IFR Quick Review

Question 1

What are the personal documents required for flight?

Answer 1

• Pilot Certificate
• Medical Certificate
• Authorized photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc.)
• Restricted radiotelephone operator license ( for flights outside the U.S.) (§61.3 & FCC)

Question 2

What aircraft documents are required for flight?

Answer 2

A.R.R.O.W

A. Airworthiness certificate

R. Registration

R. Radio station license (for international flights)

O. Operating limitations & AFM (Aircraft Flight Manual)

W. Weight & Balance date

(§21.5, §91.103, §91.9, §91.203, FCC form 605)

Question 3

What aircraft maintenance inspections are required for IFR?

Answer 3

A.V.1.A.T.E

A. Annual inspection every 12 calendar months (§91.409)

V. VOR check every 30 days (§91.171)

1. 100 hour inspection (§91.409)

A. Altimeter, altitude reporting & static system every 24 calendar months (91.413)

T. Transponder every 24 months (§91.413)

E. ELT every 12 months (§91.207)

Question 4

What preflight info are required for IFR?

Answer 4

W.K.R.A.F.T

W. Weather reports and forecast

K. Known traffic delays as advised by ATC

R. Runway length of intended use

A. Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned

F. Fuel requirements

T. Takeoff and landing performance data

(§91.103)

Question 5

Preflight self-assessment

Answer 5

I.M.S.A.F.E

I. Illness

M. Medication

S. Stress

A. Alcohol (8 hours; no more than .04% BAC)

F. Fatigue

E. Emotion

Question 6

Rise management & Personal Minimums

Answer 6

P.A.V.E

P. Pilot (general health, physical/mental/emotion state, proficiency, currency)

A. Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)

V. EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports/runways to used & other conditions)

E. External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)

Question 7

Minimum aeronautical experience required for an airplane instrument rating

Answer 7

• 50 hours x-country PIC time
  
  • Of which 10 hours in airplane
• 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
  
  • Of which 15 hours with CFII
    
    • Including one x-country flight of:
      
      • 250 NM
      • Along airways or by directed ATC routing
      • An instrument approach at each airport
      • 3 differnt kinds of approaches using navigation systems
      • With a filed IFR flight plan
  • 3 hours in last 2 calendar months prior to the practical test

(§61.65)

Question 8

What are the requirements for logging instrument time?

Answer 8

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft soley by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

Question 9

What are the IFR minimum altitiudes?

Answer 9

Minimum prescribed, or if none:

Mountainous areas: 2,000ft. above highest obstacle within 4NM of course.

Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft. above highest obstacle within 4NM of course.

(§91.177)

Question 10

IFR cruising altitudes

Answer 10

(Based on Magnetic Course)

0° - 179°: Odd thousands or Flight Levels

180° - 359°: Even thousands or Flight Levels

(§91.179)

Question 11

IFR minimum fuel requirements

Answer 11

Fuel from departure airport to destination

+

Fuel from destination to alternate (if required)

+
45 Minutes of fueld at normal cruise

(§91.167)

Question 12

Instrument PIC recency of experience (1)

(last 6 calendar months)

Answer 12

Last 6 calendar months (under actual/simulated instrument or Flight Training Device/simulator, in the same aircraft category), logged: (“6 HITS”)

• 6 instrument approaches
• Holding procedures & tasked
• Intercept & Track courses through the use of electronic navigation Systems.

or

using ATD (basically an approved PC-based flight simulator + hardware) in the last 2 calendar months prior to the flight:

• 3 hours instrument experience
• Holding procedures & tasked
• 6 instrument approaches
• 2 unusual attitude recoveries in a descending V_NE condition
• 2 unusual attitude recoveries in an ascending stall speed condition

(§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Question 13

Instrument PIC recency of experience (2)

(past 6 months)

Answer 13

Not current looking back 6 months?

You can still log the requirements (6 HITS) and get current with a safety pilot (under simulated conditions), instructor or pilot examiner.

(The safety pilot must be at least a private pilot with the appropriate category and class. He must have adquate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft. When using a safety pilot, the aircraft must have dual-control system.)

(§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Question 14

Instrument PIC recency of experience (3)

(past 12 calendar months)

Answer 14

Need an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) by a CFII, examiner or approved person.

Certain IPC tasks, found in a table at the end of the instrument PTS, can be completed in an approved flight simulator or FTD. However, a full IPC can only be conducted in certain full-motion simulators or in the actual aircraft, since some tasks (such as circling maneuvers) cannot be completed on low-end FTD’s and simulators.

(§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Question 15

What are the requirements to carry passengers as PIC?

Answer 15

• 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days in the same category, class, and type (if type rating required)
• At periods between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise:
  
  • 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop during 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise in the last 90 days.

(§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Question 16

What is the requirement to act as PIC?

Answer 16

Flight review in the last 24 calendar months (see FAR for exceptions)

(§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Question 17

Do you need an alternate?

Answer 17

“1-2-3” or “1-2003” rule

If within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is less then:

2000 ft. ceiling and/or

3 SM visibility

you need an alternate

(§91.169)

Question 18

What are the minimum weather conditions required, at an airport, to list it as an alternate?

Answer 18

The alternate airport minima specified in the procedures, or, if none:

• Precision approach:
  
  • 600ft. ceiling and 2SM visibility
• Non-precision approach (must be other than non-WAAS GPS):
  
  • 800ft. ceiling and 2SM visibility
• No instrument approach at the alternate:
  
  • ceiling & visibility allowing descent from MEA, apprach and landing under basic VFR

Question 19

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)

Answer 19

• Only provides obstruction clearance
• May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other instructions are assigned (e.g. radar vectors)
• Graphic ODP denote “Obstacle” in the chart title
• All new RNAV ODP’s are available in graphical form
• Found in the front of NACO chart booklets, arranged alphabetically by city name
• Jeppeson charts show ODP’s under the airport diagram (x0-9) page, or, at larger airports, on a separate chart

(AIM 5-2-8)

Question 20

Standard Instrument Departures (SID)

Answer 20

• Provide obstuction clearance and helps reduce radio congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearance
• Pilot NAV SID’s - Pilot navigates by charted routes with minimal radio instructions
• Vector SID’s - Navigation is based on radar vectors. Routes are not printed on the chart
• Some SID’s depict non-standard radio failure procedures
• File “NO SID’s” in the remarks of your flight plan if you choose not to use them
• RNAV SID’s and all graphical RNA ODP’s require RNAV 1 performance (+/- 1NM for 95% of the total flight time)

(AIM 5-2-8)

Question 21

Standard Terminal Arrivals (STAR)

Answer 21

• Serves as a transition from the en route structure to a point from which an approach can begin
• Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure
• Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins
• As with SID’s, you may state “NO STAR’s” in your flight plan remark section if you choose not to use them
• RNAV STARS require RNAV 1 performance

(AIM 5-4-1)

Question 22

IFR Flight Plan

Answer 22

• Required before entering controlled airspace under IFR (a clearance is also required) (§91.173)
• Can be filed:
  
  • FSS (in person, radio, or phone)
  • DUATS (online)
  • Through radio/phone with ATC
  • Filed at least 30 min. prior to estimated departure time
• Stored in the system for 1.5 hours from proposed time of departure
• Cancelation (AIM 5-1-14)
  
  • Towered airports - automatically canceled by ATC upon landing
  • Non-tower airports - you must contact ATC/FSS to cancel
  • Can cancel anytime no in IMC and outside class A airspace
• Preferred IFR routs are published in the Airport/Facility DIrectory (AFD). If a preferred route is published to you destination, you should file it in your flight plan

Question 23

Basic IFR departure clearance items

Answer 23

C.R.A.F.T

C. Clearance Limit

R. Route

A. Altitude

F. Frequency (for departure)

T. Transponder Code

Question 24

What is a clearance void time?

Answer 24

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

Question 25

What is “Hold for release”?

Answer 25

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

Question 26

What is “Release time”?

Answer 26

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

Question 27

What is “Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)”?

Answer 27

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

Question 28

Abbreviated departure clearance

Answer 28

“Cleared (…) as filed (…)”

Question 29

Minimum equipment required for flight

VFR day flight

Answer 29

A.T.O.M.A.T.O.F.L.A.M.E.S

A. Altimeter

T. Tachometer for each engine

O. Oil temperature indicator for each engine

M. Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine

A. Airspeed Indicater

T. Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine

O. Oil pressure gauge for each engine

F. Fuel quantity gauge for each tank

L. Landing gear position lights

A. Anticollision lights

M. Magnetic direction indicator

E. ELT, if required by (§91.207)

S. Safety belts/shoulder harnesses

(§91.205)

Question 30

Minimum equipment required for flight

VFR night flight

Answer 30

All VFR day equipment +

F.L.A.P.S

F. Fuses (spare set)

L. Landing light (if for hire)

A. Anticollision light

P. Position lights (navigation lights)

S. Source of power (such as battery)

(§91.205)

Question 31

Minimum equipment required for flight

IFR day flight

Answer 31

All VFR day equipment +

G.R.A.B.C.A.R.D

G. Generator/alternator

R. Radios (two way and navigational equipment appropriate for the ground facilities to be used)

A. Altimeter (sensitive) adjustable for barometric pressure

B. Ball (slip-skid indicator)

C. Clock (shows hours minutes and seconds and installed as part of aircraft equipment)

A. Attitude indicator

R. Rate of turn indicator

D. Directional gyro (heading indicator)

(§91.205)

Question 32

Mandatory reports under IFR

Answer 32

M.A.R.V.E.L.O.U.S. V.F.R. C.500

M. Missed approach (AIM 5-3-3)

A. Airspeed +/- 10kt / 5% change of filed TAS (AIM 5-3-3)

R. Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) (AIM 5-3-3)

V. VFR on top (AIM 5-3-3)

E*. ETA change +/- 3min (AIM 5-3-3)

L. Leaving a holding fix/point (AIM 5-3-3)

O*. Outer marking (AIM 5-3-3)

U. Unforcasted weather (§91.183)

S. Safety of flight (§91.183)

V. Vacating an altitude/FL (AIM 5-3-3)

F*. Final Approach fix (AIM 5-3-3)

R. Radio/Nav failure (§91.187)

C*. Compulsory reporting points ▲ (§91.183)

500 - unable to climb/descend 500 fpm (AIM 5-3-3)

* required only in a non-radar environment (including ATC radar failure)

Question 33

Position reports items

Answer 33

• Aircraft ID
• Position
• Time
• Altitude/flight level
• Type of flight plan (except for communicating with ARTCC/approach control)
• ETA
• The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight
• Any pertinent remarks

Question 34

IFR Takeoff Minimums (§91.175)

Answer 34

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations.

Part 121, 125, 129, 135:

• Prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway, or, if none:
  
  • 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility
  • More than 2 engines: 1/2 SM visibility