CARDIO Flashcards
1
Q
longest phase ofthe cardiac cycle
A
2
Q
phase of the cardiac cycle that is Preceded by P-wave, atrial pressure increases, a wave seen in venous pulse curve.
A
3
Q
phase of the cardiac cycle..
- Begins during the QRS complex, c wave seen in atrial pressure curve
- Period between aortic valve opening and mitral valve closing
A
4
Q
Phase of the cardiac cycle
* Ventricular pressure reaches its maximum value during this phase.
* C wave on venous pulse curve occurs because of bulging oftricuspid valve into right atrium during right ventricular contraction.
A
5
Q
Phase of the cardiac cycle:
* Ejection of blood from the ventricle continues, but is slower.
* Ventricular pressure begins to decrease.
A
6
Q
Phase of the cardiac cycle :
* Repolarization of the ventricles is now complete (end of the T wave).
* The aortic valve closes, followed by closure of the pulmonic valve.
* Closure of the semilunar valves corresponds to the second heart sound.
* Period between aortic valve closing and mitral valve opening
A
7
Q
Phase of the cardiac cycle :
* When ventricular pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, the mitral valve opens.
A
8
Q
Phase of the cardiac cycle:
* Ventricular filling continues, but at a slower rate.
* Occurs before mitral valve opening
A
9
Q
Blood Pressure= Cardiac Output x Total Peripheral Resistance
True or False
A
True
10
Q
Cardiac output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
True or False
A
True
11
Q
TPR is synonymous with Systemic Vascular Resistance and is determined by functional and anatomic chanaes in small arteries (lumen diameter 100·400 um) and arterioles
True or False
A
True
12
Q
Pulse Pressure= Systolic BP minus diastolic BP
True or False
A
true
13
Q
Pulse Pressure is a marker that correlates with WHAT
A
Pulse Pressure is a marker that correlates with stroke volume
14
Q
what law has this formula
A
Poiseuille Law
15
Q
How to elicit abdominojugular reflex
A
16
Q
What does POSITIVE abdominojugular reflex mean
A
17
Q
Blowing holosystolic murmur of Tricuspid Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration
A
Carvallo sign
18
Q
Carvallo sign is Blowing holosystolic murmur of mitral Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration
True or False
A
False… kasi dapat…
Blowing holosystolic murmur of Tricuspid Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration
19
Q
what murmur
A
Graham Steel Murmur
20
Q
Condition where the murmur of aortic stenosis may be transmitted downward and to the apex and may be confused with the systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
A
Gallavardin effect
21
Q
A rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in aortic regurgitation
A
Corrigan pulse
22
Q
Corrigan pulse is a rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in MITRAL STENOSIS.
True or False
A
False.. kasi dapat…
Corrigan pulse is rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in aortic regurgitation
23
Q
Capillary pulsations manifest as alternate flushing and paling of the skin while pressure is applied to the tip of the nail, seen in aortic regurgitation
A
Quincke pulse
24
Q
A booming “pistol-shot” sound heard over the femoral arteries, seen in aortic regurgitation
A
Traube sign
25
Term for this sign...
Normally there are only venous pulsations visible on the ocular fundus. In aortic regurgitation, retinal arterial pulsations are visible
Becker sign
26
Term for this sign...
Systolic pulsations of the uvula in aortic regurgitation
Muller sign
27
Term for this sign...
To-and-fro murmur audible if the femoral artery is lightly compressed with a stethoscope, seen in aortic regurgitation
Duroziez Sign
28
Term for this sign...
Apical pulse is reduced and may retract in systole in constrictive pericarditis
Broadbent sign
29
This ECG finding is a major noninvasive marker of increased CV morbidity/ mortality risk
LVH
30
Most widely used test for the diagnosis of IHD
12-lead ECGbefore, during, and after
exercise, usually on a treadmill
31
The hallmark of myocardial ischemia during stress echocardiography
New regional wall motion abnormalities and reduced systolic wall thickening
32
Diagnostic test of choice for assessment of small lesions in the heart such as valvular vegetations
Transesophageal echocardiography
33
Main method for clinical assessment of diastolic function
echocardiography
34
Hemoglobin A1C of diastolic function
Left atrial size (because left atrial enlargement reflects long-standing increase in left-sided filling pressures)
35
Gold standard for assessing LV mass & volumes
MRI
36
Main method to assess systolic function
Assessment of ejection fraction (subtract end-systolic volume from end-diastolic volume and divide by end-diastolic volume)
37
Formula for ejection fraction
subtract end-systolic volume from end-diastolic volume and divide by end-diastolic volume
38
Gold standard in assessing the anatomy & physiology of the heart & associated vasculature
Diagnostic cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography
39
WHAT LAB FINDING:
* Independent risk factor for IHD
* May be useful in therapeutic decision-making about the initiation of hypolipidemic treatment
Elevated level of high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (CRP) (specifically, between Oand 3 mg/dL)
40
Triad specific for pericardial effusion (ecg findings)
41
Diagnostic Triad of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) ECG Pattern
42
Three principal features of tamponade (Beck Triad)
43
3 Major determinants of myocardial 02 demand (MV02)
44
Triad of Buerger disease
45
Virchow's Triad
46
3 beta blockers for HF
* carvedilol
* bisoprolol
* metoprolol succinate
47
7 drug classes that can improve HF symptoms
vs
5 drug classes that can prolong survival in HF
48
Class IA antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)
49
Class IB antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)
50
Class IC antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)
51
Class II antiarrhthymic drugs examples (2)
52
Class III antiarrhthymic drugs examples (4)
53
Class IV antiarrhthymic drugs examples (2)
54
Class IA antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
55
Class IB antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
56
Class IC antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
57
Class II antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
58
Class III antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
59
Class IV antiarrhthymic drugs MOA
60
Amiodarone is lipophilic and has class I, II, III,and IVeffects
| True or False
True
61
anti HTN drug class that causes Na excretion and reduction in blood volume
62
Calcium Channel Blocker that exerts more effect on the vessels than the heart
63
Calcium Channel Blocker that exerts more effect on the heart than the vessels
64
anti HTN drug class that Decreases the work load of the heart
65
anti HTN drug class that Blocks the ATl receptor of angiotensin II
66
anti HTN drug class that is Notorious for drug-induced cough by increasing bradykinin
67
anti HTN drug class that Blocks aldosterone action in the collecting tubules
68
anti HTN drug class for patients with Hypertension with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
69
Most commonly used drug to acutely manage severe hypertension preeclampsia (2)
70
phases of the cardiac action potential (5)
71
phases of the SA node potential (3)
72
master pacemaker of the heart
SA Node
73
Chronotropic incompetence
74
in chronotropic incompetence...
px is unable to achieve ____% of predicted maximal heart rate at peak exercise
75
in chronotropic incompetence…
px unable to achieve a heart rate >____beats/min with exercise
76
the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles
AV node
77
Most common arrhythmia mechanism
re-entry
78
Most reliable treatment for patients with symptomatic AV conduction system disease in the absence of extrinsic and reversible etiologies
Temporary or permanent artificial pacing
79
Most expeditious technique in the management of AVconduction block
transcutaneous pacing
80
Most common sustained arrhythmia
Afib
81
differentiate Mobitz type I vs II
82
Ventricular tachycardia that terminates spontaneously within 30 s
Non-sustained VT
83
Sustained VT **persists for >30 s** or is terminated by an active intervention, such as administration of an intravenous medication, external cardioversion, or pacing or a shock from an implanted cardioverter defibrillator
| True or False
True
84
Underlies the majority of sudden cardiac death
CAD
85
This drug class abolishes ventricular ectopic activity in patients with STEMI and in the prevention of ventricular fibrillation
beta blockers
86
Causes of HF in men and women in industrialized countries responsible for 60-75% of cases (2)
Coronary Artery Disease and Hypertension (contributes to the development of HF in 75% of patients)
87
Most useful index of LV function
EF
87
Single most important bedside measurement to estimate volume status
JVP
88
Cardinal symptoms of HF (2)
fatigue and SOB
89
most important mechanism of dyspnea in HF
Pulmonary congestion with accumulation of interstitial or intra-alveolar fluid, which activates iuxtacapillary J receptors
90
this symptoms Results from redistribution of fluid from the splanchnic circulation and lower extremities into the central circulation during recumbency, with a resultant increase in pulmonary capillary pressure
orthopnea
91
this symptom is Caused by increased pressure in the bronchial arteries leading to airway compression, along with interstitial pulmonary edema that leads to increased airway resistance
PND
92
Cornerstone of pharmacotherapy for HF with reduced EF (2)
RAAS inhibitors and Beta blockers
93
HF drug that has shown a survival benefit in a large trial versus ARB alone
ARNI
94
Most common symptom of cor pulmonale
dyspnea
95
Systolic murmurs are murmurs that always signify structural heart disease
| True or False
False... kasi dapat..
DIASTOLIC murmurs
96
WHAT MURMUR:
* Opening Snap followed by a low-pitched, rumbling, diastolic murmur, heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral recumbent position
mitral stenosis
97
Leading cause of Mitral stenosis
rheumatic fever
98
WHAt MURMUR:
* Pansystolic murmur;
* may be due to Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)
mitral regurgitation
99
Papillary muscle involved more frequently in acute MR (with acute Ml) because of single blood supply
posteromedial papillary muscle
100
Freauent finding on auscultation in MVP
Mid- or late (non-ejection) systolic click
101
Most common ECG finding in MVP
normal
102
Most common congenital heart valve defect
bicuspid aortic valve disease
103
Three cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis
* Syncope,
* Angina pectoris,
* Exertional dyspnea
104
WHAT VALVULAR HEART DSE:
* IE In IV Drug Abusers,
* marked hepatomegaly with systolic pulsations, ascites, pleural effusions, edema,
* and a positive hepatojugular reflux sign ,
* giant C-V Wave in Jugular Venous Pulses
Tricuspid regurgitation
105
Most common valvular heart disease in patients with Carcinoid heart disease
triscuspid insufficiency
106
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
pathophysiology
107
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
value of LV ejection fraction
108
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
LV diastolic diameter
109
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
LV wall thickness
110
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
atrial size
111
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
cause of valvular regurgitation
112
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
common first symptoms
113
Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
congestive symptoms... ano ba nauuna.. right or left congestive stymptoms kineme...
114
viruses usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
dilated CM
115
peripartum usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
116
alcohol use usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
117
cocaine usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
118
chemotherapy usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
119
amyloidosis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
120
Loeffler's endocarditis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
121
Endomyocardial fibrosis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy
122
Most common cardiomyopathy found at autopsy in young competitive athletes who experience sudden cardiac arrest (SCA)
123
typical clinical picture of myocarditis
Young to middle-aged adult who develops progressive dyspnea and weakness within a few days to weeks after a viral syndrome that was accompanied bv fever and myalgias.
124
Third most common parasitic infection in the world and the most common infective cause of cardiomyopathy; a cause of dilated cardiomyopathy
Chaga's disease
125
How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?
bite of Reduviid bug
126
Time frame of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy
Last trimester or within the first 6 months after pregnancy
127
Most common toxin in chronic dilated cardiomyopathy
alcohol
128
Most common drugs implicated in toxic cardiomyopathy
chemotherapy
129
Apical ballooning syndrome is also known as
Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
130
Most common cause of thyroid abnormalities in the cardiac population
Treatment of tachyarrhythmias with amiodarone
131
Main cause of sudden death in the young and important cause of heart failure
HCM
132
Histologic changes associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (3)
* Misaligned and disarrayed enlarged myofibrils and myocytes;
* fibrosis and microvascular disease;
* and Interstitial fibrosis
133
Common first symptoms of HCM
Exertional intolerance; may have chest pain
134
Classic finding on the echocardiogram of HCM
Systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve
135
First-line agents ( 2 drug classes) that reduce the severity of obstruction by slowing heart rate, enhancing diastolic filling. and decreasing contractilitv in HCM
* B blockers
* L-type CCBs (Verapamil)
136
What is Kussmaul's sign
rise or a lack of fall of the JVP with inspiration, classically associated with constrictive pericarditis
137
3 other differentials for cardiac tamponade
138
pulsus paradoxus is present in cardiac tamponade vs contrictive pericardits vs restrictive CMP vs RV myocardial infarction..... but is most prominent in....
cardiac tamponade
139
which of the following is y-descent NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
140
which of the following is Kussmaul sign NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
141
which of the following is 3rd heart sound present (2)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
142
which of the following is pericardial knock only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
143
which of the following is low ECG voltage NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
144
which of the following is electrical alternans ONLY seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
145
which of the following is thickend pericardium only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* constrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
146
which of the following is pericardial effusion only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
147
which of the following is RV size usually small (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
148
which of the following is RV size usually enlarged (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction
149
Most common pathologic process involving the pericardium
acute pericarditis
150
Characteristic pain in pericarditis
* Worsened by lying supine,
* relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
151
Pericardial friction rub in acute pericarditis is heard most frequently when assuming what position...
End-expiration with patient upright and leaning forward
152
Four stages of evolution of the ECG in acute pericarditis
153
2 most common causes of cardiac tamponade
154
Important clue to the presence of cardiac tamponade consisting of a greater than normal (10 mmHg) inspiratory decline in systolic arterial pressure
pulsus paradoxus
155
Most common causes of bloody pericardial fluid (3)
* Neoplasm
* Renal failure
* After cardiac injury
156
Most common causes of pericarditis due to neoplastic disease
157
Basic physiologic abnormality in chronic constrictive pericarditis
Inability of ventricles to fill because of limitations imposed by the rigid, thickened pericardium
158
Most prominent deflection in constrictive pericarditis (absent/ diminished in tamponade)
y descent
159
The only definitive treatment of constrictive pericarditis
pericardial resection
160
Most common primary sites from which cardiac metastases originate (2)
Carcinoma of the breast and lung
161
Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults
Myxomas (90% are sporadic)
162
Most common tumors of the cardiac valves
Papillary Fibroelastomas
163
Most common cardiac tumors in infants and children (2)
Rhabdomyomas and fibromas
164
Almost all primary cardiac malignancies are sarcomas. True or False
True
165
layer of the heart that is most often involved in metastasis to the heart
Pericardium > Myocardium > Endocardium or Cardiac Valves
166
imaging modality that has Central role in the diagnostic evaluation of cardiac metastases and cardiac tumors
cardiac MRI
167
Most common congenital anomaly recognized at birth
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
168
Most common location of VSD
membranous septum
169
Most common type of ASD
secundum ASD
170
Examples of Cyanotic CHDs (R-to-L shunt). Give 5
171
Most common form of cyanotic CHD
TOF
172
Acyanotic CHDs (L to R shunt).
Give 3
* ASD
* VSD
* PDA
173
Term for Conversion of an initial L to R shunt into a R to L shunt
Eisenmengerization
174
CHD associated with Congenital Rubella Syndrome
PDA
175
CHD associated with continuous machine-like murmur
PDA
176
CHD that needs indomethacin to close and PGEl to remain open
PDA
177
CHD associated with Turner Syndrome
178
Most common CHD associated with Trisomy 21
179
CHD associated with offspring of diabetic mother
180
CHD assoc with CXR showing boot-shaped heart (Coeur en Sabot);
181
4 components of TOF
182
CHD with CXR showing egg-shaped silhouette or egg-on-its-side appearance
183
most common cause of myocardial ischemia
atherosclerotic dse of an epicardial coronary artery
184
Most common cause of nontraumatic chest discomfort
GI disorder
184
Blood flow through the coronary arteries occur during diastole
| True or False
True
185
artery that is the Major site of atherosclerotic disease
epicardial coronary arteries
186
Blood flow at rest may be reduced when a stenosis reduces the diameter of an epicardial artery by how many percent
about 80%
187
5 Major features of metabolic syndrome
* Central obesity
* Hyperglycemia
* Hypertriglyceridemia
* Hypertension
* Low HDL cholesterol
188
First choice drug class to lower LDL cholesterol in patients with metabolic syndrome
statins
189
Key feature of the metabolic syndrome
central adiposity
190
Most accepted & unifying hypothesis to describe pathophysiology of metabolic syndrome
insulin resistance
191
Driving force behind the metabolic syndrome
obesity
192
Primary approach to metabolic syndrome
Weight reduction (caloric restriction: most important component, whereas increases in physical activity are important for maintenance of weight loss)
193
Drug of choice to lower fasting TG
Fibrates
194
Only currently available drug with predictable HDL raising properties
Nicotinic acid
195
Among patients with NSTE-ACSstudied at angiography, most have 3 vessel disease.
| True or False
True
196
Time frame for reversible damage in myocardium ( for total occlusion in the absence of collaterals)
less than or equal to 20 mins
197
Route of administration where absorption of nitrates is most rapid and complete
sublingual
198
Most common etiology of coronary thrombosis
plaque rupture
199
Only absolute contraindications to nitrate use (2)
* Hypotension or
* the recent use of a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE·S) inhibitor, sildenafil or vardenafil (within 24 h), or tadalafil (within 48 h).
200
Most important adverse effectof all antithrombotic agents
excessvie bleeding
201
Diagnostic hallmark of Prinzmetal variant angina
transient coronary spasm
202
Main therapeutic agents for Prinzmetal angina (2)
* nitrates
* CCBs
203
In Prinzmetal variant angina, this drug may increase the severity of ischemic episodes, possibly as a result of the sensitivity of coronary tone to modest changes in the synthesis of prostacyclin
Aspirin
204
Pivotal diagnostic and triage tool for patients with prolonged ischemic discomfort
ECG
205
This lab test Distinguishes UA from NSTEMI
serum cardiac biomarkers
205
Most common presenting complaint in STEMI patients
chest pain
206
the pain of STEMI may radiate as high as the ____area but not below the ____.
the pain of STEMI may radiate as high as the **occipital area** but not below the **umbilicus**
206
Distinguishing feature that suggests pericarditis rather than STEMI
Radiation of discomfort to the trapezius
207
The proportion of painless STEMls is greater in what patient population (2)
* DM patients
* elderly
208
Within the first hour of STEMI about one fourth of patients with anterior infarction have these signs/symptoms (2)
209
Within the first hour of STEMI, up to one-half of patients with inferior infarction have these signs/symptoms (2)
210
Fibrinous Pericarditis (bread & butter pericarditis) post*MI is also known as what syndrome
Dressler syndrome
211
Most common site of myocardial rupture
Free wall > IVS > Papillary muscle
(decreasing order of frequency)
212
Preferred biochemical markers for Ml
Trop I and Trop T
213
When the ECG is not diagnostic of STEM!,what diagnostic test can aid in the management decision?
Echocardiography showing early detection of the presence absence of wall motion abnormalities
214
Primary cause of out-of-hospital deaths from STEMI
vs
Primary cause of in-hospital deaths from STEMI
215
most common clinical signs of pump failure (2)
* Pulmonary rales and
* S3 and S4 gallop sounds
216
part of the goal of STEMI management..
transfer from a non-PCI hospital to one that is PCI capable, with a goal of initiating PCI within ____ min of first medical contact (FMC-device time)
transfer from a non-PCI hospital to one that is PCI capable, with a goal of initiating PCI **within 120 min** of first medical contact (FMC-device time)
217
FMC-device time if a STEMI patient who is a candidate for reperfusion was initally seen at a PCl-capable hospital
FMC-device time less than or equal to **90 min**
218
Drugs that should be avoided in patients with STEMI because they can impair infarct healing and increase the risk of myocardial rupture (2)
* steroids
* NSAIDS (Except aspirin)
219
in STEMI, the Greatest delay usually occurs between Onset of pain and the patient's decision to call for help...
| True or False
True
220
Principal goal of fibrinolysis
Prompt restoration of full coronary arterial patency
221
Door-to- needle time in ACS
less than or equal to 30 min;
fibrinolytic therapy should ideally be initiated within 30 min of presentation
222
Most frequent and potentially the most serious complication of fibrinolysis
Hemorrhage (Hemorrhagic stroke: Most serious complication)
223
Standard antiplatelet agent for STEMI
aspirin
224
Standard anticoagulant agent for STEMI
UFH
225
Extent of LV involvement that usually results in cardiogenic shock (how many percent infarcted )
infarction greater than or equal to 40%
226
type of necrosis in STEMI
"piecemeal" necrosis
227
Usual duration of hospitalization for an uncomplicated STEMI (how many days)
228
in uncomplicated STEMI, during the first ____ weeks the patient should be encouraged to increase activity by walking about the house and outdoors in good weather
229
After ____ weeks, the physician must regulate the patient's activity on the basis of exercise tolerance (in uncomplicated STEMI)
230
Most patients will be able to return to work within ____weeks (in uncomplicated STEMI)
231
Most common complication of angioplasty
Restenosis, or re narrowing of the dilated coronary stenosis
232
Most common cause of death in hypertensive patients
vs
Second most frequent cause of death in the world
heart disease
vs
stroke
233
Primary mechanism for rapid buffering of acute fluctuations of arterial pressure that may occur during postural changes, behavioral or physiologic stress, and changes in blood volume
Arterial baroreflex mediated by stretch-sensitive sensory nerve endings in the carotid sinuses and the aortic arch.
233
Most common cause of secondary hypertension
primary renal disease
234
Classic symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD
intermittent claudication
235
ABI cut off diagnostic of PAD and associated with >50% stenosis in at least one major lower limb vessel
236
AB! cut off associated with elevated BP, particularly systolic BP
237
Time of the day where myocardial infarction and stroke are more frequent
early morning hours
238
Gold standard for evaluation and identification of renal artery lesions
contrast arteriography
239
Most common congenital cardiovascular cause of hvoertension
CoA
240
Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension...
BMI should be...
241
Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension...
Sodium intake should be
242
Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension...
alcohol drink in men vs women
243
Single most effective intervention for slowing the rate of progression of hypertension-related for slowing the rate of CKD
HTN control
244
Other name for Streptococcus pyogenes
Group A Beta-Hemolytic Strep (GABHS)
Group A is based on Lancefield classification
245
Infection that precedes RF
Streptococcal pharyngitis
246
Tests to document history of antecedent RF (2)
Anti-streptolysin titers O (ASO) and
anti-DNase B (ADB)
247
Mechanism of damage in RF
Type II hypersensitivity
248
Signs and symptoms of Rheumatic Fever (JONES..)
* Polyarthritis,
* Carditis,
* Subcutaneous Nodules,
* Erythema Marginatum,
* Syndenham Chorea
249
Most common clinical features of rheumatic fever (2)
* Polyarthritis (60-75%)
* Carditis (50-60%)
250
This symptom commonly occurs in the absence of other manifestations RF and is found mainly in females
sydenham chorea
251
Hallmark of rheumatic carditis
valvular damage
252
Characteristic manifestation of carditis in previoulsy unaffected individuals
mitral regurgitation
253
Pathologic lesion in Rheumatic fever
**Aschoff Bodies**: granuloma with giant cells (Anitschkow cells): enlarged macrophages with ovoid, wavy, rod-like nucleus
254
classic rash of ARF
erythema marginatum
255
Most common disease condition associated with degenerative aortic aneurysms
atherosclerosis
256
Location of 90% of syphilitic aneurysms
Ascending aorta or aortic arch
257
Typical location of Tuberculous Aneurysms
thoracic aorta
258
Location of Aneurysms associated with Takayasu's Arteritis (2)
Aneurysms of the aortic arch and descending thoracic aorta
259
Most common pathology associated with ascending aortic aneurysms
medial degeneration
260
Disease Most frequently associated with aneurysms of the descending thoracic aorta.
atherosclerosis
261
First test that suggests the diagnosis of a thoracic aortic aneurysm
Chest X-Ray (findings: Widened Mediastinum and displacement or compression of the trachea or left main stem bronchus)
262
Symptom of aortic aneurysm that is Harbinger of rupture and represents a medical emergency
Aneurysmal pain
263
Description of pain of aortic dissection
Sudden onset of pain, very severe and tearing and is associated with diaphoresis
264
Usual location of aortic dissection
Right lateral wall of the ascending aorta
265
Pathology ofTakayasu's Arteritis
Panarteritis
266
Pathology of Giant Cell Arteritis vs Takayasu
Focal granulomatous lesions involving the entire arterial wall
Vs
Panarteritis
267
Initial lesion of Syphilitic Aortitis
Obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum, especially in the adventitia
268
Buerger's Disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans) has a definite relationship with what risk factor...
cigarette smoking
269
In chronic venous disease, graduated compression stockings are recommended with pressures of
* 20-30 mmHg · suitable for most patients with simple varicose veins
* 30-40 mmHg * may be required for patients with manifestations of venous insufficiency such as edema and ulcers
270
Most common cause of secondary lymphedema
filariasis
271
Most important initial screening test for pulmonary HPN
vs
Gold standard for diagnosis and assessement of disease severity of Pulmonary Hypertension
Echocardiogram with bubble study
vs
Invasive hemodynamic monitoring
272
273
