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IFR Study > IFR Study Cards > Flashcards

IFR Study Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Does holding a valid Instrument Rating Authorise a pilot to operate under the IFR at night in IFR conditions?

A

Yes

A pilot is authorised to pilot an aircraft under IFR conditions or at night under VFR

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2
Q

Does a pilot who holds a valid Instrument Rating allowed to conduct operations at Night under the VFR?

A

YES

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3
Q

When can a pilot operate under the IFR in a Multi Engine aircraft as a single pilot?

A

When the test or proficiency check was conducted in a single pilot aircraft.

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4
Q

What instrument approaches is a pilot authorised to fly under the IFR?

A

Only approaches for which the pilot is endorsed

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5
Q

If you are endorsed on a Multi Engine Aircraft and have only passed an instrument proficiency check on a Single Engine Aircraft are you able to conduct IFR operations in the Multi Engine Aircraft?

A

No

Only in the class of aircraft endorsed

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6
Q

How often must you undertake an Instrument Proficiency Check?

A

Every 12 months

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7
Q

Can the Holder of an Instrument Rating use DME for Navigation without being endorsed on DME equipment?

A

YES

(The holder of an IR may use DME for navigation or in conjunction with other types of navigation aids other than DME arrival without being endorsed on DME)

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8
Q

With regards to recency requirements, when is a pilot authorised to fly under the IFR?

A

When he/she has conducted a least 3 Instrument approaches within the previous 90 days in a aircraft or approved flight Simulator.

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9
Q

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct a 2D approach?

A

When he/she has conducted at least one 2D approach in the last 90 days

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10
Q

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct a 3D approach?

A

When he/she has conducted at least one 3D approach in the last 90 days.

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11
Q

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct an azimuth guidance approach? And

Using which navigation aid is considered to be an azimuth approach?

A

When he/she has conducted at least one approach in the last 90 days.

An NDB is considered to be the aid in which azimuth guidance is used.

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12
Q

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct an CDI guidance approach? And

Using which navigation aid is considered to be an CDI approach?

A

If he/she has conducted at least one CDI approach in the last 90 days. And

ILS and VOR may be used for the CDI approach recency.

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13
Q

With regard to Single Pilot operations when is a pilot authorised to conduct single pilot operations under the IFR?

A

When he/she has conducted at least one flight or simulated flight in the previous 6 months which was of?

At least 1 hours duration and
Included at least one instrument approach.

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14
Q

Can the holder of an IFR rating conduct a flight in a multi engine aircraft if the proficiency check was not conducted in a multi engine aircraft?

A

NO!

If not conducted in a Multi Engine aircraft the holder of the IFR rating cannot use Multi Engine privileges.

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15
Q

With regards to IFR proficiency checks, how often must a check be conducted?

A

Every 12 Months

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16
Q

You complete your IPC on the 12th June 2020, when is the last date you can complete an IPC in 2021 give you must complete an IPC every 12 months?

A

30th June 2021.

Your IPC is valid until the end of the 12th month after the previous proficiency check or from when the initial check was conducted.

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17
Q

How many month prior to your IPC current expiry date may you conduct a IPC?

A

3 Months

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18
Q

If you elect to fly your IPC earlier than the due expiry date (up to 3 months early) and you fail that check is your instrument rating still valid?

A

No! Your instrument rating will no longer valid.

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19
Q

During your IPC what is the minimum number of approaches that must be conducted during the check? And

What type of approach must be conducted at a minimum?

A

Your IPC must include at least 2 approaches.

One of those approaches must be at least a 2D approach.

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20
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the max duty that can be rostered? And can it be extended, and when?

A

Max Duty that can be rostered is 11 hours. However!

Duty can be extended to 12 hours after the duty has commenced.

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21
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum flight time that may be rostered? And can it be extended?

A

The max flight time that can be rostered is 8 hours. However!

Flight time can be extended to 9 hours after the duty has been commenced.

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22
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

If an extension of duty exceeds 11 hours or exceeds 8 hours flight time what are the resting requirements necessary following your duty?

A

1 extra hour of rest for every 15 min of up to an hour and then 24 hours of rest is required.

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23
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

How many days off are required every 7 days and what timeframe must be embraced during the time off?

A

At least 1 day is required off and must embrace the hours of 10pm - 6am on both sides.

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24
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum flight time allowed every 7 days?

A

30 Hours

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25
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum amount of hours that must not be exceeded in any 365 days?

A

900 hours

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26
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum flight time allowed in any 30 day period?

A

100 hours

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27
Q

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1c

What is the maximum amount of duty allowed in any 14 day period?

A

90 hours

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28
Q

What instruments are required for Aeroplanes <5700kg engaged in Aerial Work?

A 
1 x Altimeter
1 x VSI
1 x ASI
1 x AH
1 x DG
1 x TC
Compass (direct reading or remote indicating &amp; standby direct reading)
1 x Accurate Time Piece - May be a watch
1 x Vacuum Gauge
2 x Vacuum Pumps from independent sources
Pitot heat and 2 Seperate sources or a balanced pair of flush static ports
1 x OAT
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29
Q

Is an Autopilot required for Aerial Work Survey Aircraft?

A

No

Aircraft engaged in RPT, Charter or Aerial Work as an ambulance or flying doctor under the IFR must have a serviceable autopilot approved by CASA with
- Roll & Pitch modes, heading & alt hold. Or
Two Control seats with fully functioning dual controls and two pilots

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30
Q

With regards to Lighting requirements for Aerial Work, what lighting is required to be serviceable on your aircraft?

A

1 x Landing Light (2 Landing lights for charter ops (except non passenger carrying)

  • Instrument lighting with intensity control
  • Passenger and Pilot compartment
  • Position and anti-collision lights (beacon and Navigation)
  • Emergency Lighting (torch for each crew member)
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31
Q

What Nav Aids are required for Charter, Air Work and Private opps 5700kgs or less in CTA?

A
  • 2 x ADF or VOR or
  • DME or
  • GNSS
    (Any combo which includes at least 1 x ADF or VOR, GNSS can be 129 or above, or
  • 2 x TSO-C145a or TSO-146a or TSO-C196a or a later version.
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32
Q

What Navigation Aids are required for Aerial Work and Private Operations 5700kg or less MTOW in NON CTA?

A
  • 1 x ADF our VOR
  • 1 x GNSS TSO-C129 or later version or,
  • 1 x TSO C145a or C146a or C196a GNSS
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33
Q

With accurate QNH set, altimeters should read nominated elevation to within __?__ft.
If in excess of __?__ft it should be made Unserviceable.

A

60ft

75ft

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34
Q

Where 2 Altimeters are required, one must read within _?_ft. If the remaining altimeter has an error between _?_ft & _?_ft, flight under IFR is approved to the 1st point of landing where the altimeter can be re-checked. If then in excess of _?_ft, it must be considered _____?______ for flight under the IFR.

A
  • 60ft
  • 60ft - 75ft
  • 60ft
  • Unservicable
35
Q

When fitted with 2 altimeters but only 1 is required, flight under the IFR is permitted providing 1 altimeter reads to within __?__ft. Should the second altimeter have an error in excess of __?__ft, the second altimeter must be “what”?

A
  • 60ft
  • 75ft
  • Placarded Unserviceable
36
Q

When the aircraft is fitted with only 1 altimeter and with an error between 60ft and 75ft can you proceed with an IFR flight and if so what are the conditions at first point of landing?

A

Yes you are approved to proceed with the flight under the IFR to the first point of landing where the altimeter can be re-checked.

If the error is still in excess of 60ft on second check, the altimeter must be considered Unserviceable for IFR Flight.

37
Q

How long is an INTER or TEMPO valid for before and after its forecast period?

A

30 min before and after its forecast period

38
Q

Do you apply buffer periods to a TTF?

A

No

39
Q

If the INTER or TEMPO falls within a TTF do you apply the buffer period of 30 min before and after either event?

A

No…no buffers are applied to any event within the buffer period.

40
Q

To within what distance of an Aerodrome does a TAF indicate the forecast weather?

A

In the airspace within radius of 5nm of the ARP.

41
Q

On a forecast the winds are considered to be in degrees ______?

A

True

42
Q

On a TAF are cloud bases considered to be AGL or AMSL?

A

AGL

43
Q

With regards to QNH and Temperature on a forecast what are the hourly intervals from the beginning of the forecast?

A

3 hourly intervals from the beginning of the forecast

44
Q

How long does a forecast need to be valid for before ETD and your ETA?

A

30 min before your ETD and

60 min after your ETA

45
Q

Does a TTF supersede a TAF?

How long does a TTF last for?

A

Yes a TTF always supersede’s a TAF

TTFs validity is normally for 3 hours commencing at the time of the observations.

However where the TTF service is not a 24 hour service, the validity period will be less then 3 hours during the last 3 hours of service.

The end time of the shortened validity period will be indicated in the remarks secretion, e.g. USE TAF FOR ARRIVAL AFTER 0800Z

46
Q

What is meant by the term “CAVOK”?

A

Cloud and Visibility OK is defined as

  1. Visibility +10km
  2. No cloud below 5000ft or
  3. No cloud below the highest 25nm sector altitude and
  4. No significant weather
47
Q

What is a SPECI (AIP 3.5, 4.3)

A

SPECI’s are non-routine Aerodrome reports issued whenever weather conditions fluctuate about or are below the specified criteria.

At staffed stations (and non staffed stations with appropriate equipment).

SPECI reports are issued when either of the following conditions are present:

A. When there is BNK or OVC cloud covering the celestial dome below an aerodromes highest alternate minimum cloud base or 1500ft, which ever is higher; or

B. When the visibility is below an aerodromes highest alternate minimum visibility or 5000mts which ever is greater.

At non-staffed stations wit cloud and visibility sensors, SPECI for cloud and visibility based on output from these sensors may also be issued.

Further explanations as to other reasons why SPECI is issued please refer to AIP 3.5,4.3.2

48
Q

TTFs are only prepared for certain aerodromes, how many do you know?

A

The answer is 16.

Adelaide, Amberley, Brisbane, Darwin, Cairns, Canberra, East Sale, Melbourne, Nowra, Oakey, Pearce, Perth, Sydney, Tindal, Townsville and Williamtown.

49
Q

A GAF is a Graphical Area Forecast for operations for Surface to ________ft?

A

10000ft

50
Q

How long is a TAF valid for and how often are they issued?

A

A TAF is valid for up to 12 hours and are issued 6 hourly, for example
0200, 0800, 1400 and or 2000 UTC.

With the exception of Western Australia where commencement times are typically 2200 and /or 0400 UTC.

51
Q

Are winds reported as degree’s True or degree’s magnetic?

A

Degree’s True

52
Q

In a METAR are Cloud bases reported as AMSL or AGL?

A

AGL

53
Q

When are METARs issued?

A

METARs are issued on the hour and every half hour 24 hours a day.

To make it simple they are issued every 30mins and every 60min ie: 0600, 0630,0700 and 0730 etc.

54
Q

When will a METAR be issued as a SPECI?

A

When the METAR meets the SPECI requirements.

METARs are made available at preflight briefing and or on request to aircraft in flight.

55
Q

With regards to rainfall indications what does the following symbology indicate?

RF 00.0/000.0

A

RF 00.0 = Rainfall in last 10 min

(If you have trouble remember this one, I remember the 00 part as 10 min and the 000 part as 0900 local)

000.0 = Rainfall since 9am local time

56
Q

What does the terminology NOSIG mean?

A

No Significant Change

57
Q

What does the terminology AUTO mean?

A

Automated Observations (Visibility, present weather and cloud)

58
Q

In an ARFOR (Area forecast) are cloud bases report as AMSL or AGL?

A

AMSL

59
Q

What is the standard take-off minima?

A

300ft Cloud Ceiling and

2 km Visibility

60
Q

With regards to take off minima, the PIC must ensure that terrain clearance is assured until reaching either the en route _ _ _ _; or the departure Aerodrome’s. _ _ _?

A

Enroute LSALT or
Departure Aerodromes MSA and

If a return to the departure Aerodrome is not possible the aeroplanes performance and fuel are adequate to proceed to a suitable Aerodrome. (Regards to terrain, obstacles, distance)

61
Q

In the event of an engine failure in a M/E aircraft, if a return to land at the departure Aerodrome will be necessary, conditions must be at or above the _________________ minima for that Aerodrome or good enough to enable a visual approach.

A

Instrument Approach Minima

62
Q

If your departure Aerodrome does not have an instrument approach the take off minima will be what cloud base and visibility?

A

500ft above the LSALT and

8km Visibility

63
Q

If at anytime you take of in a M/E aircraft and at any time after lift-off or encountering non-visual conditions, terrain clearance must be assured until reaching what?

A

Either the en-route LSALT or departure Aerodrome MSA.

64
Q

When determining Alternate / Holding Aids requirements: - RPT & CHTR
The destination must have ___ aid with an Instrument approach procedure and aircraft must have ____ independent radio navaids capable of using it or (b) destinations served by ____ radio Navaids for which independent and seperate approach procedures are prescribed and the aircraft has _____ independent aids capable of using them.

A

Destination must have 1 Aid with an IAP and the
Aircraft must have 2 independent radio Nav aids capable of using it. Or (b)

Destination served by 2 radio Navaids for which independent and seperate approach procedures are prescribed and the aircraft has 2 independent aids capable of using them.

65
Q

Determine alternate / holding requirements for PVT and AWK

You only require _____aid at the destination with an instrument approach procedure, and the aircraft capable of using it.

A

1 aid at the destination with an instrument approach procedure, and the aircraft capable of using it.

NOTE: The above is only required if an instrument approach is required by day, however it is ALWAYS required at night regardless of weather.

66
Q

Do you know what this stands for

ACVWPLS

This is not a question more something to help you remember what should be considered if looking at weather or not you need to provide for an Alternate.

A 
A = AIDS
C = CLOUDS
V = VISIBILITY
W = WEATHER
P = PROBILITY
L= LIGHTING
S = STORMS
67
Q

When it comes to holding patterns, what is the stand turn and timing?

Also when does the timing start?

A

1 Minute Legs
Right Hand Pattens
Outbound time starts abeam the station (or DME distance) or when established outbound whichever is Later.

68
Q

In regard to 25nm and 10nm MSAs what obstacle clearance is provided for?

A

1000ft

69
Q

How much obstacle clearance does a missed approach allow for?

A

100ft

70
Q

If there is no PEC, how much height do you add to an ILS minima?

A

50ft

71
Q

What are the requirement of a Visual Approach by Day

A
  1. Within 30nm
  2. Clear of Cloud
  3. Insight of Ground and Water
  4. Visibility not less than 5 km
72
Q

What are the requirements of a visual approach by Night?

A
  1. Within 30nm / given radar terrain
  2. Clear of Cloud
  3. Insight of Ground and Water
  4. Visibility not less than 5 km
  5. Within circling area or within 5nm if in line with runway centreline and not below “on slope” TVASIS/PAPI/ or 7nm if equipped with an ILS or 10nm if not below slope on ILS with less than full scale deflection.
73
Q

When can you change track during a visual approach?

A

By Day - Within 5nm or

By Night - Within Circling area

74
Q

When can you descend on a visual approach?

A

As soon as you are cleared for a Visual Approach provided you don’t go below the CTA step (+500ft) or the lowest altitude for VFR flight (eg 1000ft built up area or 500ft non built up areas).

75
Q

What is the circling area at night for an IFR aircraft (any category) and the landing minima if the Aerodrome does NOT have a published approach procedure?

A

3nm and VMC at the LSALT.

76
Q

When can you descend below LSALT/MSA?

A
  1. After crossing an initial approach fix; or
  2. Being radar vectored or Radar Lowest Safe or
  3. While conducting a GPS Arrival not below the DME steps; and
  4. In VMC by day
77
Q

During day and night operations, what must you do to the minimum visibility for a LOC approach if the HIAL is not available?

A

Increase Visibility by 900 metres.

78
Q

In regard to ILS minimum visibility;

When should you use 1.5km Visibility?

A

When HIAL is unavailable.

79
Q

In regards to ILS minimum visibility;

When should you use 1.2km Visibility?

A

Always with HIAL available UNLESS the following 3 things are satisfied.

  1. HIREL Available
  2. Failure warning system for AH and DG
  3. Autopilot coupled to LOC and GP or manually flown with FD or approved HUDLS.

If these 3 things are satisfied: Use published visibility (usually 0.8 but not always)

80
Q

When can you descend below the MDA?

A
  1. Maintain aircraft within the circling area (2.66nm CAT B)
  2. Maintain visibility along the intended flight path, not less than the minima specified on the chart.
  3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment
  4. By day only descend and maintain the required obstacle clearance above any obstacle along the flight path (CAT A/B 300ft C/D 400ft)
  5. By day or night intercept downwind, base or final of the intended runway at the MDA height.
81
Q

When must you conduct a missed approach?

A
  1. When Navaid becomes suspect or radio failure
  2. Out of tolerance during the final segment
  3. Visual reference is not established at the MAPT
  4. Visual reference is lost during circling approach
  5. When a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach unless visual circling is not available
82
Q

When can you circle in a no circling area?

A

By Day in VMC conditions.

83
Q

What is the procedure for Communication Failure?

A
  1. Squawk 7600
  2. Remain in VMC if possible
  3. If being radar vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes then proceed with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged
  4. Maintain last assigned level or minimum safe altitude for three minutes
  5. If holding fly one more complete holding pattern and then proceed with latest route clearance.

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