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DOOS3 > ID intro > Flashcards

ID intro Flashcards

1
Q

What normal flora of the oral cavity should we know?

A

Candida

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2
Q

What normal flora of the skin should we know?

A

Staph. Aureus and coagulase-neg staph

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3
Q

What normal flora of the GI should we know?

A

E coli and klebsiella

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4
Q

What normal flora of the large bowel should we know?

A

B frag? Not seeing it on the chart but it’s in my notes?

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5
Q

What are some reasons for microorganism detection?

A

Infection, contamination, and colonization

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6
Q

What are the 5 main groups of pathogens ( there are 7 in real life)?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
  5. Helminthes
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7
Q

What must a successful pathogen be able to do?

A
  1. ) enter the human host
  2. ) become established
  3. ) acquire nutrients
  4. ) avoid hosts innate defense
  5. ) replicate
  6. ) transmitted to a new susceptible host
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8
Q

What are the pathogenic mechanisms?

A
  • Direct tissue invasion
  • Production of a toxin
  • Immunologic enhancement or allergic reaction
  • Persistent or latent infection
  • Enhancement of host susceptibility to drugs
  • Immune suppression
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9
Q

What are the phases of infectious disease?

A

Incubation, prodromal, clinical, decline, recovery

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10
Q

What is the incubation phase?

A

time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms

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11
Q

What is the prodromal phase?

A

mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.

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12
Q

What is the clinical phase?

A

a person experiences typical signs and symptoms of disease- most people show up to see you at this point

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13
Q

What is the decline phase?

A

subsidence of symptoms

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14
Q

What is the recovery phase?

A

symptoms have disappeared, tissues heal, and the body regains strength

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15
Q

What is virulence?

A

A quantitative measure of pathogenicity

likelihood of causing disease

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16
Q

Are encapsulated pneumococci more or less virulent than nonencap?

A

MORE

Same goes for strains that express toxins, these are more virulent

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17
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

properties that enable microorganism to establish itself and replicate and enhance the microbe’s potential to cause overt pathology

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18
Q

What are the 2 parts of the immune system?

A

innate immunity: nonspecific and immediately available

acquired immunity: develops over time (adaptive) to specific antigens

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19
Q

What does the immune system consist of?

A

immune cells, and the central and peripheral lymphoid structures

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20
Q

What does innate immunity mediate?

A

the initial, “nonspecific” protection against infections and is referred to as natural or native immunity
Includes body defenses that are present at birth

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21
Q

Can innate immune response adapt to invading organisms?

A

NO- it is identical upon repeated exposure

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22
Q

What are the 3 innate defenses?

A

Anatomic and physical barriers
Chemical and inflammatory mediators
Cellular components

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23
Q

What is the adaptive immune response?

A

the host defense that is capable of specifically recognizing and remembering a large variety of pathogens

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24
Q

What are the important properties of the adaptive immune response?

A

Specificity and diversity
Memory,
Clonal expansion
Nonreactivity to self

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25
Q

What factors impact host pathogen interactions?

A
  • Metabolic changes
  • Nutrition
  • Aging
  • Stress
  • Hormones
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26
Q

What is the definition of fever?

A

a state of elevated body temperature that is mediated by hypothalamus
typically in response to infection or inflammation
>100.4 = fever on exam

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27
Q

What are non-infectious causes of fever?

A

Malignancy, autoimmune, RA, SLE, thyroid storm, transfusion, PE/DVT, physiologic stress, post MI/trauma/surgery, meds(DRUG FEVER)

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28
Q

What are common meds that cause fever?

A

PCN, cephs, sulfonamides, phenytoin, phenobarb, carbazepine, amphotericin B, salicylates, and antipsychotics

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29
Q

What might lead you to think drug fever?

A

Starts 1-2 weeks after initiating drug, pt looks stable otherwise, no left shift, etf

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30
Q

What are some less common causes of drug fever?

A

Allopurinol, impenem, vanco, NSAID, coke, antihistamines, TCA, atropine

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31
Q

What mediates drug fever?

A

IgE hypersensitivity reaction

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32
Q

What PE finding can you use to support the diagnosis of drug fever?

A

Relative bradycardia- heart rate is to slow for the elevated temp

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33
Q

When can you not use relative brady to support drug fever?

A

If the pt is taking any meds that can affect pulse rate

34
Q

What in someones social hx would immediate indicate a staph A infection?

A

IV drug user

35
Q

What should you suspect or look for in alcoholics?

A

Listeria

36
Q

What are signs of infection?

A

Fever, leukocytosis, clinical findings, increased ESR and CRP and loss of glucose control

37
Q

What are host factors that need to be taken into consideration for anti-infective therapy?

A
  • Age
  • Pregnancy
  • Genetic or metabolic abnormalities
  • Renal and hepatic function
  • Site of Infection: need adequate concentration and penetration
38
Q

Should daptomycin be used in pneumonia or pulmonary infections?

A

NO it is inactivated by pulm surfactants

39
Q

What should you look for in antimicrobial therapy to determine treatment?

A 
In vitro results – cultures 
Toxicity
Antimicrobial synergism
Adverse effects
Route of administration 
Dosing Regimen 
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
40
Q

What do bactericidal agents do?

A

Kill the bacteria, use these in sterile site infections!

41
Q

What normal flora of the oral cavity should we know?

A

Candida

42
Q

What normal flora of the skin should we know?

A

Staph. Aureus and coagulase-neg staph

43
Q

What normal flora of the GI should we know?

A

E coli and klebsiella

44
Q

What normal flora of the large bowel should we know?

A

B frag? Not seeing it on the chart but it’s in my notes?

45
Q

What are some reasons for microorganism detection?

A

Infection, contamination, and colonization

46
Q

What are the 5 main groups of pathogens ( there are 7 in real life)?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
  5. Helminthes
47
Q

What must a successful pathogen be able to do?

A
  1. ) enter the human host
  2. ) become established
  3. ) acquire nutrients
  4. ) avoid hosts innate defense
  5. ) replicate
  6. ) transmitted to a new susceptible host
48
Q

What are the pathogenic mechanisms?

A
  • Direct tissue invasion
  • Production of a toxin
  • Immunologic enhancement or allergic reaction
  • Persistent or latent infection
  • Enhancement of host susceptibility to drugs
  • Immune suppression
49
Q

What are the phases of infectious disease?

A

Incubation, prodromal, clinical, decline, recovery

50
Q

What is the incubation phase?

A

time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms

51
Q

What is the prodromal phase?

A

mild, nonspecific symptoms that signal onset of some diseases.

52
Q

What is the clinical phase?

A

a person experiences typical signs and symptoms of disease- most people show up to see you at this point

53
Q

What is the decline phase?

A

subsidence of symptoms

54
Q

What is the recovery phase?

A

symptoms have disappeared, tissues heal, and the body regains strength

55
Q

What is virulence?

A

A quantitative measure of pathogenicity

likelihood of causing disease

56
Q

Are encapsulated pneumococci more or less virulent than nonencap?

A

MORE

Same goes for strains that express toxins, these are more virulent

57
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

properties that enable microorganism to establish itself and replicate and enhance the microbe’s potential to cause overt pathology

58
Q

What are the 2 parts of the immune system?

A

innate immunity: nonspecific and immediately available

acquired immunity: develops over time (adaptive) to specific antigens

59
Q

What does the immune system consist of?

A

immune cells, and the central and peripheral lymphoid structures

60
Q

What does innate immunity mediate?

A

the initial, “nonspecific” protection against infections and is referred to as natural or native immunity
Includes body defenses that are present at birth

61
Q

Can innate immune response adapt to invading organisms?

A

NO- it is identical upon repeated exposure

62
Q

What are the 3 innate defenses?

A

Anatomic and physical barriers
Chemical and inflammatory mediators
Cellular components

63
Q

What is the adaptive immune response?

A

the host defense that is capable of specifically recognizing and remembering a large variety of pathogens

64
Q

What are the important properties of the adaptive immune response?

A

Specificity and diversity
Memory,
Clonal expansion
Nonreactivity to self

65
Q

What factors impact host pathogen interactions?

A
  • Metabolic changes
  • Nutrition
  • Aging
  • Stress
  • Hormones
66
Q

What is the definition of fever?

A

a state of elevated body temperature that is mediated by hypothalamus
typically in response to infection or inflammation
>100.4 = fever on exam

67
Q

What are non-infectious causes of fever?

A

Malignancy, autoimmune, RA, SLE, thyroid storm, transfusion, PE/DVT, physiologic stress, post MI/trauma/surgery, meds(DRUG FEVER)

68
Q

What are common meds that cause fever?

A

PCN, cephs, sulfonamides, phenytoin, phenobarb, carbazepine, amphotericin B, salicylates, and antipsychotics

69
Q

What might lead you to think drug fever?

A

Starts 1-2 weeks after initiating drug, pt looks stable otherwise, no left shift, etf

70
Q

What are some less common causes of drug fever?

A

Allopurinol, impenem, vanco, NSAID, coke, antihistamines, TCA, atropine

71
Q

What mediates drug fever?

A

IgE hypersensitivity reaction

72
Q

What PE finding can you use to support the diagnosis of drug fever?

A

Relative bradycardia- heart rate is to slow for the elevated temp

73
Q

When can you not use relative brady to support drug fever?

A

If the pt is taking any meds that can affect pulse rate

74
Q

What in someones social hx would immediate indicate a staph A infection?

A

IV drug user

75
Q

What should you suspect or look for in alcoholics?

A

Listeria

76
Q

What are signs of infection?

A

Fever, leukocytosis, clinical findings, increased ESR and CRP and loss of glucose control

77
Q

What are host factors that need to be taken into consideration for anti-infective therapy?

A
  • Age
  • Pregnancy
  • Genetic or metabolic abnormalities
  • Renal and hepatic function
  • Site of Infection: need adequate concentration and penetration
78
Q

Should daptomycin be used in pneumonia or pulmonary infections?

A

NO it is inactivated by pulm surfactants

79
Q

What should you look for in antimicrobial therapy to determine treatment?

A 
In vitro results – cultures 
Toxicity
Antimicrobial synergism
Adverse effects
Route of administration 
Dosing Regimen 
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
80
Q

What do bactericidal agents do?

A

Kill the bacteria, use these in sterile site infections!

DOOS3 (12 decks)

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