IFR Preflight Flashcards

1
Q

When is an instrument rating required?

A
  • Under instrument flight rules
  • In weather conditions less than minimum VFR
  • In Class A airspace
  • Under Special VFR within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas between sunset and sunrise.
  • When carrying passengers for hire on XC flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night.
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2
Q

When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry?

A
  • Location and type of each instrument approach

- Name of safety pilot, if required

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3
Q

What is the PAVE checklist?

A

Pilot -illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, emotion (IMSAFE), proficiency, currency.

Aircraft -airworthiness, aircraft equipped for flight, proficiency in aircraft, performance capability.

enVironment -weather hazards, type of terrain, airports/runways to be used, conditions

External pressures -meetings, people waiting at destination, desire to impress, desire to get there, etc.

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4
Q

What information must a PIC be familiar with before a flight?

A
  • NOTAMS
  • Weather
  • Known ATC traffic delays
  • Runways lengths at intended airports
  • Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed
  • Fuel requirements
  • Takeoff/landing distances

Remember…NWKRAFT

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5
Q

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?

A

Must have enough fuel to complete flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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6
Q

Who is responsible for determine if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition?

A

The pilot-in-command is responsible.

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7
Q

What aircraft isntruments/equipment are required for IFR operations?

A

Those required for VFR day and night, plus:

Generator or alternator of adequate capacity
Radios (nav. and comm. equipment suitable for route)
Altimeter (sensitive)
Ball (slip/skid indicator or turn indicator)
Clock (sweep second hand or digital)
Attitude indicator
Rate of turn (turn coordinator)
Directional gyro
DME or RNAV (for FL240 and abocve if VOR equip is required)

Remember….GRABCARDD

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8
Q

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an aircraft, including inspections for IFR?

A

Annual inspections within 12 precedding months
Airworthiness directives complied with
VOR equipment check every 30 days, for IFR
100 hour inspection, if for hire or instruction
Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested/inspected every 24 calendar months, if IFR
Transponder tests and inspections every 24 calendar months
ELT operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months.

Remember…AAV1ATE

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9
Q

How often are GPS databases required to be updated?

A

Navigation databases are updated every 28 days

Obstacle databases may b updated every 56 days

Terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed.

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10
Q

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?

A

Pior from departing from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, if weather conditions are below VFR minimums.

The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to the ETD.

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11
Q

When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?

A

Most centers delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time.

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12
Q

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

A

Any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace.

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13
Q

What re the alternate airport requirements?

A

If from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the weather is foretasted to be at least 2,000 feet ceilings and 3-mile visibility, no alternate is required.

Remember…1-2-3 Rule

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14
Q

If an alternate airport is required and an IAP is published for that airport, what are the minimums required?

A

The alternate airport minimums specified in the IAP, or if none specified, the following minimums:

  • Precision Approach: ceiling 600 ft and visibility 2 statute miles
  • Non-Precision Approach: ceiling 800 ft and visibility 2 statute miles.

If no IAP is published, the ceiling and visibility are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

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15
Q

What are the preferred routes and where can they be found?

A

Routes established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity; listed in the Chart Supplement.

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16
Q

What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?

A

Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL; revised every 56 days. All courses are magnetic and distances in nautical miles.

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17
Q

What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?

A

Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions at or above 18,000 feet MSL; revised every 56 days.

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18
Q

What are “area charts”?

A

Charts showing congested terminal areas such as DFW or Atlanta at a large scale; revised every 56 days.

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19
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

Notices to Airmen -Time critical information that could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight, including such information as airport runway closures, change in status of navigation aids, etc.

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20
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

A

The altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator. Only the ASI receives both pitot and static pressure.

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21
Q

For IFR flight, what is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter?

A

No more than 75 feet off of the field elevation, with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window.

22
Q

Where do you read the Indicated Altitude from?

A

Read directly from the altimeter when set to the current altimeter setting.

23
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

Vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level (MSL).

24
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

Vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain, or above ground level (AGL).

25
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

Indicated altitude with the altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg. Pressure altitude is used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, and other performance data.

26
Q

What is Density Altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature.

27
Q

Does adjusting the altimeter’s Kollsman window have any effect on the altitude that is displayed to an ATC controller?

A

No, the encoding altimeter measures the pressure altitude referenced to 29.92 Hg and delivers this data to the transponder.

28
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

A

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and stmospheric pressure from the static source.

29
Q

What are limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?

A

It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.

30
Q

What is Indicated Airspeed?

A

Shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors.

31
Q

What is Calibrated Airspeed?

A

Speed at which the aircraft is moving through the air, which is found by correcting IAS for instrument and position errors.

32
Q

What is Equivalent Airspeed?

A

CAS corrected for compression of the air inside the pitot tube.

33
Q

What is True Airspeed?

A

CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature.

34
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the white arc?

A

Flap operating range.

35
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the lower limit of the white arc (Vso)?

A

Stall speed in landing configuration.

36
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the upper limit of the white arc (Vfe)?

A

Maximum speed with the flaps extended.

37
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the green arc?

A

Normal operating range.

38
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the lower limit of the green arc (Vs1)?

A

Stall speed in clean configuration.

39
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the upper limit of the green arc (Vno)?

A

Maximum structural cruising speed. Do not exceed this speed except in smooth air.

40
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the yellow arc?

A

Caution range; fly within this range only in smooth air, and then, only with caution.

41
Q

What airspeed is indicated by the red line (Vne)?

A

Never exceed speed.

42
Q

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator/indicator.

43
Q

What personal documents are required for flight?

A

Pilot certificate

Medical certificate

Authorized photo ID

Restricted radiotelephone operator license

44
Q

When can you log instrument time?

A

Only for the flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

(an instructor can log instrument time when conducting instrument instruction in actual instrument conditions)

45
Q

What is required to act as pilot in command of a civil aircraft under IFR?

A

Pilot must have current medical and current instrument rating.

46
Q

What are the recency requirements to act as PIC under IFR within 6 months preceding the flight?

A
  • Conduct 6 instrument approaches
  • Intercept and track navigational courses
  • Perform holding procedures
47
Q

What are the passenger currency requirements for VFR and IFR (day)?

A

You may be current but not to carry passengers if within the last 90 days you haven’t performed 3 takeoffs and landings (full stop in tail-dragger) in the same aircraft category, class, and type, if type rating required.

48
Q

What are the passenger currency requirements for VFR and IFR (night)?

A

3 takeoffs and landings to a full, 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise in the same category, class, and type of aircraft, if type rating required.

49
Q

What if you go past the 6 month PIC currency for IFR, but still within 12 calendar months?

A

You still have an additional 6 months to complete the requirements (6 instrument approaches, intercept/track navigational course, and holding procedures), before an instrument proficiency check (IPC) is required.

However, this must be one with a safety pilot, instructor, or pilot examiner in simulated instrument conditions.

50
Q

What if you go beyond 12 calendar months without having recency in IFR?

A

You will need an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) by a CFII, examiner, or approved person.