IEM & general information of healthy infants Flashcards

1
Q

def. inborn error and IEM

A

 Definition: inborn error
o Gene mutations, usually caused by recessive gene
o Dysregulation in the synthesize of enzymes, coenzymes and transporters necessary for the metabolism of carb, lipids and amino acids

 Definition: metabolism
o Accumulation of toxic metabolites
o Deficiency in essential metabolites

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2
Q

T/F IBE can be detected at early age

A

F

IEM may start to present at any age with wide range of severity but mostly manifest around the newborn period

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3
Q

why do newborn error screening?

A

there was high incidence of metal retardation before screening; to catch the problem before the damage becomes accumulated

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4
Q

list down 5/8 common syntoms

A
  1. overwhelming illness in the new born period
  2. cardiomyopathy
  3. seizure
  4. recurrent vomiting
  5. developmental delay/mental retardation
  6. neuropsychiatric symptoms
  7. poor growth/failure to thrive
  8. loss of previously acquired skills
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5
Q

newborn error screening: test

A

 First test: urinary phenyl pyruvic acid for PKU
 Dry blood spots: collect 24-48 hours after birth for metabolic intermediaries detection
• Canada: 38 conditions

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6
Q

6 guidelines for IE

A
  1. In differential diagnosis of sepsis, anoxic encephalopathy or toxic ingestion
  2. Persist symptoms
  3. Typical common laboratory test fail to determine a definitive diagnosis
  4. Can present as either acute illness or as chronic disease/ recurrent and progressive/ at any age
  5. Can occur in the context of negative family Hx or genetic/metabolic disorder (recessive gene mutation)
  6. Neonatal death from undetermined causes
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7
Q

list down the first 3 most common IEM conditions

A

PKU: phenyl ketonuria
MMA: Methylmalonic acidemia
galactosemia

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8
Q

what is the different between Mitochondrial disorder and other common IEMs?

A

it is from X chromosome only: x-linked mtDNA mutations.

Most IEMs are autosomally recessive

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9
Q

Most commonly absent enzyme: PKU

A

PAH: phenylalanine hydroxylase

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10
Q

Most commonly absent enzyme: MMA

A

Methyl malonyl

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11
Q

4 Modals for nutrition management

A

A: restrict substrate
B:supplement product
C:supplement co-factor to increase residual enzyme activity
D: ajunct therapies—remove abnormal metabolites

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12
Q

what are the 4 difficulties in terms of nutrition management?

A
  1. single or multiple nutrition restriction
  2. risk of nutrition deficiency
  3. specific supplements, especially regarding essential AAs
  4. Appropriate growth = the achievement of metabolic balance, which is hard
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13
Q

what is the priority in nutrition management? how to monitor?

A
  • NRG adequacy

- proteie-energy ratio

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14
Q

if someone has IE of protein metabolism, how would you increase total NRG?

A

choose low-protein breads and pasta for NRG adequacy without adding more protein to the foods

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15
Q

AAs mix vs the source of whole protein

A

prefer to whole protein (more efficient in some disorder)

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16
Q

why protein balance is very important?

A
  • Growth will be limited by the AA in shortest or inadequate nitrogen supply in the diet.
17
Q

dietary fat is a good source to meet NRG requirement except:

A

IE regarding fat oxidation

18
Q

Four 4 steps in terms of overall PKU management

A
  1. Reduce blood phe under 360 umol/L
  2. Add little by little intact protein to cover phe needs
  3. Supplement with large neutral AA to compete for he transporter
  4. Inadequate protein = Assess deficiency?
19
Q

How to reduce blood phe under 360 umol/L

A

Fully restrict all protein sources that contain Phe until below 360 umol/L

20
Q

Acute management of PKU for infants

A
  • Reduce blood phe < 360 umol/L
  • Phe-free formulas
  • Can reintroduce standard formula or breastmilk in controlled amounts (the level of phe vary)
21
Q

chronic management of PKU for infants

A
  • Manintain blood phe at range 120-360 umol/L
  • Supporting normal growth and development
  • Preventing nutrient deficiencies
22
Q

what is the main end goal of nutrition therapy for IEM

A

nutrition adequacy for growth (follow the growth curve)

23
Q

what is Galactosemia

A

: high accumulation of galactose-1-P, galactose, galactitol and galactonate due to deficiency of GALT. Sometimes, other enzyme deficiencies may exist as well, like GALK and GALE.

24
Q

the most common complication

A

jaundice because of liver damage

25
Q

list 4/6 common consequence of galactosemia

A
o	Most common complication--- jaundice because of liver damage
o	Anorexia
o	Potential risk of sepsis
o	Ultimately fatal 
o	Enlarged liver 
o	Kidney damage
26
Q

overall nutrition management of galactosemia

A

restriction of galactose through drinking metabolized milk.

27
Q

the concern if no restriction of galactose intake

A

Usual unmetabolized milk will cause the galactose accumulation and ultimately damage the liver, eyes, kidney and brain

28
Q

Acute management: galactosemia

A
  • Soy-based medical food (forbid dairy components)
  • PN can be an option after EN or PO
  • Medication: avoid the one containing lactose fillers
29
Q

Chronic management: galactosemia

A
  • Dairy elimination
  • NO Breast feeding
  • Rec to continue monitor Vit-D status for bone health
  • Education to parents: label reading
  • F/V is okay (negligible amounts of Gal)
30
Q

list 4 items that contain galactose/lactose but ppl commonly don’t realize

A

butter, organ meats, fermented soy products and soy sauce, meat by-products, milk chocolate

31
Q

• Breast-fed babies usually feed ? times or more per day

A

averagely 8 or more

for commercial formula: 6 or more

32
Q

how do you know it is feeding enough

A

Urine, Stools, Weight

Baby seems full after drinking

33
Q

list 5 signs that the baby is not drinking enough

A
  • baby is very drowsy and difficult to wake for feeding
  • urine is dark yellow or very little (e.g., more than 6 hours between wet diaper)
  • there are orange stains in the urine after the first two days
  • stools still contain meconium after the 5th day
  • fewer than one bowel movment per 24 hours between the age of 5 days to 4 weeks
34
Q

when to report APGAR score

A

• Reported at least at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth in all infants

35
Q

APGAR: the range of normal

A

7-10

36
Q

what is 0 APGAR score for R?

A

no crying

37
Q

heart rate: 2 APGAR SCORE

A

HR > 100/min