IDR Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what do monoamine oxidase inhibitors do

A

inhibit breakdown of neurotransmitters

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2
Q

what are monoamine oxidase inhibitors used in treatment of

A

psychiatric problems

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3
Q

what does methotrexate inhibit

A

DHFR–>folate synthesis–>DNA synthesis

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4
Q

what is methotrexonate used in treatment of

A

cancer chemotherapy

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5
Q

what do ACE inhibitors inhibit

A

angiotensin I–>angiotensin II

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6
Q

what are ACE inhibitors used in treatment of

A

hypertension

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7
Q

what do statins inhibit

A

HMG-CoA reductase

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8
Q

what are statins used in treatment of

A

high cholesterol

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9
Q

what does allopurinol inhibit

A

xanthine oxidase

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10
Q

what is allopurinol used in treatment of

A

hyperuricemia (high uric acid) and prevention of gout

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11
Q

how does viagra work

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase that normally destroys cGMP leads to an increase in cGMP

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12
Q

how are beta lactams named

A

-cillin
-penem
cef-
ceph-

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13
Q

how do beta lactams work

A

inhibit transpeptidase which helps make the cell wall

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14
Q

what are the 3 first generation beta lactams

A

ampicillin
amoxicillin
penicillin

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15
Q

what generation, first or second, are destroyed by beta lactamases

A

first

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16
Q

what are beta lactamases

A

enzymes produced by bacteria to destroy beta lactam antibiotics

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17
Q

what are beta lactamase inhibitors

A

chemicals that block beta lactamases, enabling beta lactam antibiotics to be effective

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18
Q

what drug contain beta lactamase inhibitors

A

clavulanic acid/clavulanate
-bactams (tazobactam, monobactam, sulbactam)

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19
Q

what type of bacteria can you use beta lactams on

A

gram + and -

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20
Q

how does vancomycin (glycopeptide) work

A

binds to Ala-Ala crossbridges, preventing cell wall formation

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21
Q

how does daptomycin (glycopeptide) work

A

disrupts ion gradient in PM

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22
Q

what type of bacteria can you use daptomycin and vancomysin on

A

gram +

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23
Q

why are daptomycin and vancomysin administered through an IV

A

they’re too large

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24
Q

how does polymycin B (colistin) work

A

destroys LPS of gram - cell membrane

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25
Q

what type of bacteria can you use polymycin B (colistin) on

A

gram -

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26
Q

what is an important consideration when using polymycin B (colistin)

A

is is very nephrotoxic

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27
Q

what is the major component of acid fast bacteria

A

mycolic acid

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28
Q

how does isoniazid work

A

stops mycolic acid synthesis

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29
Q

what bacteria can you use isoniazid on

A

acid fast

30
Q

what type of bacteria can you use pyrazidamide on

A

acid fast

31
Q

how does pyrazidamide work

A

disrupts ATP synthesis via aerobic respiration

32
Q

how does metronidazole work

A

it’s reduced by ferredoxin, creating free radical (reactive nitrogen)

33
Q

what bacteria can you use metronidazole on

A

obligate anaerobes (aerobes have catalase which would destroy the free radicals)

34
Q

what is a consideration when taking metronidazole

A

when taken with alcohol can cause flushing, nausea, and high pulse

35
Q

how do sulfa drugs and trimethoprim work

A

disrupt folate synthesis and ultimately DNA

36
Q

what are sulfa drugs and trimethoprim commonly used for? why

A

UTIs
they concentrate in the bladder

37
Q

how do fluoroquinolones work

A

stop bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to bacterial DNA topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and IV
prevents DNA from unwinding upstream of the replication fork, and stops decatenation

38
Q

what suffix is associated with fluoroquinolones

A

-floxacin

39
Q

how does rifampin work

A

binds to RNA polymerase where sigma subunit would bind, inhibiting DNA polymerase

40
Q

how do macrolides work

A

bind to 50s ribosome, stop elongation of translation

41
Q

what suffix is associated with macrolides

A

mostly -mycin

42
Q

what type of bacteria can you use quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid) on

A

gram + (few gram-)

43
Q

how does quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid) work

A

binds to different parts of the 50S ribosome subunit

44
Q

what is an important consideration of quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid)

A

can only be administered through IV

45
Q

how do daunorubicin and doxorubicin work

A

insert between bases and bind directly to DNA sugar phosphate backbone, interfering with DNA topoisomerase II and preventing proper DNA replication

46
Q

in addition to interfering with DNA topoisomerase II, what other effect for doxorubicin have

A

produced a ROS that breaks DNA molecule

47
Q

how does cisplatin work

A

binds 2 guanines causing DNA replication and transcription errors

48
Q

what can cisplatin be used to treat

A

bladder and lung cancer

49
Q

what are doxorubicin and daunorubicin used to treat

A

leukemia

50
Q

how does azidothymidine work

A

it’s incorporated into the genome of HIV by reverse transcriptase
AZT has no 3’ hydroxyl group so no phosphodiester bind can form, stopping replication

51
Q

how does alpha amanitin toxin act

A

binds RNA polymerase II away from the active site, causing a confirmational change, reducing transcriptional activity

52
Q

how does diptheria toxin work

A

inactivates eEF2, inhibiting translation

53
Q

how does streptomycin work

A

binds to 30S, interferes with codon-anticodon binding
inhibits initiation

54
Q

how does tetracycline work

A

binds 16S preventing binding of tRNA to A site
inhibits initiation

55
Q

how does cholramphenicol work

A

competitive inhibitor of peptidyl transferase
interfers with elongation

56
Q

how does erythromycin work

A

binds 50S and blocks exit of polypeptide
inhibits translation

57
Q

how does cyclohexamide toxin work

A

binds E site, preventing exit of tRNA
inhibits translation

58
Q

how does cholera toxin work

A

increased cAMP –> increased efflux of Cl- and Na+–> efflux of water–> vomiting and diarrhea

59
Q

what is the main antibiotic good at crossing the placenta

A

ampicillin

60
Q

what 3 drugs are liver/kidney toxin

A

polymyxin/colistin
isoniazid
amphotericin

61
Q

what antibiotic causes flushing with alcohol

A

metronidazole

62
Q

what antibiotics may cause tendon damage if used in long term

A

fluorquinolones

63
Q

what does ethambutol do

A

inhibit synthesis of lipoarabinomannan

64
Q

what bacteria can you use ethambutol on

A

acid fast

65
Q

what are the side effects of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis–>colorblindness
gout

66
Q

how does Delamanid/Pretomanid work

A

disrupts ATP synthesis

67
Q

how does Bedaquiline work

A

targets ATP synthase

68
Q

delamanid/pretomanid/bedaquiline are used for what type of infection

A

TB

69
Q

what is the main infection you use sulfa+dapsone for

A

leprosy

70
Q

how does dapsone work

A

stops macrophage migration