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00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES > IDS > Flashcards

IDS Flashcards

1
Q

organisms which cause diarrhea via pre-formed toxins (3)

A
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2
Q

organisms which cause diarrhea via cytotoxins (2)

A
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2
Q

organisms which cause diarrhea via entero toxins (4)

A
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3
Q

The most clinically important flaviviruses that cause the fever and myalgia syndrome are

A

Dengue viruses causing breakbone fever

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4
Q

Most important of the parasitic diseases of humans,

A

Malaria

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5
Q

organisms causing filariasis (2)

A
  • Wuchereria bancrofti
  • Brugia malayi
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6
Q

malaria species with Malignant vs Benign Tertian periodicity

A
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7
Q

malarial species with banana-shaped gametocytes

A
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8
Q

malaria species with preference to:
* young
* old
* both young and old

A
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9
Q

malarial species with band or rectangular forms of trophozoites

A
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10
Q

malarial species with irregularly shaped large rings and trophozoites; Schuffner dots

A
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11
Q

malarial species with enlarged and oval with tufted ends Schuffner dots

A
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12
Q

malarial species associated with cerebral malaria

A

P. falciparum

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13
Q

malarial species with tendecny to relapse

A

P. vivax
P. ovale

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14
Q

relapse in malaria is due to reactivation of what malaria stage

A

hypnozoites

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15
Q

When a patient in or from a malarious area presents with fever, what should be done to confirm diagnosis and identify species of infecting organism?

A

Thick and thin blood smears

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15
Q

What is blackwater fever?

A

Acute hemolytic anemia with massive hemoglobinuria in malaria

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16
Q

Highest endemicity of malaria in

A

(MIMAROPA region) Palawan

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17
Q

Hallmark features of enteric fever

A
  • Fever and abdominal pain

Enteric fever is a misnomer in that hallmark features are variable

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18
Q

rose spots or faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rashes located primarily on the trunk and chest are found in what disease

A

enteric fever

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18
Q

Term for the neuropsychiatric symptoms with picking at bedclothes or imaginary objects in patients with enteric fever

A

Muttering delirium or coma vigil

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19
Q

Risk factors for chronic carriage in patients with

A
  • Women
  • infants,
  • persons who have biliary abnormalities or concurrent bladder infection with Schistosoma haematobium
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20
Q

Most effective class of agents in treatment in enteric fever

A

fluoroquinolones

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21
Q

Most severe form of leptospirosis

A

Weil’s Syndrome ( characterized by jaundice, renal dysfunction, and hemorrhagic diathesis)

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22
Q

Severe leptospirosis should be treated with what medication

A

IV Penicillin

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23
Q

Prophylaxis for leptospirosis exposure

A

Doxycycline

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24
Q

Differentiate the ff in terms of mode of transmission :
*Schistosoma japonicum
* Paragonimus westermani
* Clonorchis sinensis

A
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25
Q

Differentiate the ff in terms of body part affected :
*Schistosoma japonicum
* Paragonimus westermani
* Clonorchis sinensis

A
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26
Q

Differentiate the ff in terms of mode of intermediate hosts :
*Schistosoma japonicum
* Paragonimus westermani
* Clonorchis sinensis

A
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27
Q

Differentiate the ff in terms of drug of choice :
*Schistosoma japonicum
* Paragonimus westermani
* Clonorchis sinensis

A
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28
Q

Intermediate host of S.japonicum

A

Oncomelania quadrasi (snail)

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29
Q

Intermediate host of P. westermani

A

Sundathelphusa philippina (mountain crab)

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30
Q

Symptomatic acute schistosomiasis usually seen in travelers who have contracted the infection (schistosomiasis) for the first time

A

Katayama fever

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31
Q

schistosomiasis is most prevalent in what province

A

Oriental Mindoro

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32
Q

Mainstay in tbe control program of schistosomiasis in the Philippines

A

Mass treatment with praziquantel

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33
Q

Clostridium tetani are anaerobic, gram negative, spore-forming rods

True or False

A

False

gram POSITIVE dapat

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34
Q

Most characteristic pathologic finding in rabies

A

Negri bodies

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35
Q

term for the eosinophilic cytoplasmic neurons that are composed and viral RNA in rabies

A

Negri bodies

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36
Q

Examples of bacteriostatic antibiotics (6)

A
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37
Q

Examples of bactericidal antibiotics (6)

A
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38
Q

Example of 1st gen cephalosporin (1)

A
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39
Q

Example of 2nd gen cephalosporin (2)

A
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40
Q

Example of 4th gen cephalosporin (1)

A
41
Q

Example of 3rd gen cephalosporin (4)

A
42
Q

Example of 5th gen cephalosporin (1)

A
43
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor that causes gray baby syndrome

A
44
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor that causes tooth enamel discoloration

A
44
Q

only Protein synthesis inhibitor that binds to 30S subunit

A
45
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor that causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

clindamycin

46
Q

aminoglycoside that is absolutely contraindicated in myasthenia gravis due to its side effect (neuromuscular blockade)

A

gentamicin

47
Q

aminoglycoside that has pseudomonal coverage and has narrow therapeutic window

A
47
Q

aminoglycoside used for treatment of drug-resistant gonorrhea

A
48
Q

aminoglycoside used for treatment of hepatic encephalopathy (2nd line)

A

neomycin

49
Q

FQ that causes tendonitis or tendon rupture in people > 60 y/o and in patients taking prednisone

A
50
Q

Example of 2nd, 3rd, vs 4th gen cephalosporin

A
51
Q

FQ used for UTI and GIT infections

A
52
Q

FQ used for pulmo infections

A
52
Q

FQ used for ocular infections

A
53
Q

most hepatotoxic TB meds

A
54
Q

TB med that causes peripheral neurotoxicity

A
55
Q

anong klaseng color-blindness ang dinudulot ng ethambutol

A

red-green color blindness

56
Q

top 3 hepatotoxic anti TB meds

A

pyrazinamide
rifampicin
isoniazid

57
Q

leprosy drug that causes methemoglobinemia and hemolysis if px is G6PD deficient

A

Dapsone

58
Q

leprosy drug that causes red-orange urine

A
59
Q

leprosy drug that causes red-black discoloration that accumulates esp in lesional areas

A

Clofazimine

60
Q

antibiotic used to treat pseudomembranous colitis

A

metronidazole

61
Q

antibiotic which cause disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol

A

metronidazole

62
Q

Nitrofurantoin causes this pulmonary complication

A

pulmonary fibrosis

63
Q

antifungal used as topical treatment for dermatophytosis and candidiasis

A

Ketoconazole

64
Q

antifungal that causes gynecomastia as side effect

A
64
Q

antifungal used for prophylaxis and treatment of candidiasis and cryptococcosis

A
65
Q

acyclovir is used to treat what 2 viruses

A
65
Q

antiviral that causes obstructive crystalline nephropathy and AKI if not adequately hydrated

A
66
Q

ganciclovir is used to treat what virus (1)

A
67
Q

Foscarnet is used to treat what 3 viruses

A
68
Q

antiviral which causes cerebellar dysfunction and livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

69
Q

antiviral that is used as treatment and prevention of influenza A and B

A
70
Q

antiviral used as treatment of hepatitis B infection and HIV

A

Lamivudine

71
Q

antiviral used as treatment of hepatitis C and RSV infection

A

Ribavirin

72
Q

examples of NNRTI (3)

A
73
Q

anti malarial drug that causes retinopathy

A
74
Q

anti malarial drug that causes cinchonism

A

quinine

74
Q

anti malarial drug that should not be given in pregnant patients

A

Primaquine

75
Q

anti malarial drug that is the DOC for eradication of hypnozoites of P. vivax and ovale to eradicate persistent liver stages and prevent relapse

A

Primaquine

76
Q

Only anti malarial drug advised for pregnant women traveling to areas with drug-resistant malaria

A

Mefloquine

77
Q

anti malarial drug that is generally considered safe in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy

A

Mefloquine

78
Q

anti malarial drug used as prophylaxis in areas with chloroquine- or mefloquine-resistant P.falciparum

A

Doxycycline

79
Q

Drug of choice for all patients with severe malaria everywhere

A

Artesunate

80
Q

Should be used in pregnant women with severe malaria

A
81
Q
  • DOC for asymptomatic cyst carriers of E. histolytica
  • Luminally active agent used to eradicate the cysts of£. histolytica
A
82
Q

DOC for Cryptosporidium parvum infection

A
82
Q

DOC for
* Amoebic dysentery
* Trichomoniasis
* Giardiasis

A
83
Q

DOC for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

A
84
Q

DOC for Toxoplasmosis

A
85
Q

DOC for African sleeping sickness

A
86
Q

DOC for Chagas disease

A
87
Q

DOC for Leishmaniasis

A
88
Q

anti-helminthic drugs which inhibit helminthic microtubules (2)

A

albendazole, mebendazole

89
Q

Treatment for echinococcosis, intestinal parasitic nematodes

A

albendazole

90
Q

Drug of choice for filarial disease and Loa loa

A

DEC

91
Q

Considered more effective than albendazole for Strongyloides

A
92
Q

First line agent for onchocerciasis

A
93
Q

Side effect of this anti-helminthic drug is Mazzotti reaction

A
94
Q

Used in Enterobius infection

A
95
Q

Drug of choice for trematodes and cestodes;
EXCEPT echinococcosis (because it is treated with albendazole)

A
96
Q

Back-up drug to Praziquantel

A

00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES (7 decks)

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