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00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES > CARDIO > Flashcards

CARDIO Flashcards

1
Q

longest phase ofthe cardiac cycle

A
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2
Q

phase of the cardiac cycle that is Preceded by P-wave, atrial pressure increases, a wave seen in venous pulse curve.

A
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3
Q

phase of the cardiac cycle..

  • Begins during the QRS complex, c wave seen in atrial pressure curve
  • Period between aortic valve opening and mitral valve closing
A
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4
Q

Phase of the cardiac cycle
* Ventricular pressure reaches its maximum value during this phase.
* C wave on venous pulse curve occurs because of bulging oftricuspid valve into right atrium during right ventricular contraction.

A
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5
Q

Phase of the cardiac cycle:
* Ejection of blood from the ventricle continues, but is slower.
* Ventricular pressure begins to decrease.

A
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6
Q

Phase of the cardiac cycle :
* Repolarization of the ventricles is now complete (end of the T wave).
* The aortic valve closes, followed by closure of the pulmonic valve.
* Closure of the semilunar valves corresponds to the second heart sound.
* Period between aortic valve closing and mitral valve opening

A
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7
Q

Phase of the cardiac cycle :
* When ventricular pressure becomes less than atrial pressure, the mitral valve opens.

A
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8
Q

Phase of the cardiac cycle:
* Ventricular filling continues, but at a slower rate.
* Occurs before mitral valve opening

A
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9
Q

Blood Pressure= Cardiac Output x Total Peripheral Resistance

True or False

A

True

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10
Q

Cardiac output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

True or False

A

True

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11
Q

TPR is synonymous with Systemic Vascular Resistance and is determined by functional and anatomic chanaes in small arteries (lumen diameter 100·400 um) and arterioles

True or False

A

True

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12
Q

Pulse Pressure= Systolic BP minus diastolic BP

True or False

A

true

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13
Q

Pulse Pressure is a marker that correlates with WHAT

A

Pulse Pressure is a marker that correlates with stroke volume

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14
Q

what law has this formula

A

Poiseuille Law

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15
Q

How to elicit abdominojugular reflex

A
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16
Q

What does POSITIVE abdominojugular reflex mean

A
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17
Q

Blowing holosystolic murmur of Tricuspid Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration

A

Carvallo sign

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18
Q

Carvallo sign is Blowing holosystolic murmur of mitral Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration

True or False

A

False… kasi dapat…

Blowing holosystolic murmur of Tricuspid Regurgitation along the lower left sternal margin which may be intensified during inspiration

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19
Q

what murmur

A

Graham Steel Murmur

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20
Q

Condition where the murmur of aortic stenosis may be transmitted downward and to the apex and may be confused with the systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation

A

Gallavardin effect

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21
Q

A rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in aortic regurgitation

A

Corrigan pulse

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22
Q

Corrigan pulse is a rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in MITRAL STENOSIS.

True or False

A

False.. kasi dapat…

Corrigan pulse is rapidly rising “water-hammer” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole, seen in aortic regurgitation

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23
Q

Capillary pulsations manifest as alternate flushing and paling of the skin while pressure is applied to the tip of the nail, seen in aortic regurgitation

A

Quincke pulse

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24
Q

A booming “pistol-shot” sound heard over the femoral arteries, seen in aortic regurgitation

A

Traube sign

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25
Q

Term for this sign…

Normally there are only venous pulsations visible on the ocular fundus. In aortic regurgitation, retinal arterial pulsations are visible

A

Becker sign

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26
Q

Term for this sign…

Systolic pulsations of the uvula in aortic regurgitation

A

Muller sign

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27
Q

Term for this sign…

To-and-fro murmur audible if the femoral artery is lightly compressed with a stethoscope, seen in aortic regurgitation

A

Duroziez Sign

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28
Q

Term for this sign…

Apical pulse is reduced and may retract in systole in constrictive pericarditis

A

Broadbent sign

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29
Q

This ECG finding is a major noninvasive marker of increased CV morbidity/ mortality risk

A

LVH

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30
Q

Most widely used test for the diagnosis of IHD

A

12-lead ECGbefore, during, and after
exercise, usually on a treadmill

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31
Q

The hallmark of myocardial ischemia during stress echocardiography

A

New regional wall motion abnormalities and reduced systolic wall thickening

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32
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for assessment of small lesions in the heart such as valvular vegetations

A

Transesophageal echocardiography

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33
Q

Main method for clinical assessment of diastolic function

A

echocardiography

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34
Q

Hemoglobin A1C of diastolic function

A

Left atrial size (because left atrial enlargement reflects long-standing increase in left-sided filling pressures)

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35
Q

Gold standard for assessing LV mass & volumes

A

MRI

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36
Q

Main method to assess systolic function

A

Assessment of ejection fraction (subtract end-systolic volume from end-diastolic volume and divide by end-diastolic volume)

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37
Q

Formula for ejection fraction

A

subtract end-systolic volume from end-diastolic volume and divide by end-diastolic volume

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38
Q

Gold standard in assessing the anatomy & physiology of the heart & associated vasculature

A

Diagnostic cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography

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39
Q

WHAT LAB FINDING:
* Independent risk factor for IHD
* May be useful in therapeutic decision-making about the initiation of hypolipidemic treatment

A

Elevated level of high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (CRP) (specifically, between Oand 3 mg/dL)

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40
Q

Triad specific for pericardial effusion (ecg findings)

A
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41
Q

Diagnostic Triad of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) ECG Pattern

A
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42
Q

Three principal features of tamponade (Beck Triad)

A
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43
Q

3 Major determinants of myocardial 02 demand (MV02)

A
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44
Q

Triad of Buerger disease

A
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45
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A
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46
Q

3 beta blockers for HF

A
  • carvedilol
  • bisoprolol
  • metoprolol succinate
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47
Q

7 drug classes that can improve HF symptoms
vs
5 drug classes that can prolong survival in HF

A
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48
Q

Class IA antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)

A
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49
Q

Class IB antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)

A
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50
Q

Class IC antiarrhthymic drugs examples (3)

A
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51
Q

Class II antiarrhthymic drugs examples (2)

A
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52
Q

Class III antiarrhthymic drugs examples (4)

A
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53
Q

Class IV antiarrhthymic drugs examples (2)

A
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54
Q

Class IA antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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55
Q

Class IB antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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56
Q

Class IC antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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57
Q

Class II antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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58
Q

Class III antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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59
Q

Class IV antiarrhthymic drugs MOA

A
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60
Q

Amiodarone is lipophilic and has class I, II, III,and IVeffects

True or False

A

True

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61
Q

anti HTN drug class that causes Na excretion and reduction in blood volume

A
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62
Q

Calcium Channel Blocker that exerts more effect on the vessels than the heart

A
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63
Q

Calcium Channel Blocker that exerts more effect on the heart than the vessels

A
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64
Q

anti HTN drug class that Decreases the work load of the heart

A
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65
Q

anti HTN drug class that Blocks the ATl receptor of angiotensin II

A
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66
Q

anti HTN drug class that is Notorious for drug-induced cough by increasing bradykinin

A
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67
Q

anti HTN drug class that Blocks aldosterone action in the collecting tubules

A
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68
Q

anti HTN drug class for patients with Hypertension with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

A
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69
Q

Most commonly used drug to acutely manage severe hypertension preeclampsia (2)

A
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70
Q

phases of the cardiac action potential (5)

A
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71
Q

phases of the SA node potential (3)

A
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72
Q

master pacemaker of the heart

A

SA Node

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73
Q
A

Chronotropic incompetence

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74
Q

in chronotropic incompetence…
px is unable to achieve ____% of predicted maximal heart rate at peak exercise

A
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75
Q

in chronotropic incompetence…
px unable to achieve a heart rate >____beats/min with exercise

A
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76
Q

the only electrical connection between the atria and ventricles

A

AV node

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77
Q

Most common arrhythmia mechanism

A

re-entry

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78
Q

Most reliable treatment for patients with symptomatic AV conduction system disease in the absence of extrinsic and reversible etiologies

A

Temporary or permanent artificial pacing

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79
Q

Most expeditious technique in the management of AVconduction block

A

transcutaneous pacing

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80
Q

Most common sustained arrhythmia

A

Afib

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81
Q

differentiate Mobitz type I vs II

A
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82
Q

Ventricular tachycardia that terminates spontaneously within 30 s

A

Non-sustained VT

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83
Q

Sustained VT persists for >30 s or is terminated by an active intervention, such as administration of an intravenous medication, external cardioversion, or pacing or a shock from an implanted cardioverter defibrillator

True or False

A

True

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84
Q

Underlies the majority of sudden cardiac death

A

CAD

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85
Q

This drug class abolishes ventricular ectopic activity in patients with STEMI and in the prevention of ventricular fibrillation

A

beta blockers

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86
Q

Causes of HF in men and women in industrialized countries responsible for 60-75% of cases (2)

A

Coronary Artery Disease and Hypertension (contributes to the development of HF in 75% of patients)

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87
Q

Most useful index of LV function

A

EF

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87
Q

Single most important bedside measurement to estimate volume status

A

JVP

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88
Q

Cardinal symptoms of HF (2)

A

fatigue and SOB

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89
Q

most important mechanism of dyspnea in HF

A

Pulmonary congestion with accumulation of interstitial or intra-alveolar fluid, which activates iuxtacapillary J receptors

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90
Q

this symptoms Results from redistribution of fluid from the splanchnic circulation and lower extremities into the central circulation during recumbency, with a resultant increase in pulmonary capillary pressure

A

orthopnea

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91
Q

this symptom is Caused by increased pressure in the bronchial arteries leading to airway compression, along with interstitial pulmonary edema that leads to increased airway resistance

A

PND

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92
Q

Cornerstone of pharmacotherapy for HF with reduced EF (2)

A

RAAS inhibitors and Beta blockers

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93
Q

HF drug that has shown a survival benefit in a large trial versus ARB alone

A

ARNI

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94
Q

Most common symptom of cor pulmonale

A

dyspnea

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95
Q

Systolic murmurs are murmurs that always signify structural heart disease

True or False

A

False… kasi dapat..

DIASTOLIC murmurs

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96
Q

WHAT MURMUR:
* Opening Snap followed by a low-pitched, rumbling, diastolic murmur, heard best at the apex with the patient in the left lateral recumbent position

A

mitral stenosis

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97
Q

Leading cause of Mitral stenosis

A

rheumatic fever

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98
Q

WHAt MURMUR:
* Pansystolic murmur;
* may be due to Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)

A

mitral regurgitation

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99
Q

Papillary muscle involved more frequently in acute MR (with acute Ml) because of single blood supply

A

posteromedial papillary muscle

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100
Q

Freauent finding on auscultation in MVP

A

Mid- or late (non-ejection) systolic click

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101
Q

Most common ECG finding in MVP

A

normal

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102
Q

Most common congenital heart valve defect

A

bicuspid aortic valve disease

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103
Q

Three cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis

A
  • Syncope,
  • Angina pectoris,
  • Exertional dyspnea
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104
Q

WHAT VALVULAR HEART DSE:
* IE In IV Drug Abusers,
* marked hepatomegaly with systolic pulsations, ascites, pleural effusions, edema,
* and a positive hepatojugular reflux sign ,
* giant C-V Wave in Jugular Venous Pulses

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

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105
Q

Most common valvular heart disease in patients with Carcinoid heart disease

A

triscuspid insufficiency

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106
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
pathophysiology

A
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107
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
value of LV ejection fraction

A
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108
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
LV diastolic diameter

A
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109
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
LV wall thickness

A
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110
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
atrial size

A
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111
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
cause of valvular regurgitation

A
112
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
common first symptoms

A
113
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of cardiomyopathies in terms of :
congestive symptoms… ano ba nauuna.. right or left congestive stymptoms kineme…

A
114
Q

viruses usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A

dilated CM

115
Q

peripartum usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
116
Q

alcohol use usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
117
Q

cocaine usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
118
Q

chemotherapy usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
119
Q

amyloidosis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
120
Q

Loeffler’s endocarditis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
121
Q

Endomyocardial fibrosis usually cause what type of cardiomyopathy

A
122
Q

Most common cardiomyopathy found at autopsy in young competitive athletes who experience sudden cardiac arrest (SCA)

A
123
Q

typical clinical picture of myocarditis

A

Young to middle-aged adult who develops progressive dyspnea and weakness within a few days to weeks after a viral syndrome that was accompanied bv fever and myalgias.

124
Q

Third most common parasitic infection in the world and the most common infective cause of cardiomyopathy; a cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Chaga’s disease

125
Q

How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?

A

bite of Reduviid bug

126
Q

Time frame of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy

A

Last trimester or within the first 6 months after pregnancy

127
Q

Most common toxin in chronic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

alcohol

128
Q

Most common drugs implicated in toxic cardiomyopathy

A

chemotherapy

129
Q

Apical ballooning syndrome is also known as

A

Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy

130
Q

Most common cause of thyroid abnormalities in the cardiac population

A

Treatment of tachyarrhythmias with amiodarone

131
Q

Main cause of sudden death in the young and important cause of heart failure

A

HCM

132
Q

Histologic changes associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (3)

A
  • Misaligned and disarrayed enlarged myofibrils and myocytes;
  • fibrosis and microvascular disease;
  • and Interstitial fibrosis
133
Q

Common first symptoms of HCM

A

Exertional intolerance; may have chest pain

134
Q

Classic finding on the echocardiogram of HCM

A

Systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve

135
Q

First-line agents ( 2 drug classes) that reduce the severity of obstruction by slowing heart rate, enhancing diastolic filling. and decreasing contractilitv in HCM

A
  • B blockers
  • L-type CCBs (Verapamil)
136
Q

What is Kussmaul’s sign

A

rise or a lack of fall of the JVP with inspiration, classically associated with constrictive pericarditis

137
Q

3 other differentials for cardiac tamponade

A
138
Q

pulsus paradoxus is present in cardiac tamponade vs contrictive pericardits vs restrictive CMP vs RV myocardial infarction….. but is most prominent in….

A

cardiac tamponade

139
Q

which of the following is y-descent NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
140
Q

which of the following is Kussmaul sign NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
141
Q

which of the following is 3rd heart sound present (2)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
142
Q

which of the following is pericardial knock only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
143
Q

which of the following is low ECG voltage NOT seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
144
Q

which of the following is electrical alternans ONLY seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
145
Q

which of the following is thickend pericardium only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* constrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
146
Q

which of the following is pericardial effusion only seen (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
147
Q

which of the following is RV size usually small (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
148
Q

which of the following is RV size usually enlarged (1)
* cardiac tamponade
* contrictive pericardits
* restrictive CMP
* RV myocardial infarction

A
149
Q

Most common pathologic process involving the pericardium

A

acute pericarditis

150
Q

Characteristic pain in pericarditis

A
  • Worsened by lying supine,
  • relieved by sitting up and leaning forward
151
Q

Pericardial friction rub in acute pericarditis is heard most frequently when assuming what position…

A

End-expiration with patient upright and leaning forward

152
Q

Four stages of evolution of the ECG in acute pericarditis

A
153
Q

2 most common causes of cardiac tamponade

A
154
Q

Important clue to the presence of cardiac tamponade consisting of a greater than normal (10 mmHg) inspiratory decline in systolic arterial pressure

A

pulsus paradoxus

155
Q

Most common causes of bloody pericardial fluid (3)

A
  • Neoplasm
  • Renal failure
  • After cardiac injury
156
Q

Most common causes of pericarditis due to neoplastic disease

A
157
Q

Basic physiologic abnormality in chronic constrictive pericarditis

A

Inability of ventricles to fill because of limitations imposed by the rigid, thickened pericardium

158
Q

Most prominent deflection in constrictive pericarditis (absent/ diminished in tamponade)

A

y descent

159
Q

The only definitive treatment of constrictive pericarditis

A

pericardial resection

160
Q

Most common primary sites from which cardiac metastases originate (2)

A

Carcinoma of the breast and lung

161
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

Myxomas (90% are sporadic)

162
Q

Most common tumors of the cardiac valves

A

Papillary Fibroelastomas

163
Q

Most common cardiac tumors in infants and children (2)

A

Rhabdomyomas and fibromas

164
Q

Almost all primary cardiac malignancies are sarcomas. True or False

A

True

165
Q

layer of the heart that is most often involved in metastasis to the heart

A

Pericardium > Myocardium > Endocardium or Cardiac Valves

166
Q

imaging modality that has Central role in the diagnostic evaluation of cardiac metastases and cardiac tumors

A

cardiac MRI

167
Q

Most common congenital anomaly recognized at birth

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

168
Q

Most common location of VSD

A

membranous septum

169
Q

Most common type of ASD

A

secundum ASD

170
Q

Examples of Cyanotic CHDs (R-to-L shunt). Give 5

A
171
Q

Most common form of cyanotic CHD

A

TOF

172
Q

Acyanotic CHDs (L to R shunt).
Give 3

A
  • ASD
  • VSD
  • PDA
173
Q

Term for Conversion of an initial L to R shunt into a R to L shunt

A

Eisenmengerization

174
Q

CHD associated with Congenital Rubella Syndrome

A

PDA

175
Q

CHD associated with continuous machine-like murmur

A

PDA

176
Q

CHD that needs indomethacin to close and PGEl to remain open

A

PDA

177
Q

CHD associated with Turner Syndrome

A
178
Q

Most common CHD associated with Trisomy 21

A
179
Q

CHD associated with offspring of diabetic mother

A
180
Q

CHD assoc with CXR showing boot-shaped heart (Coeur en Sabot);

A
181
Q

4 components of TOF

A
182
Q

CHD with CXR showing egg-shaped silhouette or egg-on-its-side appearance

A
183
Q

most common cause of myocardial ischemia

A

atherosclerotic dse of an epicardial coronary artery

184
Q

Most common cause of nontraumatic chest discomfort

A

GI disorder

184
Q

Blood flow through the coronary arteries occur during diastole

True or False

A

True

185
Q

artery that is the Major site of atherosclerotic disease

A

epicardial coronary arteries

186
Q

Blood flow at rest may be reduced when a stenosis reduces the diameter of an epicardial artery by how many percent

A

about 80%

187
Q

5 Major features of metabolic syndrome

A
  • Central obesity
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypertriglyceridemia
  • Hypertension
  • Low HDL cholesterol
188
Q

First choice drug class to lower LDL cholesterol in patients with metabolic syndrome

A

statins

189
Q

Key feature of the metabolic syndrome

A

central adiposity

190
Q

Most accepted & unifying hypothesis to describe pathophysiology of metabolic syndrome

A

insulin resistance

191
Q

Driving force behind the metabolic syndrome

A

obesity

192
Q

Primary approach to metabolic syndrome

A

Weight reduction (caloric restriction: most important component, whereas increases in physical activity are important for maintenance of weight loss)

193
Q

Drug of choice to lower fasting TG

A

Fibrates

194
Q

Only currently available drug with predictable HDL raising properties

A

Nicotinic acid

195
Q

Among patients with NSTE-ACSstudied at angiography, most have 3 vessel disease.

True or False

A

True

196
Q

Time frame for reversible damage in myocardium ( for total occlusion in the absence of collaterals)

A

less than or equal to 20 mins

197
Q

Route of administration where absorption of nitrates is most rapid and complete

A

sublingual

198
Q

Most common etiology of coronary thrombosis

A

plaque rupture

199
Q

Only absolute contraindications to nitrate use (2)

A
  • Hypotension or
  • the recent use of a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE·S) inhibitor, sildenafil or vardenafil (within 24 h), or tadalafil (within 48 h).
200
Q

Most important adverse effectof all antithrombotic agents

A

excessvie bleeding

201
Q

Diagnostic hallmark of Prinzmetal variant angina

A

transient coronary spasm

202
Q

Main therapeutic agents for Prinzmetal angina (2)

A
  • nitrates
  • CCBs
203
Q

In Prinzmetal variant angina, this drug may increase the severity of ischemic episodes, possibly as a result of the sensitivity of coronary tone to modest changes in the synthesis of prostacyclin

A

Aspirin

204
Q

Pivotal diagnostic and triage tool for patients with prolonged ischemic discomfort

A

ECG

205
Q

This lab test Distinguishes UA from NSTEMI

A

serum cardiac biomarkers

205
Q

Most common presenting complaint in STEMI patients

A

chest pain

206
Q

the pain of STEMI may radiate as high as the ____area but not below the ____.

A

the pain of STEMI may radiate as high as the occipital area but not below the umbilicus

206
Q

Distinguishing feature that suggests pericarditis rather than STEMI

A

Radiation of discomfort to the trapezius

207
Q

The proportion of painless STEMls is greater in what patient population (2)

A
  • DM patients
  • elderly
208
Q

Within the first hour of STEMI about one fourth of patients with anterior infarction have these signs/symptoms (2)

A
209
Q

Within the first hour of STEMI, up to one-half of patients with inferior infarction have these signs/symptoms (2)

A
210
Q

Fibrinous Pericarditis (bread & butter pericarditis) post*MI is also known as what syndrome

A

Dressler syndrome

211
Q

Most common site of myocardial rupture

A

Free wall > IVS > Papillary muscle
(decreasing order of frequency)

212
Q

Preferred biochemical markers for Ml

A

Trop I and Trop T

213
Q

When the ECG is not diagnostic of STEM!,what diagnostic test can aid in the management decision?

A

Echocardiography showing early detection of the presence absence of wall motion abnormalities

214
Q

Primary cause of out-of-hospital deaths from STEMI

vs

Primary cause of in-hospital deaths from STEMI

A
215
Q

most common clinical signs of pump failure (2)

A
  • Pulmonary rales and
  • S3 and S4 gallop sounds
216
Q

part of the goal of STEMI management..
transfer from a non-PCI hospital to one that is PCI capable, with a goal of initiating PCI within ____ min of first medical contact (FMC-device time)

A

transfer from a non-PCI hospital to one that is PCI capable, with a goal of initiating PCI within 120 min of first medical contact (FMC-device time)

217
Q

FMC-device time if a STEMI patient who is a candidate for reperfusion was initally seen at a PCl-capable hospital

A

FMC-device time less than or equal to 90 min

218
Q

Drugs that should be avoided in patients with STEMI because they can impair infarct healing and increase the risk of myocardial rupture (2)

A
  • steroids
  • NSAIDS (Except aspirin)
219
Q

in STEMI, the Greatest delay usually occurs between Onset of pain and the patient’s decision to call for help…

True or False

A

True

220
Q

Principal goal of fibrinolysis

A

Prompt restoration of full coronary arterial patency

221
Q

Door-to- needle time in ACS

A

less than or equal to 30 min;
fibrinolytic therapy should ideally be initiated within 30 min of presentation

222
Q

Most frequent and potentially the most serious complication of fibrinolysis

A

Hemorrhage (Hemorrhagic stroke: Most serious complication)

223
Q

Standard antiplatelet agent for STEMI

A

aspirin

224
Q

Standard anticoagulant agent for STEMI

A

UFH

225
Q

Extent of LV involvement that usually results in cardiogenic shock (how many percent infarcted )

A

infarction greater than or equal to 40%

226
Q

type of necrosis in STEMI

A

“piecemeal” necrosis

227
Q

Usual duration of hospitalization for an uncomplicated STEMI (how many days)

A
228
Q

in uncomplicated STEMI, during the first ____ weeks the patient should be encouraged to increase activity by walking about the house and outdoors in good weather

A
229
Q

After ____ weeks, the physician must regulate the patient’s activity on the basis of exercise tolerance (in uncomplicated STEMI)

A
230
Q

Most patients will be able to return to work within ____weeks (in uncomplicated STEMI)

A
231
Q

Most common complication of angioplasty

A

Restenosis, or re narrowing of the dilated coronary stenosis

232
Q

Most common cause of death in hypertensive patients

vs

Second most frequent cause of death in the world

A

heart disease

vs

stroke

233
Q

Primary mechanism for rapid buffering of acute fluctuations of arterial pressure that may occur during postural changes, behavioral or physiologic stress, and changes in blood volume

A

Arterial baroreflex mediated by stretch-sensitive sensory nerve endings in the carotid sinuses and the aortic arch.

233
Q

Most common cause of secondary hypertension

A

primary renal disease

234
Q

Classic symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD

A

intermittent claudication

235
Q

ABI cut off diagnostic of PAD and associated with >50% stenosis in at least one major lower limb vessel

A
236
Q

AB! cut off associated with elevated BP, particularly systolic BP

A
237
Q

Time of the day where myocardial infarction and stroke are more frequent

A

early morning hours

238
Q

Gold standard for evaluation and identification of renal artery lesions

A

contrast arteriography

239
Q

Most common congenital cardiovascular cause of hvoertension

A

CoA

240
Q

Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension…
BMI should be…

A
241
Q

Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension…
Sodium intake should be

A
242
Q

Lifestyle modifications to manage Hypertension…
alcohol drink in men vs women

A
243
Q

Single most effective intervention for slowing the rate of progression of hypertension-related for slowing the rate of CKD

A

HTN control

244
Q

Other name for Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Group A Beta-Hemolytic Strep (GABHS)
Group A is based on Lancefield classification

245
Q

Infection that precedes RF

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis

246
Q

Tests to document history of antecedent RF (2)

A

Anti-streptolysin titers O (ASO) and
anti-DNase B (ADB)

247
Q

Mechanism of damage in RF

A

Type II hypersensitivity

248
Q

Signs and symptoms of Rheumatic Fever (JONES..)

A
  • Polyarthritis,
  • Carditis,
  • Subcutaneous Nodules,
  • Erythema Marginatum,
  • Syndenham Chorea
249
Q

Most common clinical features of rheumatic fever (2)

A
  • Polyarthritis (60-75%)
  • Carditis (50-60%)
250
Q

This symptom commonly occurs in the absence of other manifestations RF and is found mainly in females

A

sydenham chorea

251
Q

Hallmark of rheumatic carditis

A

valvular damage

252
Q

Characteristic manifestation of carditis in previoulsy unaffected individuals

A

mitral regurgitation

253
Q

Pathologic lesion in Rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff Bodies: granuloma with giant cells (Anitschkow cells): enlarged macrophages with ovoid, wavy, rod-like nucleus

254
Q

classic rash of ARF

A

erythema marginatum

255
Q

Most common disease condition associated with degenerative aortic aneurysms

A

atherosclerosis

256
Q

Location of 90% of syphilitic aneurysms

A

Ascending aorta or aortic arch

257
Q

Typical location of Tuberculous Aneurysms

A

thoracic aorta

258
Q

Location of Aneurysms associated with Takayasu’s Arteritis (2)

A

Aneurysms of the aortic arch and descending thoracic aorta

259
Q

Most common pathology associated with ascending aortic aneurysms

A

medial degeneration

260
Q

Disease Most frequently associated with aneurysms of the descending thoracic aorta.

A

atherosclerosis

261
Q

First test that suggests the diagnosis of a thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

Chest X-Ray (findings: Widened Mediastinum and displacement or compression of the trachea or left main stem bronchus)

262
Q

Symptom of aortic aneurysm that is Harbinger of rupture and represents a medical emergency

A

Aneurysmal pain

263
Q

Description of pain of aortic dissection

A

Sudden onset of pain, very severe and tearing and is associated with diaphoresis

264
Q

Usual location of aortic dissection

A

Right lateral wall of the ascending aorta

265
Q

Pathology ofTakayasu’s Arteritis

A

Panarteritis

266
Q

Pathology of Giant Cell Arteritis vs Takayasu

A

Focal granulomatous lesions involving the entire arterial wall

Vs

Panarteritis

267
Q

Initial lesion of Syphilitic Aortitis

A

Obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum, especially in the adventitia

268
Q

Buerger’s Disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans) has a definite relationship with what risk factor…

A

cigarette smoking

269
Q

In chronic venous disease, graduated compression stockings are recommended with pressures of

A
  • 20-30 mmHg · suitable for most patients with simple varicose veins
  • 30-40 mmHg * may be required for patients with manifestations of venous insufficiency such as edema and ulcers
270
Q

Most common cause of secondary lymphedema

A

filariasis

271
Q

Most important initial screening test for pulmonary HPN

vs

Gold standard for diagnosis and assessement of disease severity of Pulmonary Hypertension

A

Echocardiogram with bubble study

vs

Invasive hemodynamic monitoring

272
Q
A
273
Q
A

00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES (7 decks)

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