSO… what constitutes an “ACTIVE” aircraft?

A

An aircraft which is issued a “land and hold short” clearance and is alerted about traffic on the crossing RWY

139
Q

Regarding LAHSO… what constitutes a “PASSIVE” aircraft?

A

An aircraft which has full unrestricted use of a RWY and is alerted about traffic on the crossing RWY

140
Q

What are the conditions for LAHSO?

A
  1. XW is not >20kts, TW is not >5kts (DRY) or 0kts (WET)
  2. Simultaneous T/O and LDG’s are permitted by DAY ONLY
  3. Simultaneous LDG’s are permitted by DAY and NIGHT
  4. Ceiling is not < the MVA and visibility is not <8km (5000m if ATC are assured of seeing the aircraft prior to loss of surveillance)
  5. The distance from the LDG Threshold and the Hold-Short Line is adequate for the active aircraft
  6. The airport chart and directory show LDA for LAHSO information
  7. The active pilot can assure that the aircraft can brake well before the Hold-Short Line when the RWY is wet
  8. There is no low level windshear
  9. After LDG, the active pilot must inform ATC immediately if he will have difficulty in complying with the LAHSO requirement
141
Q

Can you be assigned a block level in Class E airspace?

A

No

142
Q

When must you change your level after receiving that instruction from ATC?

A

ASAP and no later than 1 minute

143
Q

What does “STANDARD RATE” mean in regards to rates of climbs or descents?

A

Not <500ft/min until the last 1000ft which should be made at 500ft/min

144
Q

What must be considered when calculating the heights of a pilot-calculated LSALT?

A
  1. Obstacle >360ft above Terrain: +1000ft above highest obstacle
  2. Obstacle <360ft above Terrain: +1360ft above highest terrain
  3. Obstacle and Terrain <500ft: LSALT not <1500ft
145
Q

If not identified, when must you report your position to ATC?

A

Every 30min or 200nm (whichever is the least)

146
Q

What are the minimum communication requirements for an RPT flight?

A

VHF and HF or x2 VHF

147
Q

What are the minimum communication requirements for a CHTR flight?

A

VHF and HF

148
Q

What are the minimum communication requirements for an IFR flight?

A

VHF and HF

149
Q

On receipt of HDG instructions, what must the pilot do?

A

Immediately commence a Rate 1 turn

150
Q

If an aircraft is vectored onto final, what is the maximum degree of intercept that the pilot can expect?

A

45°

151
Q

Code for Class A, C & D Airspace or Class E IFR?

A

3000

152
Q

Code for Class G IFR?

A

2000

153
Q

Code for Class E and G VFR?

A

1200

154
Q

When can you select the Transponder to ON/ALT on departure?

A

On entering the RWY

155
Q

When must you select the Transponder to STBY/OFF on arrival?

A

ASAP after LDG

156
Q

What do you squawk in the following…

  1. Hijacking
  2. Radio Failure
  3. Emergency
A
  1. 7500
  2. 7600
  3. 7700
157
Q

What frequency is guard?

A

121.5 MHz

IFR Theory (3 decks)

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