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Prokaryotic Biology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

dichotomous key

A

a series of yes/no questions that successively narrows down the possible categories of species
- most traits are phenotypic, such as cell size and motility

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2
Q

rapid pathogen identification

A

multiple color tests
- results scored to give most probable species

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3
Q

random mutations

A

occur as the chromosome replicates

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4
Q

reductive (degenerative) evolution

A

loss or mutation of DNA encoding unselected traits

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5
Q

organisms diverge from one another through several fundamental mechanisms: (3)

A
  • random mutations
  • natural selection and adaptation
  • reductive (degenerative) evolution
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6
Q

molecular clock

A

temporal information contained in a macromolecular sequence
- based on the acquisition of new random mutations in each round of DNA replication

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7
Q

genes show that most consistent measures of evolutionary time encode components of the _____ and _____ apparatus

A

transcription, translation

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8
Q

which components of transcription/translation are a consistent measure of evolutionary time? (3)

A

ribosomal RNA and proteins, tRNA, and RNA polymerase

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9
Q

the most widely used molecular clock is the gene that encodes….

A

small subunit rRNA (SSU rRNA)
- 16s rRNA in bacteria
- 18s rRNA in eukaryotes

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10
Q

use of a molecular clock requires…

A

the alignment of homologous sequences in divergent species or strains

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11
Q

the frequency of differences between homologous sequences can be used to generate a _____ _____

A

phylogenetic tree

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12
Q

what do phylogenetic trees show?

A

estimates the relative amounts of evolutionary divergence between sequences of DNA
- can be used to infer the length of time since two species shared a common ancestor

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13
Q

symbiosis

A

microbes interacting with other organisms

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14
Q

mutualism

A

symbiosis that benefits both partners

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15
Q

parasitism

A

symbiosis that only benefits one partner, the other is harmed

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16
Q

commensalism

A

symbiosis that benefits one partner while the other is unaffected

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17
Q

rhizobium

A

mutalist bacteria that helps plants grow and absorb nutrients; fixes nitrogen in roots of plants

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18
Q

alphaproteobacteria

A

nitrogen-fixing bacteria
- rhizobium

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19
Q

gammaproteobacteria (4)

Name the bacteria.

A
  1. Enterics - E. Coli and relatives
  2. Vibrios and relative
  3. Pseudomonas - p. Aeruginosa
  4. Legionella

Gram negative, catalase positive, oxidase negative, rod-shaped facultative anaerobes which are bile-salt tolerant and often inhabit the gastrointestinal tract

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20
Q

gammaproteobacteria: vibrionales (3)

A

found in coastal water
- Vibrio cholerae causes cholera
- V. parahaemolyticus causes gastroenteritis

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21
Q

epsilon proteobacteria (3)

A

smallest group of proteobacteria
- Campylobacter causes diarrhea
- Helicobacter pylori: cause of stomach ulcers, stomach cancer

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22
Q

Barry Marshall and Robin Warren

A

awarded the Nobel Prize for their discovery that peptic ulcer disease was primarily caused by Helicobacter pylori

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23
Q

Chlamydia (3)

A

obligate intracellular parasites
- Trachomatis: causes STD and conjunctivitis
- Psittaci: causes psittacosis (parrot fever)
- Pneumoniae: causes and atypical pneumonia

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24
Q

chlamydia life cycle characteristics (3)

A

elementary body: non growing ‘spore-like’
reticulate body: vegetative cell
given up much metabolism: can’t make ATP

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25
Q

spirochaetes (3)

A
  1. spiral organisms with a sheath and axial filaments
  2. slow growing, aquatic free-living or parasitic
  3. several human pathogens
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26
Q

spirochaetes: human pathogens (2)

A
  1. Treponema pallidum: syphilis
  2. Borrelia burgdorferi: lyme disease
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27
Q

Firmicutes

A

low GC, gram-positive rods and cocci

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28
Q

Bacillales

A

aerobic or facultative anaerobes

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29
Q

bacillus (5)

A

endospore-forming rods; obligate aerobes; grow in soil
- B. subtilis: gram-positive model system
- B. anthracis: anthrax
includes extremophiles

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30
Q

listeria (2)

A

non-spore forming rods
- L. monocytogenes: enteric intracellular pathogen

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31
Q

staphylococcus (3)

A

non-spore forming cocci; hexagonal clusters
- S. aureus: toxic shock and lethal flesh infections

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32
Q

Clostridiales

A

anaerobic rods

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33
Q

clostridium (2)

what do they form?
what known disease do they cause?

A

forms endospores
- C. botulinum and C. difficile: tetanus

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34
Q

streptococcus (4)

A

non-spore forming cocci; chains
- Human throat flora
- group A streptococci causes strep and scarlet fever

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35
Q

Mollicutes

what do they lack? require?
what do they cause?

A

lacks cell wall and s-layer
requires animal host
- Mycoplasma genitalium: smallest known genome
- M. pneumoniae: causes pneumonia

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36
Q

firmicutes and actinobacteria (3)

A
  • gram-positive
  • peptidoglycan multiple layers; cross-linked by teichoic acids
  • aerobes and facultative anaerobes
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37
Q

actinomycetes (3)

A

filamentous, producing aerial hyphae and spores
- Streptomyces: produce many antibiotics
- S. coelicolor, S. griseus

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38
Q

corynebacteriaceae

A

irregular rods
- Corynebacterium diphtheriae: diphtheria

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39
Q

mycobacteriaceae

A

exceptionally thick cell envelope holds acid-fast stain
- Mycobacterium
- M. tuberculosis: tuberculosis
- M. leprae: leprosy

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40
Q

proteobacteria and nitrospirae (4)

A
  • gram-negative
  • outer membrane contains LPS
  • diverse metabolism
  • lineage includes mitochondria
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41
Q

rhizobiales (3)

What kind of microbes are these?

A

plant mutualists and pathogens, methyl oxidizers, and animal pathogens

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42
Q

agrobacterium

A

A. tumefaciens: causes plant tumors; trasngenic plant vector

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43
Q

rhizobium (2)

A

related to agrobacterium, rhizobium, bradyrhizobium, sinorhizobium
- fix nitrogen intracellularly in legumes

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44
Q

rickettsia (4)

what does their lineage include?

A

includes intracellular parasites; lineage includes mitochondria
- R. rickettsii: rocky mountain spotted fever
- R. prowazekii: typhus

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45
Q

SAR11 cluster (2)

A

marine photoheterotrophs uses proteorhodopsin
- Pelagibacter

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46
Q

microbes are ubiquitous (2)

A
  • in every habitable environment
  • fill every potential niche
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47
Q

what can microbes use as a source of carbon or energy?

A

every component or product of a living cell

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48
Q

what determines a microbe’s ability to fill a niche? (2)

A

genome and environment factors

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49
Q

microbe producers (3)

A

algae, bacteria, phytoplankton

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50
Q

microbe consumers (3)

A

bacteria, archaea, eukaryotes

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51
Q

microbe decomposers (2)

A

fungi, viruses

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52
Q

environmental factors that determine microbial growth (5)

A
  1. oxygen levels
  2. availability of other nutrients
  3. temperature
  4. salinity
  5. pH
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53
Q

mutualistic microbes (3)

name three types

A

lichens: fungus + alga/cyanobacterium
rhizobium: inside leguminous plants
mixotricha: bacterial endosymbionts + termites

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54
Q

synergism

A

bother benefit through growth, but the partners are easily separated and they can grow independently of one another

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55
Q

amensalism

A

one species benefits by harming another; relationship is nonspecific

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56
Q

subdivisions of the environment surrounding roots (2)

A
  1. rhizoplane
  2. rhizosphere
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57
Q

rhizoplane

A

plant root surface

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58
Q

rhizosphere

A

region of soil outside the rhizoplane that receives substances from the roots

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59
Q

rhizobium-legume mutualistic interaction (4)

A
  • legumes secrete flavonoid attractants
  • rhizobium enters cortical cells where they differentiate into bacteroides with no cell wall
  • bacteroides remain in symbiosome
  • plant supplies catabolites, bacterium supplies fixed nitrogen, plant leghemoglobin sequesters excess O2
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60
Q

agrobacterium tumefaciens

A
  • an alpha-proteobacterium
  • causes crown gall disease
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61
Q

how does agrobacterium tumefaciens infect its host?

A

through a wound

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62
Q

how does agrobacterium tumefaciens affect its host?

A

T DNA transferred from bacterium to plant directs the host to overproduce phytohormones that cause tumor production, and to produce opines that attract more A. tumefaciens

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63
Q

where are the genes for infection and virulence encoded for in agrobacterium tumefaciens?

A

Ti, tumor inducing, plasmid

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64
Q

where is the carbon cycle’s major reservoir?

A

the ocean, atmospheric reservoir is MUCH smaller

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65
Q

aerobic carbon cycling (3)

A
  1. photosynthesis fixes CO2 into biomass, producing O2 and organic carbon compounds
  2. lithotrophs also reduce CO2 to biomass
  3. respiration returns CO2 to the atmosphere with a net gain of O2 and loss of CO2 in the photic zone
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66
Q

hydrologic cycle

A
  1. water flowing over ground picks up nutrients
  2. carbon and nitrogen runoff allows respiration
  3. respiring microbes deplete O2 in water
    - BOD: biochemical oxygen demand
  4. high BOD —> hypoxic costs —> fish die
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67
Q

the nitrogen triangle

A

both reduced and oxidized N is used for biomass

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68
Q

the nitrogen cycle (6)

A
  1. microorganisms decompose proteins from dead cells and release amino acids
  2. ammonia is liberated by microbial ammonification of the amino acids
  3. the nitrogen in ammonia is oxidized to produce nitrates for energy by nitrifying bacteria
  4. denitrifying bacteria reduce the nitrogen in nitrates to molecular nitrogen
  5. N2 is converted to ammonia by nitrogen-fixing bacteria
  6. ammonium and nitrate are used by bacteria and plants to synthesize amino acids that are assembled into proteins
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69
Q

nitrogen cycle:
proteins and waste products —(?)—> amino acids

what is this process called?

A

microbial decomposition

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70
Q

nitrogen cycle:
amino acids —(?)—> ammonia

What is this called?

A

microbial ammonification

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71
Q

nitrogen cycle:
ammonium ion —(?)—> nitrite ion

A

nitrosomonas, nitrification

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72
Q

nitrogen cycle:
nitrite ion —(?)—> nitrate ion

A

nitrobacter, nitrification

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73
Q

nitrogen cycle:
nitrate ion —(?)—> N2

A

pseudomonas, denitrification

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74
Q

nitrogen cycle:
N2 —(?)—> ammonia

A

nitrogen-fixation

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75
Q

sulfur triangle

A
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76
Q

sulfur cycle (3)

A
  1. SH2 is oxidized by anaerobic respirers to sulfate, removing toxic gas
  2. others reduce S into SH2
  3. algae excrete dimethyl sulfide, adding to atmospheric S
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77
Q

sulfur cycle:
proteins and waste –(?)–> amino acids

A

microbial decomposition

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78
Q

sulfur cycle:
amino acids (-SH) –(?)–> H2S

A

microbial dissimilation

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79
Q

sulfur cycle:
H2S –(?)–> SO4^2-

A

thiobacillus, for energy

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80
Q

sulfur cycle:
SO4^2- –(?)–> amino acids

A

microbial and plant assimilation

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81
Q

natural water treatments

A

wetlands filter water
- slow water passage
- bacteria in wetland denitrify water

82
Q

municipal treatment

A

reduce nutrients to reduce BOD
- allow microbes to grow, digest nutrients
- aerate to restore oxygen levels

83
Q

opportunistic pathogen

A

can cause disease if reach abnormal location or in immunodeficient host

84
Q

why is skin difficult to colonize? (4)

A

dry, salty, acidic, protective oils

85
Q

propionibacterium

A

degrades skin oils, inflames sebaceous glands, and causes acne

86
Q

staphylococcus epidermidis

A

colonizes human skin
gram-positive tolerates salt well

87
Q

an infant’s mouth is colonized with: (3)

A

Nonpathogenic neisseria
- gram-negative cocci
Streptococcus + Lactobacillus
- gram-positive rods

88
Q

as an infant’s teeth emerge, these bacteria colonize: (3)

A

Prevotella + Fusobacterium
- between gums and teeth
Streptococcus mutans
- on teeth

89
Q

nasopharynx and oropharynx are populated by _____ _____ and _____ _____

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus epidermidis
- harmless

90
Q

why do few microbes survive in the stomach?

A

very high acidity

91
Q

helicobacter pylori

A
  • survive at pH 1
  • burrow into protective mucous
  • cause of ulcers
92
Q

achlorhydria (3)

A

loss of acidity in the stomach
- caused by malnourishment
- allows pathogen growth

93
Q

which bacteria grows in achlorhydric conditions?

A

Vibrio cholerae

94
Q

organisms that inhabit the intestine (2)

A
  1. Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron
  2. Escherichia coli
95
Q

Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron (2)

A
  • anaerobe
  • breaks down complex carbs into products the body can absorb
96
Q

Escherichia coli (2)

A
  • facultative anaerobe
  • catabolizes gluconate, component of secreted mucus
97
Q

innate immunity (3)

A
  • barriers to infection
  • nonspecific reaction to destroy invading cells
  • complement proteins
98
Q

adaptive immunity (3)

A
  • reaction to specific antigens
  • body reacts to the antigen when exposed because of “memory”
  • basis for vaccines
99
Q

innate defenses: skin

A
  • epidermis consists of tightly packed cells with keratin, oil, and cells that phagocytose microbes
  • washing removes dead skin and associated microbes
100
Q

innate defenses: lungs

A
  • mucous membranes trap and destroy pathogens
  • the ciliary escalator sweeps mucous, containing microbes, away from the lungs
101
Q

innate defenses: chemical

A
  • acidic pH: stomach, skin, vagina
  • lysozyme: tears, perspiration, saliva, tissue fluids
  • antimicrobial peptides
102
Q

what do antimicrobial peptides do?

A

destroy microbial plasma membrane

103
Q

neutrophils/monocytes

A
  • engulf and destroy microbes by phagocytosis
104
Q

monocytes differentiate into _____ and _____

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

105
Q

basophils and eosinophils

A

release toxins to poison microbes

106
Q

lymphocytes

A

Tcells and B cells

107
Q

T cells

A

modulate specific immune responses

108
Q

B cells

A

produce antibodies to bind antigens

109
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells

A

destroy infected and cancerous host cells

110
Q

healthy cells make surface antigens _____

A

MHC class I

111
Q

what type of cells stop producing MHCI

A

cancerous and infected cells

112
Q

when an NK cell meets a cell lacking MHCI, it secretes _____ proteins into the target cell

A

perforin

113
Q

what does perforin do?

A

creates membrane pores to lyse cells

114
Q

inflammation signs (4)

A

redness, pain, heat, swelling (edema)

115
Q

inflammation functions (3)

A
  1. destroy injurious agent
  2. limit the effect if destruction is not possible
  3. repair or replace the tissue damage
116
Q

humoral immunity

A

production of antibody proteins, each binding a different agent

117
Q

cellular immunity

A

T cells that bind different antigens; kills pathogens, controls antibody production

118
Q

stages of inflammation (4)

A
  1. acute-phase proteins activated
  2. vasodilation
  3. phagocyte migration
  4. tissue repair
119
Q

MAMPs

A

microbe-associated molecular patters

120
Q

MAMPs can be recognized by _____ or _____ receptors present on/in various cell types

A

Toll-like, NOD-like

121
Q

PRRs

A

pattern recognition receptors
- very important to our body’s alarm system

122
Q

Toll-like receptors

A

evolutionarily conserved cell-surface glycoproteins present on cells of many eukaryotes

123
Q

when a toll-like receptor is bound by its ligand, what happens?

A

it triggers an intracellular cascade to release cytokines, which bind to various cells to direct them to engage invadors

124
Q

NOD-like receptors

A

important cytoplasmic sensors of MAMPs

125
Q

NOD-like receptors (NLRs) are part of what family of proteins?

A

inflammasomes

126
Q

what happens when a NLR binds it’s ligand?

A

triggers a signal that stimulates inflammation and activated adaptive immune responses

127
Q

interferons

A

low-molecular-weight cytokines
- action is host specific not virus specific

128
Q

type I interferons (4)

A
  • high antiviral potency
  • IFN-a, IFN-B, IFN-w
  • binds receptors of uninfected host cells, renders them resistant to infection
  • cleaves dsRNA and blocks viral RNA translation
129
Q

type II interferon

A
  • has immunomodulatory function
130
Q

complement proteins

A

serum proteins activated in a cascade

131
Q

C3b causes….

A

opsonization

132
Q

C3a + C5a cause…

A

inflammation

133
Q

C5b + C6 + C7 + C8 + C9 cause….

A

cell lysis through formation of the membrane attack complex

134
Q

classical pathway (4)

A
  1. antibodies attach to antigen Ab-Ag complexes bind and activate C1
  2. C1 activates C2 and C4 by splitting them
  3. C2a-C4b activates C3 by splitting it into C3a and C3b
  4. the C3 fragments initiate cytolysis, inflammation, and opsonization
135
Q

alternative pathway (2)

A
  1. activated by contact between complement protein and pathogen
  2. C3 is split into C3a and C3b
136
Q

lectin pathway (4)

A
  1. lectins are proteins bound to carbohydrates
  2. binding of lectin to bacterial cell wall functions as an opsonin to enhance phagocytosis and..
  3. activates C2 and C4
  4. then C2a and C4b activate C3 etc.
137
Q

what temperature is the hypothalamus ‘set’ at normally?

A

37 deg C

138
Q

what induce temperature rise in the body?

A

pyrogens

139
Q

exogenous pyrogens

A

substances, which originate outside the body and which are capable of inducing interleukins; LPS

140
Q

endogenous pyrogens

A

interferons, TNF, IL-6
- signal to the brain to raise temperature
- reduce iron availability to bacteria

141
Q

disadvantages of a fever (4)

A
  • tachycardia
  • acidosis
  • dehydration
  • seizures in children
142
Q

immunoglobulin

A

antibodies in the body

143
Q

what are the two chains of an antibody? what are they held together by?

A

light and heavy; disulfide bonds

144
Q

antibody constant region

A

highly conserved amino acids; CH and CL for heavy and light chains

145
Q

antibody variable region

A

highly different amino acid area, VH and VL; form the antigen binding site

146
Q

IgG (3)

A
  • monomer with four subclasses
  • most abundant in blood and tissue fluids
  • opsonin, can cross placenta; activates complement
147
Q

IgA (3)

A
  • commonly found as a dimer
  • secreted across mucosa
  • abundant in tears and breast milk
148
Q

IgM (2)

A
  • monomer on B cells, but also a pentamer
  • first antibody detected during immune response
149
Q

IgD (2)

A
  • monomer
  • found abundantly on B cells, rare in blood
150
Q

IgE (2)

A
  • monomer found on mast cells and basophils
  • mediates inflammatory response
151
Q

primary antibody response

A

the first time your body interacts with an antigen, via disease or vaccination

152
Q

when do antibodies appear in serum after a primary antibody response?

A

after several days

153
Q

After B cells bind antigens and make antibodies the immunoglobulin….

A

switches from IgM to IgG, aka isotype switching

154
Q

secondary antibody response

A

second exposure to a pathogen via disease or vaccination

155
Q

B plasma cells

A

secrete antibodies

156
Q

B memory cells

A

store how to fight the pathogen

157
Q

clonal selection

A

the process through which B and T cells are selected in the maturation process

158
Q

what increases diversity of antibody production?

A

high point mutation rate

159
Q

the variable region is made up of three different section

A

variable, diversity, and joining

160
Q

helper T cells

A
  • displays the surface antigen CD4
  • assists activation of B cells and other T cells
161
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A
  • displays the surface antigen CD8
  • destroys bacteria and infected host cells
162
Q

T helper 0

A

precursor that can differentiate into other T cell types

163
Q

follicular helper T cells

A

drive B cell differentiation into antibody secreting plasma cells

164
Q

T helper 1 cells

A

assist in activation of cytotoxic T cells

165
Q

T helper 2

A

recruit eosinophils to combat parasitic infections and can inhibit T helper 1 proliferatin

166
Q

T helper 17

A

cells stimulate inflammatory response by secreting IL-17

167
Q

regulatory T cells

A

dampen inflammatory responses

168
Q

MHC class I present….

A

intracellular antigens
- microbial proteins that make it into the hot cytoplasm are degraded, loaded into the ER, and placed on MHCI molecules for presentation

169
Q

MHC class II present…

A

extracellular antigens
- microbial proteins outside the cell are endocytosed into the cell, degraded, and loaded onto MHCII

170
Q

T cell receptors only bind antigens if they are attached to…

A

MHC molecules, they interact with other molecules on the membrane that cascade into activation and proliferation

171
Q

cell-mediated immune response

A

T helper 0 binds MHCII on APC

172
Q

CD4 binds MHCII =

A

recognition of presenting molecule

173
Q

CD28 binds B7 =

A

recognition of antigen presenting cells

174
Q

how to make live attenuated vaccines (2)

A
  • serial passage of virulent virus
  • deliberate alteration of genes, marker genes
175
Q

advantages of live attenuated viral vaccines (5)

A
  • effective in small amounts due to biological amplification
  • duration is longer, often a lifetime
  • better cellular responses, more antigens
  • can be given orally to stimulate IgA
  • adjuvants not needed
176
Q

adjuvant

A

an ingredient used in some vaccines that helps create a stronger immune response in people receiving the vaccine

177
Q

new approaches to vaccines (7)

A
  • plasmid based
  • mRNA vaccines
  • subunit
  • virus like particles
  • new vectors/virus as vectors
  • enhance immunogenicity
178
Q

examples of bacterial vaccines (5)

A
  1. extract vaccines - old pertussis
  2. carbohydrate vaccines - meningococcus
  3. toxoid vaccines - tetanus & diphtheria
  4. attenuated vaccines - BCG strain for TB
  5. conjugated bacteria vaccines - carbohydrate + protein Hib
179
Q

examples of viral vaccines (3)

A
  1. inactivated viruses - influenza and Salk polio
  2. attenuated vaccines - Sabin polio, MMR
  3. subunit vaccine - Hep B, recombinant protein from yeast; old version prepared from HBV carriers
180
Q

tDAP vaccine components (3)

A
  • diphtheria purified toxoid
  • tetanus purified toxoid
  • pertussis acellular fragments
181
Q

meningococcal meningitis vaccine components

A

purified polysaccharide from N. meningitidis

182
Q

haemophilus influenzae vaccine components

A

type B meningitis
polysaccharides conjugated with protein

183
Q

pneumococcal vaccine components

A

S. pneumoniae antigens conjugated with proteins

184
Q

smallpox vaccine components

A

live vaccinia virus

185
Q

poliomyelitis vaccine components

A

inactivated virus and attenuated virus

186
Q

rabies vaccine components

A

inactivated virus

187
Q

Hep A vaccine components

A

inactivated virus

188
Q

influenza vaccine components

A

inactivated (flu shot) or attenuated virus (flu mist)

189
Q

measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine component

A

attenuated virus

190
Q

chickenpox vaccine components

A

attenuated virus

191
Q

Hep B vaccine components

A

antigenic fragments (recombinant vaccine)

192
Q

diagnostic immunology (5)

A
  1. precipitation reactions
  2. agglutination reactions
  3. ELISA test
  4. Western blot tests
  5. Fluorescent-antibody techniques
193
Q

precipitation reactions (2)

A

immuno-diffusion
- antibodies lay on the bottom of a test tube, antigens are placed at the surface
- a noticeable “zone of equivalence” forms through the anitbody-antigen reaction

194
Q

agglutination reactions (2)

A
  • involves particulate antigens and antibodies
  • antigens may be on a cell (direct) , attached to latex spheres (indirect/passive), or on red blood cells (hemagglutination)
195
Q

antibody titer

A

the concentration of antibodies against a particular pathogen

196
Q

hemagglutination

A

agglutination of red blood cells

197
Q

direct ELISA (4)

A
  1. antibodies are absorbed on a well
  2. enzyme-linked antibody specific for test antigens are added and bind to the antibody
  3. patient sample is added, complementary antigen binds to the antibody
  4. enzyme’s substrate is added and reaction produces a product that causes a color change
198
Q

indirect ELISA (4)

A
  1. antigen is absorbed to a well
  2. enzyme linked anti-HISG is added and binds to the antibody
  3. patient antiserum is added, complementary antibody binds to the antigen
  4. enzyme’s substrate is added and reaction produces a visible color change
199
Q

serological tests - pregnancy test (3)

A
  1. free monoclonal antibody specific for hCG
  2. capture monoclonal antibody bound to substrate
  3. sandwich formed by combination capture antibody and free antibody when hCG is present, creates color change
200
Q

monoclonal antibody test (6)

A
  1. mouse is injected with antigen to produce antibodies
  2. spleen is removed, collected suspension of B cells
  3. spleen cells are mixed with myeloma cells to help them proliferate; they fused together
  4. mix of cells is placed in an active medium to grow
  5. proliferate into hybridomas; screened for desired antibody
  6. selected hybridomas are cultured into large monoclonal antibodies
201
Q

monoclonal antibody vaccines (4)

A
  • trastuzumab: herceptin for breast cancer
  • muromonab-CD3: for kidney transplant
  • infliximab: for Crohn’s
  • ibritumomab + rituximab: for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Prokaryotic Biology (5 decks)

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