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idk exam Flashcards

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1
Q

pathogen

A

an organism that causes disease

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2
Q

pathogenicity

A

ability to cause disease

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3
Q

virulence

A

degree of pathogenicity
- virulence factors like capsules, fimbriae, toxin

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4
Q

pathology

A

the study of disease

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5
Q

etiology

A

the study of the cause of a disease

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6
Q

pathogenesis

A

the development of disease

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7
Q

infection

A

growing and multiplying of pathogens in the host

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8
Q

disease

A

an abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally

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9
Q

infection _____ always cause disease

A

doesn’t

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10
Q

primary pathogens

A

have the ability to penetrate host defenses

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11
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

cause disease only in compromised hosts

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12
Q

what can allow in an opportunistic pathogens? (3)

A
  • immune system is defective
  • break in tissue allows organisms to access to new site
  • loss of other microflora allows organisms to bloom
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13
Q

ID50

A

infectious dose for 50% of the test opoulation

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14
Q

LD50

A

lethal dose (of a toxin) for 50% of the test population

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15
Q

which of the following strains most easily causes an infection?

strain A - ID50 = 200
strain B - ID50 = 5000
strain C - ID50 = 50
strain D - ID50 = 500

A

strain c - 50

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16
Q

reservoirs of infection: humans

what infections find their home in humans?

A

AIDS, gonorrhea, other STDs

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17
Q

reservoirs of infection: animal

A

rabies, lyme disease

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18
Q

reservoirs of infection: nonliving

what diseases?

A

botulism, tetanus, anthrax, in soil

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19
Q

portals of entry (3)

A
  • skin
  • mucous membranes (respiratory, digestive, genitourinary tracts)
  • parenteral: injection (tick, mosquito, needle punctures)
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20
Q

transmission of disease: direct

A

requires close association between infected and susceptible host
- touching, kissing, sexual intercourse

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21
Q

transmission of disease: indirect

A

fomites: tissues, towels, bedding, diapers, drinking cups, toys, moeny, etc

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22
Q

transmission of disease: droplet

A

transmission via airborne droplets

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23
Q

transmission of disease: vehicle

A

transmission by an inanimate reservoir like food and water

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24
Q

transmission of disease: vectors

A

arthropods, especially fleas, ticks, and mosquitos

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25
Q

mechanical vectors

A

carry the pathogen on them
- arthropods carry on feet, flies transfer pathogens from feces of infected to food

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26
Q

biological vectors

A

pathogen reproduces in the vector
- like lyme disease

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27
Q

acute disease

A

symptoms develop rapidly

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28
Q

chronic disease

A

disease develops slowly

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29
Q

subacute disease

A

symptoms between acute and chronic

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30
Q

latent disease

A

disease with a period of no symptoms when pathogen is inactive
- herpes aka cold sores

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31
Q

what must all pathogens do to cause disease? (4)

A
  • enter a host
  • find their unique niche
  • avoid, circumvent, or subvert normal host defenses (immune evasion)
  • multiple and eventually be transmitted to a new susceptible host (transmisison)
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32
Q

immune evasion

A

the ability to avoid, circumvent, or subvert normal host defenses

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33
Q

pathogens can be distinguished from their avirulent counterparts by the presence of _____ _____ that help accomplish these goals

A

virulence factors

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34
Q

molecular Koch’s postulates (3)

A
  1. the phenotype under study should be associated with pathogenic strains of a species
  2. specific inactivation of the suspected virulence gene should lead to a measurable loss in virulence or pathogenicity
  3. reversion or replacement of the mutated gene should restore pathogenicity
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35
Q

virulence genes may be found on _____ _____ in the chromosome

A

pathogenicity islands

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36
Q

pathogenicity islands (3)

A
  • section of the genome containing multiple virulence genes
  • often flanked by phage or plasmid genes
  • often have GC content different from the rest of the genome
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37
Q

how does the human body expel invaders? (4)

A
  • mucosa, dead skin constantly expelled
  • liquid expelled from bladder
  • coughing, cilia in lungs
  • expulsion of intestinal contents
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38
Q

bacterial adhesion strategies (2)

A
  • pili (fimbriae): hollow fibrils with tips to bind to host cells
  • adhesins: surface proteins that bind to host cells
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39
Q

how do viruses attach to host cells?

A

using their capsid or envelope proteins to attach to receptors

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40
Q

how do biofilms play an important role in chronic infections?

A

they enable persistent adherence and resistance to bacterial host defenses and antimicrobial agents

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41
Q

virulence factors: toxin

A

substances that contribute to pathogenicity

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42
Q

virulence factors: toxoid

A

inactivated toxin used in a vaccine

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43
Q

virulence factors: antitoxin

A

antibodies against a specific toxin

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44
Q

exotoxtins

A

proteins produced by various types of bacteria to kill hosts and unlock their nutrients

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45
Q

endotoxins

A

part of LPS of gram-negative bacteria that can hyperactivate the host immune systems to harmful levels

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46
Q

exotoxin functional categories (9)

A
  1. plasma membrane disruption
  2. cytoskeleton alterations
  3. protein synthesis disruption
  4. cell cycle disruption
  5. signal transduction disruption
  6. cell-cell adherence
  7. vesicular traffic
  8. inhibit exocytosis
  9. superantigens
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47
Q

hemolysins

A

toxins that lyse red blood cells

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48
Q

leukocidins

A

toxins that lyse white blood cells or leukocytes

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49
Q

alpha toxin of staphylococcus aureus (2)

A
  • classic example of a pore-forming exotoxin
  • forms a transmembrane, seven member pore in target cell membranes
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50
Q

pore forming toxins (2)

A
  • alpha toxin of Staphylococcus aureus
  • listeriolysin O of Listeria monocytogenes
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51
Q

phospholipase toxins

what is the toxin called and what bacteria releases it?

A

phospholipase C of Clostridium perfringens

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52
Q

two subunit AB exotoxins

A

the generally shared structure of exotoxins; A and B subunits, where B is designed to get A (the one that has toxic activity) into the cell

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53
Q

one major subclass of AB exotoxins have ADP-ribosyltransferase activity, meaning….

A

the toxin enzymatically transfers the ADP-ribose group from NAD

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54
Q

cholera toxin

what does it do?

A

colonizes the brush border of the small intestine, and causes the cells to secrete water and NaCl into the intestinal lumen (the opposite of what is normally does) causing diarrhea

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55
Q

diphtheria toxin (2)

what is this a classic example of?

A

classic example of a toxin that targets protein synthesis
- kills cells by ADP-ribosylating eukaryotic protein synthesis elongation factor 2 (eEF-2) blocking ribosome function

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56
Q

Bacillus anthracis plamid-encoded tripartite toxin: name the parts (3)

A
  • protective agent (PA)
  • edema factor (EF)
  • lethal factor (LF)
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57
Q

Bacillus anthracis: protective agent

A

binds membrane receptor and forms a pore

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58
Q

Bacillus anthracis: edema factor

A

raises cAMP levels, causing fluid secretion and tissue swelling

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59
Q

Bacillus anthracis: lethal factor

A

cleaves protein kinases, blocks immune system from attacking

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60
Q

type III secretion

A

uses a molecular syringe to inject proteins from the bacterial cytoplasm directly into the host cell

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61
Q

where is type II secretion found? (3)

A

Salmonella, Yersinia, Shigella

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62
Q

who are endotoxins made by?

A

only gram-negative bacteria

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63
Q

_____ _____ is released as bacteria die

A

Lipid A

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64
Q

what does Lipid A do? (3)

A
  • is a MAMP, which binds to certain TLRs on macrophages or B cells
  • causes massive cytokine release from host cells
  • can trigger fever, shock, and death
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65
Q

survival inside a host: some pathogens use hemolysins to break out of phagosomes (2)

S…L…

A

Shigella dysenteriae
Listeria monocytogenes

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66
Q

survival inside a host: some pathogens secrete proteins to prevent fusion of lysosomes (4)

S.C.M.L.

A

Salmonella
Chlamydia
Mycobacterium
Legionella

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67
Q

survival inside a host: some pathogens mature in acidic environments

A

Coxiella burnetii - Q fever

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68
Q

survival outside the host: some pathogens secrete thick capsules to avoid antibodies (2)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis

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69
Q

survival outside the host: some pathogens make proteins to bind antibodies (1)

A

Staphylococcus aureus - Protein A

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70
Q

what does Staphylococcus aureus’s Protein A do? (4)

A
  • binds Fc fragments
  • antibodies attach “upside down”
  • prevents opsonization
  • used to purify Abs
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71
Q

how do bacteria recognize the host environment? (3)

A
  • two component signal transduction
  • detect magnesium concentration (pH)
  • quorum sensing
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72
Q

what does quorum sensing do? (2)

A
  • detect exotoxins made by other cells
  • delays toxin synthesis until many bacteria are present
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73
Q

Endotoxins include which of the following?
a. diphtheria toxin
b. lipopolysaccharide
c. tetanus toxin
d. botulinum toxin

A

b. lipopolysaccharide
LPS contains Lipid A which is an endotoxin only secreted by gram-negative bacteria when they die

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74
Q

Bacterial exotoxins can…
a. cause host cell membrane leakage
b. interfere with host second messenger pathways
c. block host protein synthesis
d. do all of these
e. do none of these

A

d. do all of these

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75
Q

The final outcome of most host-parasite relationships depends on…
a. the number of organisms present in or on the host
b. the virulence of the organism
c. the host’s defenses
d. all of the choices

A

d. all of the choices

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76
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of where and when diseases occur

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77
Q

endemic

A

low frequency, and normally present
- influenza (the flu)

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78
Q

epidemic

A

“outbreak”
- high frequency over a short period of time

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79
Q

common-source epidemic

A
  • disease spread from one source
  • little transmission from infected
    think food poisoning
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80
Q

propagated epidemic (2)

A
  • disease continuously transmitted infected
  • higher numbers, longer-lasting epidemic
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81
Q

pandemic

A

spreads all over the world

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82
Q

what can identifying “patient zero” do?

A
  • can allow for identification of those in contact with ZERO
  • can identify the reservoir and potentially stop the outbreak
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83
Q

John Snow

A

Father of Epidemiology
- first to methodically investigate the source of a disease
- cholera outbreak in 1850’s London

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84
Q

certain disease are called _____ _____, because of their severity and transmissibility

A

reportable diseases

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85
Q

who are physicians required to notify?

A

central health organizations like the CDC and WHO

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86
Q

nosocomial infections

A

hospital-acquired infection; any infection that is acquired during the course of stay in a hospital, nursing home, or other health care facility

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87
Q

what percent of hospitalized patients acquire nosocomial infections?

A

5-15%

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88
Q

what are nosocomial infections often caused by?

A

bacterial that are members of normal microbiota
- many hospital strains are also antibiotic resistant

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89
Q

emerging infectious diseases (EID)

A

refer to new infectious diseases that crop up in the world

like Sars-CoV-2

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90
Q

reasons for the increase of EID (5)

A
  • world population growth
  • increased international travel
  • habitat disruption
  • microbial evolution and development of resistance
  • inadequate public infrastructures
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91
Q

examples of climate change affecting epidemiology (3)

A
  • rising air temps can extend the habitat of mosquito and tick vectors
  • melting of glacier may expose pathogens
  • increased rain and flooding promote the breeding of mosquito vectors
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92
Q

three types of epidemic control measures

A
  1. reduce or eliminate the source or reservoir
  2. break connection between source and susceptible individuals
  3. reduce number of susceptible individuals
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93
Q

reduce or eliminate source or reservoir (4)

A
  • quarantine and isolation of cases and carriers
  • destruction of animal reservoir
  • treatment of sewage
  • therapy that reduces or eliminates infectivity of cases
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94
Q

break the connection between the source and susceptible individuals (5)

A
  • chlorination of water supplies
  • pasteurization of milk
  • supervision and inspection of food and food handlers
  • destruction of insect vectors with pesticides
  • masking and social distancing ?
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95
Q

reduce the number of susceptible individuals (3)

A
  • raises herd immunity
  • passive immunity following exposure
  • active immunity for protection
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96
Q

categories of bioterrorism agents: category A - “the killer” (3)

A
  • are relatively easy to disseminated or transmitted person to person
  • cause high mortality with potential for major public health threat
  • cause public panic and social disruption
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97
Q

categories of bioterrorism agents: category B - “the disablers” (3)

A
  • moderately easy to disseminate, moderate morbidity, low mortality, require enhanced diagnostic capability and disease surveillance
  • C. burnetti, Brucella spp, Ricin toxin
  • subset includes food and waterborne agents
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98
Q

categories of bioterrorism agents: category C - “the disablers” (2)

A
  • emerging pathogens with potential for mass dissemination because of availability, easy of production, potential for high morbidity/mortality
  • hantavirus, yellow fever, MDR TB
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99
Q

biological safety level 1

A

normal sterile techniques

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100
Q

biological safety level 2

A

limited lab access, biosafety cabinets, agents with little risk of aerosol transmission

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101
Q

biological safety level 3

A

labs with negative air pressure, agents can cause disease via inhalation

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102
Q

biological safety level 4

A

complete isolation, high risk of aerosol transmission

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103
Q

John Snow is considered the Father of Epidemiology for his work on….
a. malaria
b. gonorrhea
c. cholera
d. influenza
e. chlamydia

A

c. cholera
he found the tap handle where the outbreak originated and the subsequent removal resolved the epidemic

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104
Q

Which of the following viruses has been linked to microcephaly in newborns?
a. Ebola
b. Marburg
c. Yellow fever
d. Zika
e. Dengue

A

d. Zika

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105
Q

normal skin flora includes (4)

A
  • staphylococcus (low GC gram+)
  • streptococcus (low GC gram+)
  • diphtheroids (high GC gram+)
  • some yeasts
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106
Q

staphylococcus

A

gram positive (low GC) cocci in clusters

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107
Q

staphylococcus secretes coagulase…

A

which is an enzyme that clots fibrin in the blood

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108
Q

are skin flora coagulase positive or negative?

A

negative

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109
Q

staphylococcus aureus can cause (4)

A
  • folliculitis, furuncles (boils), carbuncles
  • toxemias
  • scalded-skin syndrome
  • toxic shock syndrome
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110
Q

folliculitis

A

infections of the hair follicles

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111
Q

sty(e)

A

folliculitis of an eyelash

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112
Q

furuncle

A

abscess; pus surrounded by inflamed tissue

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113
Q

carbuncle

A

inflammation of tissue under the skin

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114
Q

streptococcus

A

gram positive (low GC) cocci in chains

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115
Q

streptococcus secrete _____

A

hemolysins

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116
Q

streptococcus virulence factors (3)

A

M protein, extracellular enzymes, toxins

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117
Q

streptococcus M protein (3)

A

key virulence factor, anti-phagocytic, anti-compliment

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118
Q

streptococcus can cause (2)

A

impetigo
erysipelas

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119
Q

group A streptococcal infections

A

rare,not very contagious
- flesh eating bacteria

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120
Q

pseudomonas

A

gram negative rods

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121
Q

what is unusual about Pseudomonas?

A

their metabolism; they grow on traces of organic substances in soap

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122
Q

where are Pseudomonas found?

A

soils and water

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123
Q

what do Pseudomonas cause? (4)

A
  • dermatitis
  • wound and skin infections
  • otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)
  • burn patient infections
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124
Q

infections of Pseudomonas are characterized by what?

A

blue-green pus

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125
Q

viral skin infections: warts

what is it caused by?

A

papilloma virus

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126
Q

viral skin infections: fever blisters

what is it caused by?

A

herpes simplex

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127
Q

viral skin infections: chicken pox - shingles

what is it caused by?

A

herpes virus

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128
Q

viral skin infections: smallpox

what is it caused by?

A

variola virus

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129
Q

Herpes simplex virus 1 (2)

what is it, where does it hide?

A

cold sores
- can remain latent in trigeminal nerve ganglia

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130
Q

Herpes simplex virus 2 (2)

A

genital herpes
- can remain latent in sacral nerve ganglia

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131
Q

what may lessen symptoms of the Herpes Simplex Viruses?

what medication?

A

Acyclovir

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132
Q

Varicella-zooster virus

A

chickenpox
- transmitted by respiratory route, very contagious
- virus remains dormant in dorsal root ganglia

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133
Q

shingles

A

a reactivation of latent VZV, moves along peripheral skin nerves

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134
Q

Paramyxoviruses (2)

what is this virus called?

A

Measles
- transmitted via respiratory route, very contagious

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135
Q

Togavirus

A

Rubella
- macular rash and fever

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136
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (2)

A

gram negative cocci
- eye infection in babies, ophthalmic ointment given at birth for prevention

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137
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis: inclusion conjunctivitis (3)

A
  • at birth
  • swimming pool conjunctivitis
  • treated with erythromycin ointment
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138
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis: trachoma (3)

A
  • leading cause of blindness worldwide
  • sever conjunctivitis, nodules, scarring of the cornea
  • scars abrade the cornea leading to blindness
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139
Q

where can bacteria grow in the CNS?

A

cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space of the CNS

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140
Q

what prevents antimicrobial drugs from entering the CNS?

A

the blood brain barrier

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140
Q

menigitis

A

inflammation of the meninges

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140
Q

encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain

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141
Q

bacterial meningitis symptoms (3)

A
  • fever, headache, stiff neck
  • nausea and vomiting
  • later, convulsions and coma
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142
Q

how is bacterial meningitis diagnosed? (2)

A

gram stain or latex agglutination

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143
Q

how is bacterial meningitis treated?

what drug?

A

cephalosporins

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144
Q

Haemophilus influenzae - meningitis (4)

A
  • occurs mostly in children
  • gram negative aerobic bacteria, normal throat microbiota
  • capsule antigen type B
  • prevented by Hib vaccine
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145
Q

Neisseria meningitidis (3)

A
  • gram negative aerobic cocci
  • begins as a throat infection/rash
  • serotype B is most common in US
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146
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis (3)

A
  • gram positive cocci
  • most common in children
  • mortality is 30% in children and 80% in elderly
147
Q

where does tetanus grow?

A

puncture wounds where it interrupts blood flow and tissue becomes anaerobic

147
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

anaerobe, gram positive rod, (Low GC), endospore-forming

148
Q

what does tetanus toxin do?

A

block release of neurotransmitters, causing muscles to contract uncontrollably, leading to lethal spasms

149
Q

what is the treatment for tetanus?

A

antibiotics and an antitoxin

150
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

anaerobe, gram positive rod, low GC

151
Q

where does Clostridium botulinum grow?

prior to infection

A

canned food

152
Q

endospores of Clostridium botulinum survive unless…

A

autoclaved

153
Q

what does the Clostridium botulinum toxin do?

A

blocks the release of acetylcholine preventing muscle movement

154
Q

symptoms of Poliomyelitis (3)

A
  • initial sore throat and nausea
  • infection and disease
  • viral syndrome to progressive paralysis
155
Q

Rhabdovirus

A

causes rabies

156
Q

where does rabies multiple?

A

in skeletal muscle before moving to nerves, up the spinal cord, to the brain

157
Q

Which of the following microbes can cause toxic shock syndrome?
a. E. coli
b. M. tuberculosis
c. S. aureus
d. N. meningitidis

A

c. S. aureus

158
Q

Skin warts are caused by…
a. papillomavirus
b. poxvirus
c. herpesvirus
d. parvovirus
e. S. aureus

A

c. herpesvirus

159
Q

The tetanus vaccine is a…
a. conjugate vaccine
b. toxoid
c. attenuated whole-agent vaccine
d. inactivated whole-agent vaccine

A

b. toxoid

160
Q

a vaccine can be used for post-exposure treatment for…
a. polio
b. smallpox
c. rabies
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

c. rabies

161
Q

diseases of the upper respiratory tract: laryngitis (2)

what bacteria cause this?

A

S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes

162
Q

diseases of the upper respiratory tract: tonsillitis (2)

what causes these?

A

S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, and some viruses

163
Q

diseases of the upper respiratory tract: sinusitis

A

bacteria

164
Q

diseases of the upper respiratory tract: epiglottitis

A

H. influenzae

165
Q

Streptococcal Pharyngitis - strep throat is caused by…

A

streptococcus pyogenes

166
Q

strep throat (4)

A
  • resistant to phagocytosis
  • streptokinases lyse clots
  • streptolysins are cytotoxic
  • diagnosis by indirect agglutination
167
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria

A

gram positive rod that causes diphtheria

168
Q

diphtheria (2)

A
  • diphtheria membrane of fibrin, dead tissue, and bacteria
  • diphtheria toxin produced by lysogenized C. diphtheriae
169
Q

cutaneous diphtheria

A

infected skin wound leads to slow healing ulcer

170
Q

otitis media

A

middle ear infections via auditory canal

171
Q

diseases of the lower respiratory tract: bacteria, viruses, and fungi cause… (3)

A

bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonia

172
Q

Bordetella pertussis

Describe the bacteria, and what does it cause?

A

gram negative coccobacillus, causes whooping cough

173
Q

Pertussis - Whooping cough (2)

A
  • capsule
  • tracheal cytotoxin, a cell wall peptidoglycan fragment damages ciliated cells so mucus accumulates
174
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

acid-fast rod, transmitted from human to human

175
Q

M. bovis

A

less than 1% of US cases of tuberculosis, not transmitted from human to human

176
Q

M. avium-intracellulare

A

complex, infects people with late stage HIV infections

177
Q

treatment of tuberculosis

A

prolonged treatment with multiple antibiotics

178
Q

how to diagnose tuberculosis

A

tuberculin skin test screening
- positive reaction means current or previous infection

179
Q

typical pneumonias pathology (3)

A
  1. classic inflammatory response
  2. fluid accumulation in alveoli
  3. penetration-pleurisy and bacteremia
180
Q

symptoms of typical pneumonias (5)

A
  1. preceded by or secondary to influenza
  2. acute disease with rapid onset
  3. severe chest pain
  4. productive cough
  5. high fever, muscle pain, headache, nausea
181
Q

what bacteria causes the primary typical pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

182
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae

A

gram-positive, encapsulated, diplococci

183
Q

how do they diagnose pneumonia?

A

bacterial cultures

184
Q

what is the drug of choice for pneumonia?

A

penicillin

185
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

A

gram-negative coccobacillus, also causes pneumonia

186
Q

atypical pneumonia symptoms (4)

A
  1. insidious onset
  2. nonproductive cough
  3. fever develops with headaches, chills, chest pain, general muscle pain
  4. recovery is usually within 14 days
187
Q

atypical pneumonia pathology (3)

A
  1. usually involves intracellular growth
  2. often infected monocytes and macrophages
  3. cell-mediated immunity-less inflammation
188
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

wall-less bacteria

189
Q

what is the primary bacteria for atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

190
Q

how do they diagnose atypical pneumonia?

A

PCR or by IgM antibodies

191
Q

what is mycoplasma atypical pneumonia treated with?

A

tetracycline

192
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

gram-negative rod

193
Q

where is, and how is L. pneumophila transmitted?

A

water

194
Q

what is L. pneumophila atypical pneumonia treated with?

E

A

erythromycin

195
Q

Chlamydia psittaci

A

gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacterium

196
Q

what does C. psittaci cause? (3)

A

Parrot fever,, ornithosis, psittacosis

197
Q

what is C. psittaci carried by?

A

birds

198
Q

how do they diagnose C. psittaci atypical pneumonia?

A

culturing bacteria in eggs or cell cultures

199
Q

how do they treat C. psittaci atypical pneumonia?

A

tetracycline

200
Q

atypical pneumonia - chlamydia pneumoniae (3)

transmitted by? diagnosed by? treated with?

A
  • transmitted from human to human
  • diagnoses by fluorescent Ab test
  • treated with tetracycline
201
Q

types of viruses for the common cold (3)

A
  • rhinoviruses
  • coronaviruses
  • adenoviruses
202
Q

where do common cold viruses infect?

A

nose and throat, upper respiratory tracts

203
Q

RSV (3)

A
  • an RNA virus
  • causes cell fusion in cultures
  • infant lower respiratory infections
204
Q

type A influenza

A

causes most epidemics
H3N2
H1N1
H2N2

205
Q

type B influenza

cause what kind of outbreak?

A

moderate, local outbreaks

206
Q

type C influenza

A

mild disease

207
Q

influenza virus (3)

A
  • eight separate, single strand, minus RNAs
  • H spike: hemagglutinin
  • N spike: neuraminidase
208
Q

hemagglutinin (H) spikes

What is it used for?

A

used for attachment to host cells

209
Q

neuraminidase (N) spikes

A

used to release virus from the cell

210
Q

antigenic drift (3)

A
  • mutations in genes encoding H or N spikes
  • may involve only 1 amino acid
  • allows virus to avoid mucosal IgA antibodies
211
Q

antigenic shift (2)

A
  • changes in H and N spikes
  • probably due to genetic recombination between different strains infecting the same cell
212
Q

Amantadine

what does this medication do?

A

interferes with viral protein M2 which is needed for the viral particle to become “uncoated”

213
Q

Tamiflu

A

a neuraminidase inhibitor

214
Q

Which organisms produces a tough, grayish membrane in the throat?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Haemophilus influenzae

A

b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

215
Q

Mycoplasmal pneumonia can be distinguished from viral in that ..
a. viral pneumonia is treated with tetracycline
b. symptoms are distinctly different
c. doesn’t have any known etiologic agent
d. is treatable with antibiotics
e. none of these

A

b. symptoms are distinctly different

216
Q

The mycolic acids of the cell wall are an important factor in the pathogenicity of the organisms that cause…
a. influenza
b. diphtheria
c. pertussis
d. tuberculosis

A

d. tuberculosis

217
Q

In the influenza virus, minor annual variations in the antigenic makeup are called
a. antigenic drift
b. antigenic shift
c. mutation
d. recombination

A

a. antigenic drift

218
Q

microbial disease of the digestive system are second only to _____ diseases as causes of illness in the US

A

respiratory

219
Q

the fecal-oral cycle of transmission can be broken by proper…. (3)

A
  • disposal of sewage
  • disinfection of drinking water
  • proper food preparation and storage
220
Q

the stomach and small intestine have ____ resident microorganisms

A

few

221
Q

colonizers of the large intestine include (6)

B.E.E.K.L.P.

A
  • Bacteroides (!)
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Klebsiella
  • Lactobacillus
  • Proteus
222
Q

what do bacteria in the large intestine assist with?

A

degrading food and synthesizing vitamins

223
Q

dental caries (cavities) are caused by these bacteria (2)

A
  • Streptococcus spp. (mutans)
  • Actinomyces spp.
    plaque-forming and acid producing
224
Q

periodontal diseases (2)

A
  • gingivitis
  • periodontitis
225
Q

what type of bacteria can cause food poisoning? (3)

A
  • Staphylococcal type
  • Clostridial type
  • others
226
Q

what is the most common cause of food poisoning in the US?

A

enterotoxigenic S. aureus

227
Q

symptoms of S. aureus food poisoning (4)

A
  1. short incubation (2-6 hrs)
  2. severe cramping, pain nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  3. no fever
  4. recovery within 24 hrs
228
Q

how is S. aureus food poisoning transmitted? (2)

A
  • by hands of food preparers
  • uncooked food
  • custards, cream-filled bakery product, meats, chicken salads, dairy products
229
Q

S. aureus food poisoning is characterized by? (3)

A
  • rapid course
  • upper GI symptoms
  • usually no fever
230
Q

Clostridial food poisoning is characterized by? (3)

A
  • slower course
  • lower GI symptoms
  • no systemic symptoms usually
231
Q

what is Clostridial type food poisoning caused by?

A

contaminated meats and poultry stored without refrigeration

232
Q

symptoms of Clostridial food poisoning (4)

A
  • lower abdominal pain
  • diarrhea
  • nausea common
  • vomiting, fever, and headache are rare
233
Q

transmission of Clostridial type food poisoning

A
  • meats or meat stews contaminated with contents of the animal during slaughter
  • endospores are heat resistance, so bacteria grow rapidly during cooling of meat and poultry dishes
234
Q

mechanism of S. aureus food poisoning

A

toxin stimulates brain’s vomiting reflex center

235
Q

mechanism of Clostridial type food poisoning

A

enterotoxin binds to microvilli in lower bowel, causes disruption of membrane and fluid loss

236
Q

traveler’s diarrhea (2)

A
  • enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
  • not invasive, enterotoxin causes a watery diarrhea that resembles a mild form of cholera
237
Q

hamburger disease (3)

A
  • enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
  • shiga toxin adhere to intestinal mucosa and cause destruction of microvilli
  • causes hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome
238
Q

shigellosis is spread by…

A

human to human contact, no animal reservoir

239
Q

what exotoxins does Shigellosis have?

A

shiga toxin
- inhibits protein synthesis

240
Q

infections of S. dysenteriae result in….

A
  • ulceration of intestinal mucosa
  • epithelial of large intestine damaged
  • blood, mucus in stool, abdominal cramps, fever
241
Q

how is Shigellosis diagnosed?

A

isolating and identifying the bacteria from rectal swabs

242
Q

where do you get Salmonellosis from?

A

poultry and eggs

243
Q

bacteria that causes Salmonellosis

A

S. enteritidis

244
Q

bacteria that causes Typhoid fever

A

S. typhi

245
Q

how is Typhoid fever spread?

A

in feces of humans
- more common before sewage treatment

246
Q

Campylobacter (3)

A

gram-negative, spiral microaerophilic

247
Q

what is the leading cause of foodborne illness and second most common cause of diarrhea in the US?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

248
Q

Cholera

describe it

A

gram-negative, slightly curved rod

249
Q

what is one of the most serious gastrointestinal diseases?

A

Vibrio cholerae

250
Q

what does cholera toxin do?

A

alters membrane permeability of the intestinal mucosa causing a loss of fluids

251
Q

Rotavirus diarrhea (3)

A
  • infects infants and children
  • acute diarrhea, sometimes servere
  • supportive treatment, but no vaccine
252
Q

Norovirus - Norwalk agent (2)

A
  • nonculturable
  • infects all ages, not seasonal
253
Q

how do you treat Rotavirus and Norovirus?

A

rehydration

254
Q

Hep. A classificaiton

A

enterovirus in the Picornaviridae

255
Q

Hep. A structure

A

picornavirus, naked, no envelope

256
Q

Hep. B classification

A

Hepadnaviridae

257
Q

Hep. B structure (3)

A
  • enveloped, icosahedral
  • circular, partially dsDNA genome
  • four ORFs
258
Q

how does Hep. B replicate?

A

reverse transcription

259
Q

three major Hep. B antigens

A
  1. HBsAg-surface antigen: protective Ab produced
  2. HBcAg-core antigen: denotes acute or chronic infection
  3. HBeAg-core related antigen
260
Q

Hep. C classification

A

Hepacivirus

261
Q

Hep. C structure

A
  • envelope with E1 and E2 glycoproteins
  • contains a plus strand of RNA`
262
Q

Hep. D classification

A

unique satellite virus of HBV

263
Q

Hep. D structure

A
  • enveloped
  • contains HBsAg (HBV surface antigen)
  • RNA is single strand circular
264
Q

The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is
a. trachoma
b. dental decay or caries (cavities)
c. plague
d. atypical pneumonia

A

b. dental decay or caries (cavities)

265
Q

Which of the following viruses has a DNA genome but its replication involves reverse transcription?
a. Hep. A
b. Hep. B
c. Hep. C
d. Hep. D
e. Hep. E

A

b. Hep. B

266
Q

Which of these bacteria are usually responsible for digestive system disease due to intoxication rather than infection?
a. Salmonella enterica
b. Shigella species
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. E. coli

A

d. Staphylococcus aureus

267
Q

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis except:
a. Shigella spp.
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Salmonella typhi
e. E. coli

A

c. Clostridium perfringens

268
Q

septicemia

A

bacteria in blood

269
Q

sepsis

A

toxic reaction to septicemia; bacteria growing in blood

270
Q

endotoxic shock is caused by what kind of bacteria?

A

gram negative

271
Q

toxic shock is caused by what king of bacteria?

A

gram positive
(S. aureus)

272
Q

what is shock caused by what in the body?

A

due to rapid release of cytokines aka cytokine storm

273
Q

severe sepsis

A

decrease in blood pressure

274
Q

septic shock

A

low blood pressure cannot be controlled

275
Q

puerperal sepsis or childbirth fever (3)

A
  1. a type of nosocomial infection
  2. usually due to Strep. - S. pyogenes
  3. progressive infections: uteritis -> peritonitis -> septicemia -> meningitis
276
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis

A

saw Doctors’ wards has three times the mortality of midwives’ wards; the incidence of puerperal fever could be drastically reduced by hand washing

277
Q

endocarditis

A

inflammation of the endocardium

278
Q

infections of the heart

A
  • congenital heart defects
  • Rheumatic fever (S. pyogenes)
279
Q

Rheumatic fever

A
  • autoimmune disease
  • inflammation of the heart
  • caused by S. pyogenes
280
Q

Plague is caused by…

A

Yersinia pestis

281
Q

how is the plague transmitted?

A

from flea bite from rodents

282
Q

types of plagues (3)

A
  1. bubonic
  2. septicemia
  3. pneumonic
283
Q

bubonic plague

A

bacterial growth in the blood and lymph

284
Q

septicemia plague

A

septic shock

285
Q

pneumonic plague

A

bacteria in the lungs

286
Q

how to treat plagues?

A

tetracyclines

287
Q

what is lyme disease caused by?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

288
Q

what is the most common tick-borne disease

A

lyme disease

289
Q

reservoirs of lyme disease

A

deer

290
Q

first symptom of lyme diease

A

bull’s eye rash

291
Q

second phase of lyme disease

A

irregular heartbeat, encephalitis

292
Q

third phase of lyme disease

A

arthritis

293
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

low GC gram-positive, endospore forming, aerobic rod

294
Q

what is anthrax treated with?

A

ciprofloxacin or doxycycline

295
Q

cutaneous anthrax

A

endospores enter through a minor cut
- 20% mortality

296
Q

gastrointestinal anthrax

A

ingestion of undercooked food, or contaminated food
- 50% mortality

297
Q

inhalational anthrax

A

inhalation of endospores
- 100% mortality

298
Q

bacterial zoonotic diseases

A
  • Tularemia
  • Brucellosis
299
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

caused by EBV
- high prevalence in eastern Africa
- major cause of childhood death

300
Q

Cytomegalovirus (2)

A
  • latent in white blood cells
  • may be asymptomatic or mild
301
Q

how is Cytomegalovirus transmitted? (4)

A
  • across the placenta
  • sexually
  • by blood
  • by transplanted tissue
302
Q

yellow fever (3)

A
  • a flavivirus
  • hepatitis, jaundice, hemorrhage, black vomitus
  • from mosquitoes
303
Q

Dengue fever (4)

A
  • a flavivirus
  • few transmitted cases
  • mosquito vectors
  • break bone fever: myalgias, headache, high fever
304
Q

ebola (3)

A
  • filovirus
  • pneumonitis, followed by high fever, chills, hemorrhage
  • man to man transmission is poor
305
Q

the urinary bladder and upper urinary tract are _____

A

sterile

306
Q

_____ are predominant in the vagina

A

Lactobacilli

307
Q

diseases of the urinary tract (4)

A
  1. urethritis (Urethra)
  2. cystitis (female bladder)
  3. uteritis (uterine tubes)
  4. pyelonephritis (kidney)
308
Q

gonorrhea (3)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram- cocci)
- attachment fimbriae
- binds mucosal cells of epithelium

309
Q

male symptoms of gonorrhea

A

painful urethritis

310
Q

female symptoms of gonorrhea

A

may be asymptomatic
- urethritis
- vaginitis
- other complications

311
Q

how do you diagnose gonorrhea?

A

ELISA

312
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • same symptoms but milder than gonorrhea
  • coinfects with gonococcus
313
Q

syphilis is caused by what bacteria?

A

Treponema pallidum - spirochete

314
Q

bacterial vaginosis is caused by what bacteria?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

315
Q

treatment of bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

316
Q

Which of these bacteria would be capable of causing endotoxic septic shock?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Escherichia coli

A

b. Staphylococcus aureus

317
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by herpesviruses?
a. kissing disease
b. chickenpox
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
e. all of these are caused by herpesviruses

A

e. all of these are caused by herpesviruses

318
Q

Effective vaccines are now available for preventing…
a. bacterial vaginosis
b. chlamydia
c. genital herpes
d. genital HPV
e. gonorrhea

A

d. genital HPV

319
Q

Paul Ehrlich (2)

A
  • developed concept of selective toxicity
  • identified dyes that effectively treated African sleeping sickness
320
Q

Sahachiro Hato

A
  • working with Ehrlich, identified arsenic compounds (Salvarsan) that effectively treated syphilis
321
Q

Gerhard Domagk, Jacques, and Therese Trefouel

A

discovered sulfonamides and sulfa drugs

322
Q

who accidentally discovered penicillin?

A

Alexander Fleming

323
Q

Selman Waksman

what did he discover?

A

discovered strptomycin

324
Q

streptomycin

A

antibiotic produced by Streptomyces griseus, and actinomycete bacterium found in soil

325
Q

Emily Whitehead

A

girl with cancer that was cured by using HIV to re-write her immune system

326
Q

microbial physiology that is not in humans (3)

A
  • peptidoglycan
  • differences in ribosome structure
  • biochem pathways used by bacteria but not humans
327
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

interferes with eukaryotic ribosomes

328
Q

broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

effective against many species

329
Q

narrow-spectrum antibiotics

A

effective against few or a single species

330
Q

bactericidal antibiotics

A

kill the target organism

331
Q

bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

prevent growth of the organism

332
Q

minimal inhibitory concentration (3)

A

lowest concentration that prevents growth
- varies by species
- tested by diluting antibiotics

333
Q

E-test determines

A

minimal inhibitory concentration
- gradient of antibiotic in paper strip
- drug must be above MIC in tissue in order to be effective

334
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk susceptibility test

A

test strain sensitivity to multiple antibiotics
- multiple disks with different antibiotics
- size of cleared zone reflects relative sensitivity

335
Q

antibiotics that target: cell wall synthesis (4)

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • bacitracin
  • vancomycin
336
Q

antibiotics that target: protein synthesis (5)

C.T.A.M.L

A
  • chloramphenicol
  • tetracyclines
  • aminoglycosides
  • macrolides
  • lincosamides
337
Q

antibiotics that target: cell membrane integrity (4)

P.D.A.I

A
  • polymyxin
  • daptomycin
  • amphotericin
  • imidazoles
338
Q

antibiotics that target: nucleic acid function (5)

N.N.Q.R.

A
  • nitroimidazoles
  • nitrofurans
  • quinolones
  • rifampin
  • some antivirals
339
Q

antibiotics that target: intermediary metabolism (2)

S.T.

A
  • sulfonamides
  • trimethoprim
340
Q

peptidoglycan antibiotics

A

competitive inhibitor or crosslink transpeptidation

341
Q

examples of peptidoglycan antibiotics (4)

P.A.A.C

A
  • penicillin
  • amoxicillin
  • ampicillin
  • carbenicillin
342
Q

vancomycin

binds?

A

binds ends of peptides to prevent crosslink formation

343
Q

cycloserine

blocks what?

A

blocks formation of peptide crosslink

344
Q

bacitracin

blocks what?

A

blocks movement across membrane

345
Q

characteristics of penicillin and its derivatives (3)

A
  • penicilinase-resistance
  • extended spectrum
  • improved pharmacokinetics
346
Q

quinolones

blocks and prevents what?

A

blocks bacterial DNA gyrase and prevents DNA replication

347
Q

sulfa drugs are an…

A

analogue of PABA, a vitamin precursor

348
Q

rifampicin

blocks what?

A

blocks bacterial RNA polymerase (TB teatment)

349
Q

macrolides and chloramphenicols

block what?

A

blocks large subunits and blocks the transfer of peptides
- erythromycin, azithromycin

350
Q

aminoglycosides

prevent?

A

prevents 30s and 50s subunits from binding to one another
- streptomycin

351
Q

tetracyclines

bind onto what?

A

bind small subunit, blocking binding of aminoacyl-tRNA

352
Q

antibiotic inhibitors of membranes (4)

G.P.P.D

A
  • gramicidin
  • polymyxin
  • platensimycin
  • daptomycin
353
Q

Isoniazid

is a?

A

mycobacterium inhibitor

354
Q

gramicidin

forms what?

A

forms a cation channel, H+ leaks, and the call cannot maintain PMF

355
Q

Antibiotics are considered _____ _____
because they often have no apparent primary use in
the producing organism

A

secondary metabolites

356
Q

selective pressure for
the establishment of drug-resistant strains (2)

what bacteria?

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Acinetobacter baumanii
357
Q

three basic strategies for antibiotic resistance

A
  1. keep antibiotics out of the cell
  2. prevent antibiotics from binding the target
  3. dislodge an antibiotics already bound to its target
358
Q

keep antibiotics out of the cell (3)

A
  • destroy antibiotic before it enters the cell
  • decrease membrane permeability across the outer membrane
  • pump antibiotic out of the cell via specific transporters
359
Q

prevent antibiotics from binding the target (2)

A
  • modify the cellular target so it no longer binds the antibiotic
  • add modifying groups that inactivate the antibiotic
360
Q

dislodge an antibiotic already bound to its target

A

ribosome protection (or rescue)

361
Q

ribosome protection/rescue

A

gram-positive organisms can produce proteins that bind to ribosomes and dislodge macrolide antibiotics bound near the peptidyltransferase site
- newest resistance mechanism discovered

362
Q

_____ _____ antibiotic resistance develops through gene duplication and/or mutations

A

de novo (new)

363
Q

antibiotic resistance also can be acquired via _____ _____ _____

A

horizontal gene transfer
- conjugation, transduction, transformation

364
Q

integrons

A

highly-mobile gene expression elements
- attributed to multidrug resistance

365
Q

ESKAPE pathogens

A

six highly resistant bacterial species that collectively cause about two-thirds of all US nosocomial infections
- Enterococcus faecium
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Acinetobacter baumannii
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Enterobacter sp.

Prokaryotic Biology (5 decks)

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