IFR and Navigation

Question 1

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

Answer 1

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

Question 2

If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must

Answer 2

convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility

Question 3

What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

Answer 3

The point of first intended landing

Question 4

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 degree turn, with a bank of approximately 15 degree?

Answer 4

90 and 270 degree

Question 5

(refer to figure 91) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260 degree and your intended TAS is 185 knots? (VAR 17 degree E)

Answer 5

38 minutes

Question 6

(refer to figure 91) Southbound on V257, you cross over CPN VORTAC at 0950 and over DIVID intersection at 0954. At what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC?

Answer 6

1043

Question 7

(refer to figure 95) You are tracking the 170 course to the station. What is your lateral displacement from the desired course on the No. 1 NAV?

Answer 7

5.0 NM

Question 8

While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of

Answer 8

climbing or descending

Question 9

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 degree to a heading of 300 degree?

Answer 9

50 seconds

Question 10

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degree?

Answer 10

90 seconds

Question 11

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

Answer 11

The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field

Question 12

The miniature airplane on the turn coordinator will indicate

Answer 12

rate of roll and rate of turn

Question 13

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degree?

Answer 13

4 minutes

Question 14

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degree?

Answer 14

1 minute

Question 15

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 degree to heading of 180 degree?

Answer 15

1 minute

Question 16

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090 degree to a heading of 270 degree?

Answer 16

1 minute

Question 17

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

Answer 17

climb

Question 18

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

Answer 18

descent

Question 19

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?

Answer 19

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right

Question 20

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

Answer 20

swing freely and indicate known headings

Question 21

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?

Answer 21

The horizon bar tilts more than 5 degree while making taxi turns

Question 22

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

Answer 22

The horizon bar should remain horizontal and not tilt more than 5 degrees during taxi

Question 23

What pretakeoff check should be made of vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

Answer 23

After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns

Question 24

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

Answer 24

cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

Question 25

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?

Answer 25

instrument cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

Question 26

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Answer 26

aircraft control

Question 27

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Answer 27

instrument cross check

Question 28

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitched instruments?

Answer 28

altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

Question 29

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

Answer 29

may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication

Question 30

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a

Answer 30

half bar width on the attitude indicator

Question 31

Which instrument, in a primary secondary relationship, is the primary instrument for bank control in straight and level flight?

Answer 31

heading indicator

Question 32

In straight and level instrument flight using primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?

Answer 32

altimeter

Question 33

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

Answer 33

attitude indicator

Question 34

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

Answer 34

power only

Question 35

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?

Answer 35

airspeed indicator

Question 36

Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?

Answer 36

attitude indicator and turn coordinator

Question 37

Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?

Answer 37

10 percent

Question 38

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately

Answer 38

10 percent of the vertical speed

Question 39

To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should

Answer 39

simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed

Question 40

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately

Answer 40

100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude

Question 41

To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately

Answer 41

50 feet

Question 42

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

Answer 42

attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb

Question 43

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

Answer 43

attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb

Question 44

What indication is presented by the minimature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

Answer 44

indirect indication of the bank attitude

Question 45

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will

Answer 45

increase as angle of bank increases

Question 46

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the

Answer 46

altimeter and airspeed stabilize

Question 47

If an airplane is in an usual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?

Answer 47

airspeed and altimeter

Question 48

Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?

Answer 48

reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude

Question 49

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

Answer 49

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

Question 50

(refer to figure 145) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Answer 50

Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight using ailerons and rudder

Question 51

(refer to figure 146 The DG shows a right turn. OAT is -1 degree C) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight and level flight

Answer 51

Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator, apply power, and turn on pitot heat to unblock

Question 52

(refer to figure 147. Ignore the arrow above the DG, it shows a right turn) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Answer 52

add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading

Question 53

(refer to figure 148) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned

Answer 53

climbing turn to right

Question 54

(refer to figure 149) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.

Answer 54

straight and level flight

Question 55

(refer to figure 150) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.

Answer 55

climbing turn to the right

Question 56

To correct from an altitude deviation, identify the primary pitch instruments to include in your cross check

Answer 56

attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI

Question 57

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?

Answer 57

10 degree

Question 58

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

Answer 58

the first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

Question 59

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?

Answer 59

The first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

Question 60

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?

Answer 60

5 degree

Question 61

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

Answer 61

the airplane is flying away from the radial

Question 62

(refer to figure 95) Using the Nav 1 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?

Answer 62

R 345

Question 63

(refer to figure 95) To center the No. 1 NAV CDI with a TO indication, you should turn the OBS to

Answer 63

165 degree

Question 64

(refer to figure 95) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?

Answer 64

4 degree

Question 65

(refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?

Answer 65

174 degree

Question 66

(refer to figure 95) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?

Answer 66

354 degree

Question 67

(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which aircraft position (s) does HSI presentation A correspond?

Answer 67

9 and 6

Question 68

(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which aircraft position (s) does HSI presentation B correspond?

Answer 68

5 and 13

Question 69

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation C correspond?

Answer 69

12

Question 70

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation D correspond?

Answer 70

2

Question 71

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation E correspond?

Answer 71

8 and 3

Question 72

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation F correspond?

Answer 72

4

Question 73

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation G correspond?

Answer 73

7 and 11

Question 74

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation H correspond?

Answer 74

1

Question 75

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation I correspond?

Answer 75

11

Question 76

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation D correspond?

Answer 76

17

Question 77

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation E correspond?

Answer 77

6

Question 78

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation F correspond?

Answer 78

16

Question 79

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation A correspond?

Answer 79

1

Question 80

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation B correspond?

Answer 80

19

Question 81

(refer to figures 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation C correspond?

Answer 81

12

Question 82

(refer to figure 106) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degree. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing left of center?

Answer 82

2

Question 83

(refer to figure 109) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Answer 83

Northeast

Question 84

(refer to figure 111) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Answer 84

Northwest

Question 85

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

Answer 85

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale

Question 86

(refer to figure 192) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degree of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?

Answer 86

10 to 20 degree

Question 87

With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable?

Answer 87

One or more miles for each 1000 feet of altitude above the facility

Question 88

(refer to figure 171) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV(GPS) RWY 33 approach be initiated?

Answer 88

immediately upon passage of the MAP waypoint with the runway environment not in sight

Question 89

(refer to figure 171) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the approach procedure?

Answer 89

1240 feet MSL; 1 SM

Question 90

(refer to figure 244) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at roanoke regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?

Answer 90

The LOC is offset from the runway

Question 91

When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

Answer 91

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 degree

Question 92

(refer to figures 139 and 140) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

Answer 92

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope

Question 93

(refer to figures 139 and 141) Which displacement from the localizer and centerline and glide slope at the 1300 foot point from the runway is indicated?

Answer 93

21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline

Question 94

(refer to figures 139 and 142) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?

Answer 94

1550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope

Question 95

What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?

Answer 95

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach

Question 96

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?

Answer 96

2 1/2 miles

Question 97

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degree glide slope at a constant true airspeed?

Answer 97

When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase

Question 98

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

Answer 98

at standard temperature

Question 99

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

Answer 99

when standard atmospheric conditions exist

Question 100

(refer to figure 193) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Eastwood filed VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME
No.1 No. 2

Answer 100

097 degree FROM 101 degree FROM 3.3

Question 101

(refer to figure 210) When on the RWY 6 approach procedure, when approaching the threshold or on the missed approach, you should expect to see

Answer 101

white light flashing all dots

Question 102

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

Answer 102

Slant range distance in NM

Question 103

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?

Answer 103

High altitudes close to the VORTAC

Question 104

For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

Answer 104

200 NM

Question 105

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?

Answer 105

No coded identification, but possible navigation indications

Question 106

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This evidenced by

Answer 106

removal of the identification feature

Question 107

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

Answer 107

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

Question 108

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6000 feet AGL?

Answer 108

1

Question 109

When a VOR/DME is collected under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will report at an interval of

Answer 109

30 second intervals at 1350 Hz

Question 110

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used

Answer 110

in lieu of the OM

Question 111

(refer to figure 240) How should a pilot determine when the DME at price/carbon county airport is inoperative?

Answer 111

The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone

Question 112

What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?

Answer 112

The SDF course width is either 6 or 12 degree while the LDA course width is approximately 5 degree.

Question 113

What is the difference between a localizer type directional aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?

Answer 113

The LDA is not aligned with the runway

Question 114

How wide is an SDF course?

Answer 114

either 6 or 12 degree

Question 115

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

Answer 115

The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

Question 116

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

Answer 116

middle compass locator

Question 117

Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?

Answer 117

compass locator

Question 118

Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?

Answer 118

six dots per second and a flashing white light

Question 119

Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?

Answer 119

200 feet

Question 120

Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glideslope warning flag appears. The pilot is

Answer 120

permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

Question 121

Handheld GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as

Answer 121

an aid to situational awareness

Question 122

If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should

Answer 122

select another type of navigation and approach system

Question 123

During IFR enroute and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities

Answer 123

must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage

Question 124

During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,

Answer 124

the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

Question 125

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have

Answer 125

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

Question 126

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

Answer 126

airport advisory service

Question 127

Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?

Answer 127

airport advisories

Question 128

If during a VFR practice instrument approach, radar approach control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?

Answer 128

avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR

Question 129

Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?

Answer 129

DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches

Question 130

The most current enroute and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

Answer 130

flight service station

Question 131

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

Answer 131

Enter No DP in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

Question 132

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

Answer 132

Destination and fix plus specific altitude

Question 133

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?

Answer 133

If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description

Question 134

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?

Answer 134

When advised by the tower

Question 135

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Answer 135

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

Question 136

(refer to figure 87) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 136

direct

Question 137

(refer to figures 87 and 88) You are traveling westbound on V222, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FALSE intersection. Which VOR would you use?

Answer 137

When the CDI on VOR 2 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FALSE

Question 138

(refer to figure 112, #1) While on a heading of 350 degree flying direct to the 15 DME fix from the ABC VORTAC, ATC issues you this clearance. HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX, LEFT TURNS, FIVE MILE LEGS, ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT 2215Z. What is the recommended entry?

Answer 138

direct entry

Question 139

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 139

parallel only

Question 140

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 140

direct

Question 141

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.

Answer 141

Teardrop only

Question 142

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 142

direct only

Question 143

(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 143

direct only

Question 144

(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTACK. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 144

direct only

Question 145

(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 145

teardrop only

Question 146

(refer to figure 115, #1) You receive this ATC clearance: HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350. Which holding entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 146

direct

Question 147

(refer to figure 116, #2) HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 330. What is the recommended entry procedure?

Answer 147

teardrop entry

Question 148

If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting timed approaches from a holding fix?

Answer 148

The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.

Question 149

(refer to figure 242) What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?

Answer 149

4 DME miles from FEHXE

Question 150

Which of the following conditions is required before timed approaches from a holding fix may b conducted?

Answer 150

If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

Question 151

Prior to conducting timed approaches from a holding fix which one of the following is required?

Answer 151

The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.

Question 152

When marking a timed approach from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the

Answer 152

holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time

Question 153

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

Answer 153

make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

Question 154

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

Answer 154

200 knots IAS

Question 155

Which is true regarding STAR’s?

Answer 155

STAR’s are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

Question 156

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

Answer 156

established on a segment of a published route or IAP

Question 157

While briefing the assigned approach, you review the missed approach procedure. If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must

Answer 157

fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns

Question 158

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

Answer 158

on tower frequency

Question 159

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

Answer 159

when radar vectors are provided

Question 160

During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to

Answer 160

minimum altitude shown on the IAP

Question 161

(refer to figure 240) What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the price/carbon county airport approach chart?

Answer 161

it provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.

Question 162

Which of the following statements is true regarding parallel ILS approahes?

Answer 162

Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

Question 163

Where may you use a surveillance approach?

Answer 163

At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published

Question 164

You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

Answer 164

Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility

Question 165

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a category B airspace, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Answer 165

use the approach minimums appropriate for category C

Question 166

Aircraft approach categories are based on

Answer 166

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

Question 167

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?

Answer 167

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.

Question 168

You are being vectored on the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?

Answer 168

query ATC

Question 169

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an aircraft that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

Answer 169

The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

Question 170

When may you obtain a contact approach?

Answer 170

ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

Question 171

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

Answer 171

As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

Question 172

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

Answer 172

You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

Question 173

If an ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

Answer 173

arrival at the DH on the glide slope

Question 174

Which fixes on the IAP charts are initial approach fixes?

Answer 174

any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

Question 175

When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

Answer 175

A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land

Question 176

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

Answer 176

in lieu of conducting a SIAP

Question 177

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action be taken by the pilot?

Answer 177

maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

Question 178

You received the following clearance: CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT. When does ATC expect you to commence the side step maneuver?

Answer 178

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

Question 179

During a no gyro approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

Answer 179

standard rate unless otherwise advised

Question 180

After being handed off to the final approach controller during a no gyro surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns

Answer 180

one half standard rate

Question 181

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

Answer 181

When assigned a VFR-on-top clearance

Question 182

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

Answer 182

To see and avoid other traffic

Question 183

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter

Answer 183

to the airport elevation

Question 184

How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

Answer 184

ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting

Question 185

Landing on a narrow runway may cause you to perceive the aircraft is

Answer 185

higher than actual altitude

Question 186

You break out of the clouds on an instrument approach. A narrower than usual runway will have the same appearance as

Answer 186

an upsloping runway

Question 187

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

Answer 187

coriolis illusion

Question 188

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as

Answer 188

false horizons

Question 189

An abrupt transition from a climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of

Answer 189

tumbling backward

Question 190

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

Answer 190

being in a nose up attitude

Question 191

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions

Answer 191

must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

Question 192

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

Answer 192

Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly

Question 193

You are subject to spatial disorientation when you

Answer 193

use your sense of kinesthesia to interpret flight attitude

Question 194

What does the runway visual range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP charts, represent?

Answer 194

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

Question 195

How can an IAF be identified on a standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) chart?

Answer 195

All fixes that are labeled IAF

Question 196

(refer to figure 162) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at eugene/mahlon sweet field?

Answer 196

0600 2330

Question 197

(refer to figure 184) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the tower for the yakima air terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?

Answer 197

0600 to 2200

Question 198

(refer to figure 64) The course deviation indicators (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the lafayette regional airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM
No. 1 No. 2

Answer 198

162 degree TO 346 degree FROM

Question 199

(refer to figures 65 and 66) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?

Answer 199

West of GRICE intersection

Question 200

(refer to figures 71 and 71A) You are traveling northbound on V213, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FLOSI. Which VOR would you use?

Answer 200

When the CDI on VOR 1 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FLOSI

Question 201

(refer to figures 89 and 90) What is your relationship to the airway while enroute from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8?

Answer 201

Left of course on V8

Question 202

(refer to figure 91) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR-on-top flight from DBS vortac to RANEY intersection (for 0 to 179 degree heading above the MEA)?

Answer 202

15,000 and 17,500

Question 203

(refer figures 182 and 48) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206 radial of the instrument departure procedure?

Answer 203

On the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206

Question 204

(refer to figure 211) Where does the STAKK THREE departure procedure end?

Answer 204

STAKK intersection

Question 205

(refer to figure 211) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?

Answer 205

10,200 feet MSL

Question 206

(refer to figures 216 and 216A) After departing from RWY 16 at RNO, you discover you are unable to contact reno departure control. What procedure should you follow?

Answer 206

continue on assigned heading and via the I-RNO localizer south course until passing 10,000 MSL, then turn direct FMG

Question 207

(refer to figures 174 and 175) At which point does the glen rose nine arrival begin?

Answer 207

JEN VOR

Question 208

(refer to figures 174, 175, 176, and 176A) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL from the abilene VORTAC to DFW. Which frequencies would you anticipate using to contact regional approach control, tower, and ground control?

Answer 208

119.875, 124.15, 121.85

Question 209

(refer to figures 208 and 209) At which location or condition does the STEL.STELA1 arrival begin?

Answer 209

CANAN intersection

Question 210

(refer to figures 177) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?

Answer 210

Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

Question 211

(refer to figures 188) What determines the MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at portland international airport?

Answer 211

I-GPO 1.2 DME

Question 212

(refer to figure 188) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at portland international?

Answer 212

700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM

Question 213

(refer to figure 188) When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?

Answer 213

6,200 feet MSL

Question 214

(refer to figure 188) You have been cleared to intercept the BTG VORTAC radial 054 at 7000 feet direct CREAK and the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX. You should descend to the procedure turn altitude

Answer 214

after CREAK outbound

Question 215

(refer to figure 192) Under which conditions should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (paso robles municipal airport) is not in sight?

Answer 215

once you are over the VOR

Question 216

(refer to figure 210) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

Answer 216

1800 feet MSL

Question 217

(refer to figure 210) When should you execute the published missed approach for an S-ILS RWY 6 approach at BDL?

Answer 217

When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude

Question 218

(refer to figure 213) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 28R approach to billings logan international, and plan to circle to land at 95 knots ground speed. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach?

Answer 218

B

Question 219

(refer to figure 213) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (billings logan) approach procedure?

Answer 219

three

Question 220

(refer to figure 217) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glideslope becomes inoperative?

Answer 220

1380 feet

Question 221

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

Answer 221

A procedure turn is not authorized

Question 222

(refer to figure 221) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at glide slope intercept at

Answer 222

JETSA

Question 223

(refer to figure 223) During the ILS RWY 31 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Answer 223

2400 feet MSL

Question 224

(refer to figure 228) The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 31 procedure is

Answer 224

2:33 from PECAT

Question 225

(refer to figure 232) When choosing a course reversal for the LOC RWY 35 approach to duncan/halliburton field, what options are available?

Answer 225

The type of turn is optional if it is made to the east of the approach course

Question 226

(refer to figure 232) The point on the procedure turn where the turn in bound (LOC RWY 35 at duncan/halliburton), is initiated is determined by

Answer 226

DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit

Question 227

(refer to figure 238) If cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 approach (lancaster/fairfield) over APE VORTAC, what will ATC expect of you?
Category A aircraft
Last assigned altitude 3000 feet

Answer 227

proceed straight in from FAIRF, descend after FAIRF

Question 228

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

Answer 228

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

Question 229

(refer to figure 240) You are cruising at 12,000 feet and are cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach at COPUK. Once established on the PUC arc, you can descend

Answer 229

at COPUK, from 8,900 at PUKNE, and from 7,500 at WELEN

Question 230

(refer to figure 242) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field (LIT)?

Answer 230

Any IFR approved GPS

Question 231

(refer to figure 244) What are the course reversal restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?

Answer 231

Remain within 10 NM of EXUNE INT and on the south side of the approach course

Question 232

(refer to figure 244) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?

Answer 232

Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24

Question 233

(refer to figure 244) At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LDA RWY 6 approach at ROA?

Answer 233

4,300 MSL

Question 234

(refer to figure 247) You are over seal beach VOR and have been cleared for the ILS RWY 9 at riverside muni. How should you proceed?

Answer 234

Fly at 3000 feet to JASER, descend using the LOC at 2500 feet, and intercept the glideslope

Question 235

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

Answer 235

use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable

Question 236

What practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?

Answer 236

Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise

Question 237

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn and slip indicator to determine if the

Answer 237

needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid

Question 238

What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?

Answer 238

The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn

Question 239

(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Answer 239

Figure 142

Question 240

Precision runway monitoring (RPM) is

Answer 240

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

Question 241

(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicate you are high and to the right of the ILS course?

Answer 241

Figure 140

Question 242

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

Answer 242

A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved flight simulator (airplane) or flight training device, within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight

Question 243

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

Answer 243

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed

Question 244

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

Answer 244

VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months

Question 245

(refer to figures 140, 141, and 142) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?

Answer 245

Figure 141

Question 246

Which conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower than actual altitude?

Answer 246

air temperature warmer than standard

Question 247

A hazardous situation can occur when true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. This can occur when you altimeter is set to 29.92

Answer 247

in colder than standard air temperature

Question 248

(refer to figure 249) You are flying the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach to LBF, over BEMXI, and you receive a RAIM error. You should

Answer 248

continue to RW30 while climbing to 4900 feet, and then execute the missed approach instructions to AGHAN

Question 249

(refer to figure 249) Which points are designated fly over waypoints?

Answer 249

RW30

Question 250

When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints

Answer 250

are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing

Question 251

(refer to figure 249) How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV approach?

Answer 251

At the RW30 waypoint

Question 252

During a WAAS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should

Answer 252

descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid.

Question 253

What is the maximum acceptable descent rate for a stabilized approach during a precision approach?

Answer 253

1000 FPM

Question 254

Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to

Answer 254

determine that the waypoints are generally logical and in the correct order as per the procedure chart

Question 255

The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between

Answer 255

decision altitude and the runway threshold

Question 256

While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?

Answer 256

The approach mode annunciation will disengage

Question 257

(refer to figure 249) You are 27 NM west of AJCIZ at 7000 feet and have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach. You should

Answer 257

remain at 7000 feet until AJCIZ, descend to 4700 feet in the holding pattern, cross AJCIZ and begin descent to cross BEMXI at 4600 feet

Question 258

(refer to figure 249) Why is there a note stating a temperature limitation for executing this approach with Baro-VNAV equipment?

Answer 258

The decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower than chartered

Question 259

How does Baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach?

Answer 259

by defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes throughout the procedure using the local altimeter setting

Question 260

GPS systems certified for IFR operations can not be used as substitute for ADF and DME receivers

Answer 260

in selection of an alternate that requires use of ADF or DME

Question 261

While on an IFR flight plan at 7000 feet, you encounter structural icing. You know that clear conditions are a few hundred feet above you. You contact ATC and request a climb to 9000 feet, but they are unable to give it to you. You then request a VFR-on-top clearance to 7500 feet which is granted. When you accept this clearance, your IFR clearance is

Answer 261

still in effect

Question 262

(refer to figure 249) Which type waypoint is the AGHAN fix?

Answer 262

Fly by waypoint

Question 263

When converting from conventional instruments to a primary flight display (PFD), experienced pilots of conventional instruments tend to

Answer 263

fixate on correcting for altitude deviations as small as two feet

Question 264

When filing a composite flight plan where the first part of the fight will be IFR, you IFR flight plan must include

Answer 264

all points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix

Question 265

You are flying on an IFR flight plan at 5,500 feet with a VFR on top clearance when you encounter icing. You know where is clear air above and you request 9500 feet from ATC. They deny the request, but give you 7500 feet. Are you still VFR on top?

Answer 265

Yes, you are still IFR with a VFR on top clearance

Question 266

When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

Answer 266

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

Question 267

Upon arrival at your destination airport, there is an active NOTAM stating WAAS MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE. Your aircraft avionics indicate LNAV/VNAV service is available. You know that

Answer 267

LNAV/VNAV service is available and vertical guidance can be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service

Question 268

(refer to figure 162) You are on a visual approach to RWY 16R at eugene mahlon sweet field at night, and you do not see the centerline lights. You are

Answer 268

lined up on the wrong runway

Question 269

(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 18, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about

Answer 269

185 degree

Question 270

(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 27, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about

Answer 270

275 degree

Question 271

(refer to figure 233) The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 LNAV/VNAV procedure is

Answer 271

1903 feet MSL

Question 272

(refer to figure 251) What is the slope of RWY 9

Answer 272

0.4% down

Question 273

The standard IFR ATC climb gradient is

Answer 273

200 feet per NM

Question 274

(refer to figure 232) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at duncan/halliburton field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?

Answer 274

parallel

Question 275

Aircraft operating under IFR with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for enroute navigation must also have installed

Answer 275

the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVID’s along the route

Question 276

(refer to figure 251) When lined up for takeoff on RWY 4, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about

Answer 276

050 degree

Question 277

(refer to figure 187) When the MALSR are NOTAM’d out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?

Answer 277

4500 RVR

Question 278

(refer to figures 230 and 231) For an approach into Baldwin Muni, what minimum equipment is required for the procedure?

Answer 278

GPS or VOR and DME

Question 279

(refer to figure 232) The missed approach point for the DUC LOC RWY 35 procedure is

Answer 279

2:27 from GYROE, 120 knots ground speed

Question 280

(refer to figure 234) During the LOC RWY 18 missed approach at lincoln (LNK), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?

Answer 280

parallel

Question 281

(refer to figure 230) During the VOR/DME or GPS-A missed approach at Baldwin Muni (7D3), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?

Answer 281

parallel

Question 282

(refer to figure 240) During the VOR/DME RWY 36 missed approach at buck davis field (PUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?

Answer 282

parallel

Question 283

(refer to figure 148) Which instrument would aid in determining which system has malfunctioned?

Answer 283

Magnetic compass

Question 284

During IFR enroute operations, using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation

Answer 284

the aircraft must have an approved alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

Question 285

When the marker beacon shows a blue light with tones of all dashes on ILS approach, this indicates you are

Answer 285

near glide slope intercept

Question 286

Before a pilot may plan to execute an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, what aircraft documentation is required?

Answer 286

There must be a statement in the airplane flight manual that the aircraft equipment has been demonstrated to support LPV approaches and is WAAS equipped

Question 287

When planning a random IFR route, it is a good rule of thumb to avoid restricted and prohibited areas by at least

Answer 287

3 NM

Question 288

(refer to figure 149. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the right.) During your instrument crosscheck, you notice the instruments disagree. What is the flight attitude, and which instrument has failed.

Answer 288

level turn to the right with a failed turn coordinator

Question 289

(refer to figure 148. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the left.) Which system has malfunctioned if both the artificial horizon and directional gyro are providing false indications?

Answer 289

Vacuum pump or AC power

Question 290

(refer to figure 149) Which system has malfunctioned?

Answer 290

Gyroscopic vacuum system

Question 291

What is the purpose of an off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) along a designated route?

Answer 291

For emergencies and situational awareness

Question 292

(refer to figure 245) The MAP for the RNAV (GPS)-B approach at CQX is

Answer 292

RW24 waypoint

Question 293

(refer to figure 247) During a stabilized IMC approach, the pilot should have the aircraft in a landing configuration

Answer 293

established on the glide slope before descending below 1819 MSL

Question 294

(refer to figures 195 and 196) You are on the ground just prior to runup, when you notice the cloud level has dropped. Rather than exiting the plane, how can you contact a Flight Service Station for an updated weather briefing?

Answer 294

122.35 and 800-992-7433

Question 295

(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation B?

Answer 295

West of the waypoint, 080 bearing TO the waypoint

Question 296

(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation E?

Answer 296

north of the waypoint

Question 297

(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation F?

Answer 297

South of the waypoint, 180 bearing FROM the waypoint

Question 298

(refer to figure 171) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV (GPS) RWY 33 approach procedure including the IF and missed approach procedure?

Answer 298

five waypoints

Question 299

(refer to figure 236) During the ILS or LOC RWY 32 approach at dothan regional (DHN), if you can identify FEKRA, what is the difference between the minimums for Cat B circling?

Answer 299

360 feet

Question 300

(refer to figure 249) What approach should be selected to ensure the safest approach at night?

Answer 300

LPV since it takes you to the lowest height above the runway and provides close guidance all the way to the DA, ensuring obstacle avoidance along the approach

Question 301

(refer to figure 242) If using the hold for course reversal for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36, at what point would you turn inbound for the approach?

Answer 301

4 DME from FEHXE

Question 302

If while on an instrument approach, approach control advises you of inoperative equipment, you must

Answer 302

increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment

Question 303

(refer to figure 236) If you are cleared for the straight-in LOC RWY 32 approach at Dothan regional (DHN) from over OALDY, you have to

Answer 303

proceed on the approach segment without making a procedure turn

Question 304

GPS systems certified for IFR enroute and terminal operations may be used to

Answer 304

fly the aircraft along a DME arc

Question 305

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause the illusion of

Answer 305

turning or accelerating on a different axis

Question 306

You are within 2 nautical miles of the final approach fix on the GPS approach and notice that the approach mode annunciation disappeared. In this situation you known that you

Answer 306

must fly the published missed approach procedure

Question 307

In the event of an attitude and heading reference system (AHRS) failure, what becomes your primary pitch instrument?

Answer 307

PFD altimeter

Question 308

(refer to figure 210) Cleared for the approach and about to pass HUNEE on the ILS RWY 6, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the approach light system has lost all power. You should

Answer 308

increase minimums to RVR 4000 to begin the approach

Question 309

When the marker beacon shows an amber light with tones of alternating dots and dashes on ILS approach, how far is the airplane from the runway threshold?

Answer 309

3500 feet

Question 310

What aural indication will you receive when passing the middle marker?

Answer 310

Dot, dash, dot, dash

Question 311

Your IFR clearance is to fly at MEA on an airway that includes an MCA. When you arrive at the MCA waypoint, you should

Answer 311

be at the designated crossing altitude

Question 312

(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying west on V306 from Lake Charles to Daisetta?

Answer 312

50 NM west of Lake Charles

Question 313

what is the purpose of preferred IFR routes?

Answer 313

To increase system efficiency and capacity

Question 314

If you accelerate while on a heading of 270, the magnetic compass will

Answer 314

initially indicate a turn to the north

Question 315

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 12 correspond?

Answer 315

C

Question 316

If you decelerate while on a heading of 090, the magnetic compass will

Answer 316

initially indicate a turn to the south

Question 317

A pilot may conduct a contact approach

Answer 317

if ATC approves the PIC’s request to do so

Question 318

(refer to figure 141) Figure 141 indicates that

Answer 318

you are above the glide slope and to the left of the localizer

Question 319

(refer to figure 31) You are flying on an IFR flight plan and encounter thunderstorms. You ask ATC for a new route of Rogue Valley (OED) to North Bend (OTH) via V287, and then Eugene (EUG) via V121. How much time will it take, and fuel consumed, given a TAS of 135 knots, altitude 10,000 feet, winds 340/25, and 15 gallons per hour?

Answer 319

1 hour 11 minutes; 17.7 gallons

Question 320

What weather would you expect when moist, cool air blows over a warm land mass?

Answer 320

Thunderstorms

Question 321

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VOR. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO SIX ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 321

Teardrop only

Question 322

(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation A?

Answer 322

West of the waypoint, 100 bearing TO the waypoint

Question 323

(refer to figure 99) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation C?

Answer 323

South of the waypoint, 350 bearing TO the waypoint

Question 324

(refer to figure 159) How would you enter the holding during the missed approach from the DRO ILS or LOC/DME RWY 3 approach?

Answer 324

Direct

Question 325

(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 325

parallel

Question 326

Flight at the MOCA gives

Answer 326

acceptable navigational signal coverage within 25SM on off airway routes

Question 327

(refer to figure 236) You have just executed a missed approach from your original destination. What are the landing minimums at your alternate, the ILS RWY 32 at Dothan Regional?

Answer 327

200 AGL - 1/2 SM

Question 328

(refer to figure 114) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 328

Parallel only

Question 329

(refer to figure 192) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB. Consider the IAP only specifies circling minimums. Under what conditions could you perform a straight in landing on runway 31?

Answer 329

A straight in landing may be performed if runway 31 is in sight and the aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach

Question 330

(refer to figure 71) What is the MCA over the Huguenot VOR (HUO)?

Answer 330

start climb to 4000 feet over HUO northbound on V273

Question 331

(refer to figure 186) You are cleared fo the ILS RWY 10R at portland international. At SCAPO the controller clears you to side step to RWY 10L. At which point can you side step to RWY 10L?

Answer 331

At 4.5 DME and when the runway environment is in sight

Question 332

The minimum safe altitudes depicted in the MSA circle on an IAP are intended for

Answer 332

emergency use

Question 333

(refer to figure 240) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating between R-293 and R-203?

Answer 333

12,400

Question 334

(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 11 correspond?

Answer 334

I.

Question 335

(refer to figure 40) What would be the total enroute time and fuel consumed from BGS to ABI on V16 at a true airspeed of 125 knots if the average fuel consumption is 12 GPH?
Wind 090/15

Answer 335

45 minutes and 8.9 gallons

Question 336

(refer to figure 53) Calculate the time and fuel burn for an IFR flight from San Marcus (RZS) VORTAC to Paso Robles (PRB) VORTAC on V25 with the following conditions. 
TAS 120 kts
altitude 8000 feet MSL
reported winds 070/25
fuel burn rate 12 GPH

Answer 336

38 minutes, 7.7 gallons

Question 337

(refer to figure 106) Determine the correct HSI description for the aircraft shown in position 2 if the OBS were turned to 360.

Answer 337

The HSI would have a FROM flag, and the CDI would be to the left of center

Question 338

(refer to figure 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 7 correspond?

Answer 338

G

Question 339

(refer to figure 247) You arrive at riverside municipal after the tower is closed, and the ATIS is unavailable. You must raise the S-ILS 9 approach DA by

Answer 339

46 DA

Question 340

(refer to figures 208 and 209) You are flying the STELA ONE ARRIVAL from AUDIL at FL 270 to KBDL. You are instructed Jet 123AB, cleared AUDIL, STELA ONE. Which of the following is true?

Answer 340

You must receive further verbal instructions to begin your descent

Question 341

You are navigating on an IFR flight using GPS with RAIM, and you lose RAIM. You should

Answer 341

advise ATC and continue while actively monitoring required alternate navigation systems

Question 342

When might you expect ATC to issue a visual approach as you approach your destination on an instrument flight plan?

Answer 342

When ATC deems it beneficial and the weather is reported as 1000 feet and visibility 3 SM

Question 343

When issued a 4 DME hold on a VOR above 14,000 feet, when do you turn inbound from the outbound leg above 14,000 feet.

Answer 343

at 4 DME

Question 344

a 180 turn at half standard rate would take

Answer 344

120 seconds

Question 345

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 345

Parallel only

Question 346

(refer to figure 236) You are inbound at 2,600 feet via the initial approach fix OALDY for the ILS RWY 32 approach at dothan regional (DHN). You should

Answer 346

proceed inbound at 2,600 feet to CABTA, then descend to 2,200 feet to the FAF

Question 347

(refer to figures 87 and 88) You are westbound on V222, and ATC asks you to report reaching FALSE intersection. To identify FALSE intersection, you should

Answer 347

adjust the OBS for #2 to 142 and expect the needle to center soon

Question 348

(refer to figure 71) ATC has issued an amended clearance as follows. Cleared IGN V58 HELON V213 SAX. Calculate the time and fuel required to fly the amended route. 
True airspeed: 110 knots
Average fuel consumption: 17 GPH
Winds: 180/20
Altitude: 6000 feet

Answer 348

41 minutes and 12 gallons

Question 349

(refer to figure 247) You are enroute to RAL, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Inbound from PIRO to JASER, you experience complete two way radio failure. How should you proceed?

Answer 349

Proceed inbound, complete the approach, and land RWY 09

Question 350

While taxiing for departure on an IFR flight, you notice that the altitude indicator tilts more than 10 degrees while making turns. You determine

Answer 350

the aircraft cannot be flown under IFR

Question 351

(refer to figure 47) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V448 for a VFR-on-top flight from BTG to YKM (above the MEA)?

Answer 351

15,500 and 17,500 feet

Question 352

(refer to figures 71 and 71A) You are northbound on V213, and ATC asks you to report reaching FLOSI intersection. (71A left figure is VOR 1, 71A right figure is VOR 2) To identify FLOSI intersection, you should

Answer 352

wait for the VOR 1 needle to center

Question 353

While arriving at the final of a GPS approach in IMC conditions, you notice that the approach mode is not active. How does that affect the approach?

Answer 353

Immediately execute the missed approach procedure

Question 354

(refer to figure 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying on V70 from the Lake Charles (LCH) VORTAC to the sabine pass (SBI) VOR/DME?

Answer 354

The halfway point

Question 355

(refer to figure 114) You receive this ATC clearance N270BC, CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 355

Direct only

Question 356

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.

Answer 356

Parallel only

Question 357

(refer to figure 230) You had a late departure due to weather. You are 90 minutes away from your destination (7D3). The sun is setting, what should you do?

Answer 357

Fly to your alternate

Question 358

(refer to figure 150) The heading indicator shows a turn to the left. Which instrument should be used to determine bank?

Answer 358

Attitude indicator

Question 359

(refer to legend 32 and figure 227) ATC has instructed you to expect the ILS RWY 35R approach to APA. How are the minimums affected when you learn the MALSR lighting system is out of service?

Answer 359

increases the visibility requirement by 1/4 mile

Question 360

(refer to figure 78) You are southbound on V343 from SUZZY crossing BZN enroute to RANEY. The minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is

Answer 360

10,500

Question 361

(refer to figure 109) ATC has instructed to fly present position direct the VOR, you will turn to a heading of approximately

Answer 361

190

Question 362

(refer to figure 159) You are approaching FIMGA. ATC as cleared you to FIMGA, and the 14 DME arc for the ILS RWY 3 approach at DRO. You should

Answer 362

proceed direct to FIMGA, fly the arc and complete the approach

Question 363

What do instrument departure procedures enable?

Answer 363

A preplanned IFR obstruction clearance route from the terminal area to the enroute structure

Question 364

While flying under IFR, which of the following equipment is required?

Answer 364

Navigation equipment suitable to the route to be flown

Question 365

Cessna 733WS, cleared for takeoff Rwy 04 (magnetic heading 044), fly runway heading, winds 090 at 15 gust 25. You should

Answer 365

fly magnetic heading 044 with no wind correction

Question 366

You are flying IFR in an aircraft equipped with GPS (no WAAS). Your destination airport approach requires GPS. Any alternate airport must have an instrument approach procedure

Answer 366

that is not GPS based

Question 367

(refer to figures 98 and 99) Your aircraft has HSI presentation A. In which quadrant are you?

Answer 367

Northwest

Question 368

(refer to figure 249) When approaching AJCIZ from the south, you

Answer 368

must use turn anticipation to avoid over flying the fix

Question 369

(refer to figure 250) While flying at an assigned altitude of 7000 feet MSL, you are cleared for the GPS RWY 3 approach at OWK. At what point may you leave 7000 feet MSL?

Answer 369

Upon crossing UCCOX for the procedure turn

Question 370

(refer to figure 177) You are at 4000 feet being vectored for the ILS RWY 36L at DFW. ATC gives you the following instructions: Lear 123AB, you are 3 miles from the final approach course, turn right heading 325, maintain 4000 you are cleared for the ILS RWY 36L, contact tower on 126.55. When may you begin a descent from 4000 feet?

Answer 370

When established on a segment of a published route or IAP

Question 371

If you are being radar vectored and cleared to fly an instrument approach, you should be aware that terrain and obstacle clearance depends upon

Answer 371

maintaining the last altitude assigned by ATC until the aircraft is established on a published segment

Question 372

(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, left turns. What entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 372

teardrop

Question 373

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 8 correspond?

Answer 373

E

Question 374

(refer to figures 208 and 209) You are flying the STELA ONE ARRIVAL and ATC clears you JET 123AB, cleared AUDIL, STELA ONE, cross SWEDE at FL 230, then to Bradley International. When can you start you descent to Bradley international?

Answer 374

Begin the descent as cleared, crossing SWEDE at FL 230, but you must receive further verbal instructions from ATC before STELA

Question 375

While flying an RNAV GPS approach, the published vertical descent angle can be used to

Answer 375

establish a stabilized descent from the FAF or step down fix to the MDA.

Question 376

The main purpose of a vertical descent angle on a non precision approach

Answer 376

is advisory in nature and allows the pilot to establish a stabilized descent during the approach

Question 377

(refer to figure 234) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. When crossing Clone, you observe a glideslope warning flap. Which of the following is true?

Answer 377

you may descend to 1,780 MSL while tracking the localizer inbound

Question 378

(refer to figure 240) How do you determine that the Carbon VOR/DME is operating normally?

Answer 378

Listen for the correct Morse code or verify the signal decoded as PUC

Question 379

(refer to figure 114) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO NINER RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 379

parallel only

Question 380

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 5 correspond?

Answer 380

B

Question 381

(refer to figure 157) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 11, circle to land RWY 29 at GJT. What are your landing minimums in an airplane with a 100 knot approach speed?

Answer 381

5380-1

Question 382

(refer to figure 116, #2) You are given the following instruction. HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VOR, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended entry procedure?

Answer 382

teardrop only

Question 383

(refer to figures 86 and 87) Referring to CDI indicators numbers 1 and 4, what is your position along V20 as you fly westbound?

Answer 383

Slightly south of V20 and past MOCKS intersection

Question 384

(refer to figure 87) While flying east on V194 at 8000 feet, ATC instructs you to hold west of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 384

direct

Question 385

(refer to figure 78) When flying from billings on V611 toward ESTRO, what is the altitude that provides obstacle clearance but not signal coverage?

Answer 385

6000 feet MSL

Question 386

(refer to figure 186) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 10R at portland international (PDX). At what point must you execute the missed approach if you do not have the runway environment in sight?

Answer 386

When the altimeter reads 223 feet MSL

Question 387

(refer to figure 196) The ceiling is 300 feet AGL and visibility is 2 1/2 miles. ATC has cleared you for the RWY 4 LOC approach to HOU. After EISEN, the approach lighting system goes out. What action are you required to take?

Answer 387

raise visibility requirement by 1/2 mile

Question 388

(refer to figure 217) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 13 approach at DSM. When should you initiate the missed approach if your ground speed is 90 knots?

Answer 388

1121 feet MSL

Question 389

(refer to figure 192) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB. You should initiate the missed approach procedure if the runway environment is not in sight and

Answer 389

after passing the PRB VORTAC

Question 390

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 390

direct

Question 391

(refer to figure 34) While south west bound on V54, you are approaching WASHO. What does MRA 4000 indicate?

Answer 391

WASHO can be identified using a dual VOR receiver if you are 4000 feet MSL or higher

Question 392

(refer to figure 78) When flying north from Billings (BIL) on V611, what does the *6000 indicate?

Answer 392

minimum altitude which provides reception within 25 SM of the BIL VORTAC and obstacle clearance along the entire route segment

Question 393

(refer to figure 113) You receive this ATC clearance: CESSNA 270 BC, HOLD EAST OF THE XYZ VOR ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Answer 393

direct only

Question 394

(refer to figure 240) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating the area between the 023 bearing and the 293 bearing?

Answer 394

10,600

Question 395

During a left turn, the primary flight display indicates a high airspeed and nose low pitch attitude. What actions are required to return the aircraft to level flight?

Answer 395

reduce power, level the wings, and bring the pitch attitude to level flight

Question 396

ATC has cleared you direct to the XYZ VOR and instructed you to hold east as published. You should

Answer 396

proceed direct to the VOR and enter the published hold

Question 397

(refer to figure 234) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at lincoln municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. ATC clears you direct to the lincoln VORTAC at 5000 feet. At what point can you descent to 3,200 feet?

Answer 397

when crossing lincoln VORTAC outbound

Question 398

(refer to figure 78) The *6000 just north of the Billings VORTAC on V611 indicates

Answer 398

adequate obstacle clearance to ESTRO intersection and adequate signal within 22 NM of BIL VORTAC.

Question 399

(refer to figures 174 and 175) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL. Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact regional approach control?

Answer 399

133.62

Question 400

(refer to figure 223) You are established on the LOC 31 approach over CYCLN, and the glide slope is inoperative. Which MDA do you use?

Answer 400

1320

Question 401

(refer to figure 78) When flying southbound on V187 toward billings (BIL), what is the minimum crossing altitude?

Answer 401

6,500 feet

Question 402

What does a bolded square W mean on top of an RNAV approach plate?

Answer 402

Non reliable WAAS coverage zone

Question 403

(refer to legend 32 and figure 178) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 13L approach into DAL and have been informed by ATC that the MALSR is inoperative. How does this information affect the minimums during your approach into DAL?

Answer 403

increase the visibility requirement by 1/4 mile

Question 404

In order to guarantee navigation signal reception, what is the maximum distance between two VOR facilities when your enroute altitude is 7000 feet?

Answer 404

80 NM

Question 405

(refer to figures 216 and 216A) What is the minimum climb rate to 10,900 feet at 100 knots ground speed when taking off from RWY 16L at RNO to meet the required climb gradient? The weather is 700 foot ceiling and 1 1/4 mile visibility.

Answer 405

587 feet per minute

Question 406

(refer to figure 168) While inbound to Bonham (BYP) in a turbojet at FL 230, ATC gives you the following clearance. Descend via the bonham six arrival, cross KARLA at one thousand. When should you descend to 11,000 feet?

Answer 406

at pilot discretion

Question 407

(refer to figure 247) ATC has cleared you to SLI with RAL as your destination, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Before reaching SLI, you experience complete two way radio failure. How should you proceed?

Answer 407

Upon reaching SLI, proceed to JASER, and then continue the ILS RWY 9 IAP

Question 408

ATC directs you to resume own navigation after completing a no gyro surveillance or precision based approach. All turns should be

Answer 408

standard rate

Question 409

(refer to figure 249) If the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach was the only IAP available at LBF, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 409

Circling to runway 17 is not authorized at night

Question 410

The primary reason for departure procedures is

Answer 410

to provide obstacle clearance protection information for the pilot

Question 411

(refer to figures 96 and 97) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 1 correspond?

Answer 411

H

Question 412

What aural indication will you receive when passing the outer marker?

Answer 412

Dash, dash, dash

Question 413

(refer to figure 248) The runway slope for RWY 9 is

Answer 413

1.1% up

Question 414

(refer to figure 243) The 25 mile MSA for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 approach at ROA is determined from

Answer 414

the GPS missed approach point

Question 415

(refer to figure 87) You are west of the sabine pass VOR flying east on V194 at 9000 MSL. ATC instructs you to hold south of SBI on the 180 radial. What entry procedure is recommended?

Answer 415

Direct

Question 416

(refer to figure 78) What does 122.2 over the livingston VOR/DME NAVAID information box refer to?

Answer 416

Great Falls RCO frequency

Question 417

(refer to figure 249) The missed approach procedure for the LNAV/VNAV procedure is initiated at

Answer 417

DA 3019 feet

Question 418

Once established in a turn, the miniature airplane on the turn coordinator indicates

Answer 418

rate of turn

Question 419

Spatial disorientation can be mitigated during instrument flight by

Answer 419

relying on the instruments

Question 420

(refer to figure 243) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the ROA RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 to LP minimums?

Answer 420

at CAKIX at 1780 MSL

Question 421

(refer to figure 228) For the ILS RWY 31 approach at FFC, what is the DA?

Answer 421

1081 MSL

Question 422

When on an RNAV (GPS) approach and you lose GPS signal, you should

Answer 422

immediately fly the missed approach procedure

Question 423

You cross a VOR, adn 7 minutes later you notice that you still have a half scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. You should

Answer 423

turn right to reintercept the course

Question 424

The proper way to check a heading indicator before IFR flight is to set the heading indicator to the magnetic compass and

Answer 424

ensure the instrument functions properly during taxi

Question 425

You are planning to fly to an airport with a VOR or GPS approach (no WAAS). In this case, you should

Answer 425

plan for an alternate approach procedure that is not GPS based

Question 426

Which instrument serves as a primary backup in case your airspeed indicator fails

Answer 426

Tachometer

Question 427

The controller has cleared you for a visual approach. What must the pilot have?

Answer 427

be able to remain in visual conditions

Question 428

(refer to figure 232) On the inbound leg of the procedure turn, at what point would the pilot turn to intercept the approach course

Answer 428

localizer intercept when within 10 NM of GYROE

Question 429

While in IMC, in order to overcome spatial disorientation, you need to

Answer 429

rely on correct interpretation of flight instruments

Question 430

(refer to figure 110) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

Answer 430

northeast