IFR Flashcards

1
Q

The Leans

A

When in a banked attitude with an abrupt correction can set the fluid in the ear in motion and cause the pilot to think they’ve shifted into a roll.

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2
Q

Coriolis Illusion

A

The pilots been in a turn and the fluid in the ear canal is moving at the same speed as the canal . If there’s a movement of the head this could cause the fluid to move and create the illusion of turning or accelerating

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3
Q

Graveyard spiral

A

In a prolonged constant rate turn the pilot will have the illusion of not turning. During recovery to level flight the pilot will have the sensation of turning in the opposite direction and the pilot may try to return the aircraft to its original turn and the pilot will pull back on the yoke putting the plane into a spiral

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4
Q

Somatogravic Illusion

A

Rapid acceleration makes the pilot think they’re In a nose up attitude

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5
Q

Inversion illusion

A

An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level can cause a tumbling backward illusion

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6
Q

Elevator Illusion

A

Upward vertical acceleration can occur in an updraft can cause the illusion of climbing

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7
Q

False Horizon

A

Sloping cloud formation, a dark scene with ground lights and stars can cause the pilot to align the plane incorrectly with the horizon

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8
Q

Autokinesis

A

In the dark a stationary light will seem to move when stared at for too long and the pilot could lose control of the aircraft after attempting to align the o,and with the light

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9
Q

Haze

A

Can create an illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway and pilots will tend to be high on the approach

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10
Q

Pressure altitude

A

The height above the standard datum pressure and is used for standardizing altitudes for FL

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11
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperatures and is used to determine aerodynamic performance in nonstandard atmosphere

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12
Q

Variation

A

The north magnetic pole is not in the same place as the magnetic compass

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13
Q

Deviation

A

The magnets in a compass align with any magnetic field

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14
Q

ANDS

A

Acceleration causes an indication to the north, deceleration causes an indication to the south

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15
Q

VOR

A

A primary navigational aid. VOR ground station is oriented to magnetic north and transmits information to the aircraft

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16
Q

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

A

Allows for pilots to determine an accurate geographic position of the aircraft including the bearing and distance TO or FROM.

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17
Q

Area Navigation (RNAV)

A

Equipment includes the VOR/DME, LORAN, GPS, and INS. Computes the aircrafts position, actual ground track, ground speed. This can give the distance, cross track error, and Ike estimates, relative to the selected track or waypoint. RNAV equipment must be approved for use under IFR

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18
Q

Global Positioning System (GPS)

A

Space based positioning, velocity, and time system. Gives earth centered coordinates to be determined and provides aircraft position. There are 24 satellites

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19
Q

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

A

Needs a minimum of five or six satellites to detect an integrity anomaly. It needs six’s to isolate a corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution.
Basically makes sure there is always enough satellites working

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20
Q

Localizer

A

Located at the end of the instrument runway of an airport. This radiates a field pattern that has a course down the centerline of the runway toward the middle markers and outer markers. This provides course guidance with a glide slope and horizontal guidance.

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21
Q
Class A: 
Entry Requirements
Minimum Pilot Qualifications
Two-way radio communications
Special VFR Allowed
VFR Visibility Minimum
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds
VFR Aircraft Separation
Traffic Advisories
Airport Application
A
Entry Requirements: ATC Clearance
Minimum Pilot Qualifications: Instrument Rating
Two-way radio communications: Yes
Special VFR Allowed: No
VFR Visibility Minimum: N/a
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds: N/a
VFR Aircraft Separation: N/a
Traffic Advisories: Yes
Airport Application: N/a
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22
Q
Class B:
Entry Requirements
Minimum Pilot Qualifications
Two-way radio communications
Special VFR Allowed
VFR Visibility Minimum
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds
VFR Aircraft Separation
Traffic Advisories
Airport Application
A

Entry Requirements: ATC Clearance
Minimum Pilot Qualifications: private or student certification
Two-way radio communications: yes
Special VFR Allowed: yes
VFR Visibility Minimum: 3 Sm
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds: clear of clouds
VFR Aircraft Separation: all
Traffic Advisories: Yes
Airport Application: radar, instrument approaches, weather, control tower, high density

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23
Q
Class C:
Entry Requirements
Minimum Pilot Qualifications
Two-way radio communications
Special VFR Allowed
VFR Visibility Minimum
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds
VFR Aircraft Separation
Traffic Advisories
Airport Application
A

Entry Requirements: prior two way communications
Minimum Pilot Qualifications: student cert.
Two-way radio communications: yes
Special VFR Allowed: yes
VFR Visibility Minimum:3 Sm
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds: 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal
VFR Aircraft Separation: IFR aircraft
Traffic Advisories: yes
Airport Application: radar, instrument approaches, weather, control tower

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24
Q
Class D:
Entry Requirements
Minimum Pilot Qualifications
Two-way radio communications
Special VFR Allowed
VFR Visibility Minimum
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds
VFR Aircraft Separation
Traffic Advisories
Airport Application
A

Entry Requirements: two way communications
Minimum Pilot Qualifications: student certs.
Two-way radio communications: yes
Special VFR Allowed: yes
VFR Visibility Minimum:3 sm
VFR Minimum Distance From Clouds: 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal
VFR Aircraft Separation: runway operations
Airport Application: instrument approaches, weather, control tower

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25
Q

Rime Ice

A

The droplets are small and freeze immediately when contacting the aircraft surface.

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26
Q

Clear Ice

A

Larger water droplets or freezing rain that can spread over a surface. This is the most dangerous type of ice cause it’s clear, hard to see, and can Shane the shape of the airfoil

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27
Q

Mixed Ice

A

Mixture of clear ice and rime ice

28
Q

VFR-On-Top

A

Pilots on IFR flight plans operating in VFR weather conditions May request VRF ON TOP in lieu of an assigned altitude which allows them to select an altitude or flight level of their choice

29
Q

Dual VOR Checks

A

On the ground (+-)4 in the air is (+-)6 set the two frequencies to the VOR and see if they line up between four degrees

30
Q

Climb Gradient

A

Standard climb gradient = 200’ per minute

GS/60xclimb gradient in fpnm= fpm

31
Q

MEA

A

Minimum enroute altitude, guarantee signal strength

32
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude

33
Q

OROCA

A

Off route obstacle clearance altitude.
Non mountainous area 1000’ above 4 degrees off course
Mountainous area 2000’ above 4 degrees off course

34
Q

MRA

A

Minimum reception altitude

35
Q

MCA

A

Minimum crossing altitude

36
Q

MAA

A

Maximum authorized altitude

37
Q

Fuel rerquirements

A

Enough fuel to get to destination, plus 45 minutes, plus enough to get to the alternate

38
Q

When to put an alternate airport

A

1hour before or after eta, 2000’ ceilings, 3sm visibility
Required mins. For alternate:
Precision approach : 600’ ceilings, 2sm vis.
Nonprecision: 800’ ceilings, 2sm vis.

39
Q

When is a procedure turn not required?

A
Straight in approach
Holding in lieu of a procedure turn
Arc
Radar vectored to final approach course
P no procedure turn depicted on chart
Timed approach 
Teardrop course reversal
40
Q

Visual Descent Point (VDP)

A

A defined point on the final approach course of a nonprecision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point May begin prodded adequate visual reference is established if not equipped to indenting the VDP fly the approach as if no VDP was published.

41
Q

Visual Approach

A

Allows a pilot to proceed to the airport under visual conditions

42
Q

Instrument Approach

A

Sets the pilot up to align their plane with the runway and fly towards it without being able to see

43
Q

WAAS

A

Wide are augmentation system enhances the reliability of the GPS system a waas signal receives info from the airplane and then send information to GPS receivers and thus enhances the accuracy and the reliability of position estimates.

44
Q

AHRS

A

Uses tiny sensors to measure acceleration and a fast computer chip analyzes those forces and calculates airplane attitude. By sensing all acceleration in all axes this can calculate how attitude can change and determine the actual attitude of the airplane at any instant.

45
Q

To act as PIC under IFR within 6cal months preceding the last month of flight

A

6 instrument procedures
Holding procedure and tasks
Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems

46
Q

Flight Plan Cancellation

A
Towered airports automatically cancelled by ATC upon landing
Non-towered, pilots must contact ATC/FCC TO CANCEL (by radio or phone)
Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace
47
Q

Departure Procedures

A
Ensures obstacle clearance 
Airplane has to cross the departure end of the runway at least 35’ AGL 
Reach 400’ AGL before turning
Climb at least 200’ per NM (fpnm)
FPM=FPNMxGS/60
48
Q

DA

A

Decision altitude the altitude (MSL) on an instrument approach procedure where the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or go around

49
Q

MDA

A

Minimum descent altitude the lowest altitude you can descend down to

50
Q

Lost Comms Procedure
Altitude to fly-MEA
Route to fly- AVEF

A

MEA- fly the highest among:
- minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
- expected (ex. Expect 5000’ after 10 minutes)
- last altitude assigned by ATC
AVEF- select route by the following order:
- assigned route, if none:
- vectored ( fly to the fix/ route/airway last vectored to), if none:
- last expected route by ATC, ,if none:
- filed route

51
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA (1)

A

The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers

52
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA (2)

A

The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used

53
Q

When can you descend below MDA/DA (3)

A
At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
A. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100’ above the touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side bars are also visible and identifiable
B. The threshold
C. Threshold markings
D. Threshold lights
E. Runway end identifiable lights
F. Visual approach slope indicator
G. Touchdown zone or it’s markings
H. Touchdown zone lights
I. Runway or runway markings
J. Runway lights
54
Q

Equipment required for day IFR:

A

ATOMATOFLAMES +
GENERATOR/ALTERNATOR
RADIOS (TWO-WAY AND NAVIGATIONAL EQUIPMENT APPROPRIATE FOR THE GROUND FACILITIES TO BE USED)
ALTIMETER (SENSITIVE) ADJUSTABLE FOR BAROMETRIC PRESSURE
BALL (SLIP-SKID INDICATOR)
CLOCK (SHOWS HOURS MINUTES AND SECONDS AND INSTALLED AS PART OF THE AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT)
ALTITUDE INDICATOR
RATE OF TURN INDICATOR
DIRECTIONAL GYRO (HEADING INDICATOR)

55
Q

Equipment needed for night IFR

A

ATOMATOFLAMES + FLAPS+
GENERATOR/ALTERNATOR
RADIOS (TWO-WAY AND NAVIGATIONAL EQUIPMENT APPROPRIATE FOR THE GROUND FACILITIES TO BE USED)
ALTIMETER (SENSITIVE) ADJUSTABLE FOR BAROMETRIC PRESSURE
BALL (SLIP-SKID INDICATOR)
CLOCK (SHOWS HOURS MINUTES AND SECONDS AND INSTALLED AS PART OF THE AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT)
ALTITUDE INDICATOR
RATE OF TURN INDICATOR
DIRECTIONAL GYRO (HEADING INDICATOR)

56
Q

air data computer (ADC)

A

an essential avionics component, This computer, rather than individual instruments, can determine the calibrated airspeed, Mach number, altitude, and altitude trend data from an aircraft’s pitot-static system

57
Q

attitude and heading reference system (AHRS)

A

consists of sensors on three axes that provide attitude information for aircraft, including roll, pitch and yaw. They are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments.

58
Q

“On the visual”

A

Initiated by either ATC or pilot required at least 1000’ ceilings or 3sm visibility and must have either the runway or traffic to follow.
Must have at least MVFR to be “on the visual”

59
Q

VFR, MVFR, IFR AND LIFR
CEILING
VISIBILITY
COLOR

A

VFR: 3000’, >5 sm, green
MVFR: 1000-3000’ 3-5 sm, blue
IFR: 500-1000’ 1-3 sm, red
LIFR: <500’ <1 sm, pink

60
Q

MSA

A

Minimum safe altitude is for emergencies this is the altitude that you won’t hit any obstacles

61
Q

CDI Sensitivity: GPS

A

Enroute: with waas sensitivity 2nmof deviation off course, without waas 5nm
Terminal: within 30nm of airport, 1nm off
Approach: LPV or LNAV, 0.3 off

62
Q

Circling radius

A

1.3 nm
As we increase altitude the radius increases because as we increase altitude our true airspeed increases due to the thinner air

63
Q

Inoperative Equipment

A

91.205 list, POH Equipment list, and kinds of operation limit

64
Q

Mandatory Reporting Points

A

MARVELOUSVFRC500

Missed approach
Airspeed ±10 knots or 5% change of filed TAS
Reaching a holding fix (time and altitude)
VFR on top altitude changes
ETA change of ±3 minutes (non-radar)
Leaving a holding fix
Outer marker inbound (non-radar)
Unforecasted weather
Safety of flight
Vacating an altitude or flight level
Final approach fix inbound (non-radar)
Radio or navigation failure
Compulsory reporting points (non-radar)
500 FPM climb or descent rate not obtainable
65
Q

Instrument Proficiency Review

A

You need an IPV review after 12 months to stay current