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1
Q

What are the shapes of gram-positive bacteria?

A

Clusters (Staphylococci), Rods (Bacillus anthracis), Cocci in chains (Streptococci)Classics: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacillus, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria

Classics: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, Bacillus, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Listeria

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2
Q

What are the shapes of gram-negative bacteria?

A

Rods and Cocci. Classics: Neisseria (diploid cocci), Moraxella (diploid cocci), Spirochetes (Treponema pallidum- syphilis), Mycobacteria (kind of) TB- acid fast staining

Classics: Neisseria (diploid cocci), Moraxella (diploid cocci), Spirochetes (Treponema pallidum- syphilis), Mycobacteria (kind of) TB- acid fast staining

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3
Q

Why do Clostridium botulinum and Corynebacterium diphtheria have an odd shape?

A

Clostridium botulinum is classed as rods, but they have a cocci-shaped head that produces spores. Corynebacterium has a dumbbell shape that forms spores “enteric precautions” because it is multi-drug resistant and is a hospital-acquired infection. Clean with soap and water NOT hand sanitizer.

It is multi-drug resistant and is a hospital-acquired infection. Clean with soap and water NOT hand sanitizer.

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4
Q

What is the difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria cell walls?

A

Gram-positive bacteria stain purple due to their very thick peptidoglycan layer outside of their cell membrane phospholipid bilayer. The peptidoglycan has teichoic acid which is an antigenic determinant, with surface proteins and lipoteichoic acid.
Gram-negative bacteria have a small peptidoglycan layer with the endotoxin lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and surface proteins. They have an outer membrane and cell membrane separated by the peptidoglycan layer.

Gram-positive has surface proteins and lipoteichoic acid.

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5
Q

What factors affect bacterial virulence?

A

Capsid, slime layer, and biofilm

These factors make bacteria hard to treat and very virulent.

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6
Q

What are endotoxins and exotoxins?

A

Endotoxin differs from exotoxin in that it is not a protein excreted from cells, but rather is a normal part of the outer membrane that sheds off, especially during cell lysis.
Endotoxins are released when bacteria are broken down.
Exotoxins are released by bacteria an example is tetanus, where a protein is released to cause infection.

Example of exotoxin: tetanus.

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7
Q

What is mycoplasma?

A

Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall or peptidoglycan layer, making it neither gram-positive nor gram-negative. It has a lipoprotein membrane and can cause erythema multiforme and walking pneumonia.

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8
Q

What are the shapes of bacteria?

A

Cocci, baceiilus, vibrios, spirochaetes, spirilla. Some bacteria lack a distinct shape

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9
Q

Define transformation of DNA.

A

Transformation is when a cell takes up exogenous DNA from its environment, integrating it into its genome.

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10
Q

Define conjugation of DNA.

A

Conjugation is the direct transfer of genetic material (DNA) from one bacterial cell to another through physical contact.

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11
Q

Define transduction of DNA.

A

Transduction involves a bacteriophage carrying DNA from one bacterium to another.

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12
Q

What are viruses?

A

They are energy-less and float around until they attach to a host cell. They have a nucleic acid genome (DNA or RNA, single or double-stranded inside the capsid), a protective protein shell called a capsid, and an envelope (impacts virulence, not all viruses have this) Vary in size, shape, and life cycles.

They vary in size, shape, and life cycles.

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13
Q

What are some RNA viruses?

A

Toga, corona, retro, picorna, calici, reo, flavi, orthomyxo, paramyxo, rhabdo, bunya, arena, filo
Can be negative or positive. Reverse transcription in HIV. RNA to DNA by reverse transcription. DNA to mRNA by transcription. mRNA to enzymes by translation

RNA can be negative or positive, with reverse transcription in HIV.

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14
Q

What are some DNA viruses?

A

HHAPPy: Herpes, Hepadna, adeno, papova, parvo, and pox. DNA to mRNA by transcription. mRNA to enzymes by translation.

DNA is transcribed to mRNA, which is then translated to enzymes.

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15
Q

What are the stages of viral multiplication?

A
  1. Attachment: Phage attaches to host cell. 2. Penetration: Viral DNA enters host. 3. Biosynthesis: Phage DNA replicates. 4. Maturation: New phage particles assemble. 5. Lysis: Cell lyses, releasing phages.
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16
Q

What are yeasts and molds?

A

Yeasts reproduce by budding, while molds grow as filamentous structures.

Diflucan/Fluconazole works on the chitin cell wall.

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17
Q

What is an India Ink stain used for?

A

staining of cryptococcus

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18
Q

What are parasites?

A

AKA protozoa (some may have flagella): Entamoeba histolytic (1,3, eat RBCs, have bloody diarrhea), Giardia lamblia and Cyclospora cayetanesis (non-bloody diarrhea, usually associated with daycares), Cryptosporidium and Isopora belli (immunocompromised pts will get diarrhea)
Other parasites include: malaria, Toxoplasmosis gondii, Pneumocystis carinii

They can cause various types of diarrhea and other infections.

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19
Q

What is Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

STI is most common in women and causes odorous discharge. Men can be asymptomatic.
Diagnose with a wet prep and microscope.

Diagnosed with a wet prep and microscope.

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20
Q

What are amoebas?

A

Amoebas are rare infections caused by Naegleria fowleri, Acanthamoeba, and Balamuthia mandrillaris.

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21
Q

What are helminths?

A

More commonly known as worms and seen most often in kids.
Ingestion of worn eggs: Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura (whipworm), Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
Stepping on something outside: Nectar americanus (hookworm) and Strongyloides stercoralis.

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22
Q

What is a prion?

A

Prions are misfolded proteins (they do not have a capsid or an envelope!!!!!!) and are capable of causing infectious disease by inducing normal proteins to adopt an abnormal structure. They reproduce on their own.
Some key features include: lack nucleic acids (unlike viruses and bacteria) Resistant to standard sterilization methods (heat, radiation, and chemicals)

They lack nucleic acids and are resistant to standard sterilization methods.

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23
Q

What are examples of prion diseases?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD), Kuru, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease), Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI).

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24
Q

What is the difference between PrP-sen and PrP-res?

A

PrP-sen NORMAL sen: sensitive. Brains and neurons. Broken down by the body.
PrP-res is disease causing. “Resistant” to being broken down

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25
Q

What is aggregation of PRP-res in the brain?

A

Amyloid fiber formation (fibril)- neuronal cell death- astrocyte “clean up”, because there are holes left in the brain after.

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26
Q

What is spongiform/prion disease?

A

“Spongiform” changes in the brain and causes progressive neurodegeneration.
Symptoms: rapidly progressive dementia, ataxia (loss of coordination), myoclonus (involuntary jerking movements), behavioral changes and insomnia
Course: Rapid progression over wks to months. Uniformly fatal outcome

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27
Q

How can we contract spongiform/prion disease?

A

By eating infected tissue, inheriting mutations in the prion protein gene, or spontaneous formation of PrP-res.

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28
Q

What is the anatomy of lymph nodes?

A

Lymph nodes dump fluid into veins. Lateral transport from SI to bloodstream. Fibroblast in loose connective tissue anchors lymph nodes. The endothelial cells have a flaplike minivalve that are loosely joined cells at capillary walls that when there is an increase in interstitial fluid, it pushes the valves open. The filaments anchored to connective tissue anchor the node to surrounding structures and help the valve open with interstitial fluid as well. Where B and T APCs are.

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29
Q

What is the physiology of lymph nodes?

A

Lymph flows through the lymphatic capillaries, collecting lymphatic vessels, lymphatic trunks, and lymphatic ducts, it may flow through several lymph nodes along the way. It helps to maintain blood volume lymoh nodes have low pressure, so skeletal help lymph move.
Immobilize people after surgery. Keep lymph in an area to keep immune components theres to speed up recovery.

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30
Q

What are lymphatic trunks?

A

Formed by the union of largest collecting vessels, drain largest areas of collecting vessels, drain large areas of body. Named for regions of the body they drain: paired lumbar, paired bronchomediastinal,paired subclavian, paired jugular trunks, and single intestinal trunk. The cisterna chyli is the node in the abdominal cavity.

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31
Q

What are the responsibilities of the right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct?

A

Right lymphatic duct: drains lymph from the upper limb, and the right side of the head and thorax. Empties into the blood at the junction of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins.
Thoracic duct: drains lymph from the rest of the body. Empties into the blood at the junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins

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32
Q

Why do T cells need to mature?

A

T cells need to mature for immunocompetence and self-tolerance.

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33
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

Initial site of lymphocyte development, which supply the secondary lymphoid organs with mature by naive lymphocytes
Thymus- where t cells mature
Red bone marrow- where T and B cells are made

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34
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, Peyer’s patches, and appendix.

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35
Q

What do the cervical lymph nodes look like?

A

Cervical lymph nodes are typically swollen and inflamed during infections.

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36
Q

What are MALT lymph organs?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues
Tonsils, Peyer’s patches, and appendix, see some in respiratory tract, GI/GU

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37
Q

What are the four types of tonsils?

A

Pharyngeal (adenoids), Tubal, Palatine (largest), and Lingual.

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38
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues in the small intestine that build memory of bacteria.

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39
Q

What is the spleen’s role as a secondary lymph organ?

A

White pulp: immune response and proliferation. Storage of platelets
Red pulp: in babies essential RBC production
Splenic infarct can kill someone- happens in mono

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40
Q

Splenic infarct: can kill someone and happens in mono

A
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41
Q

What is the thymus as a primary lymph organ?

A

Bilobed where T cells matures and defining self vs. nonself. It shrinks with age. The blood thymus barrier. T cells mature as the enter the medulla (cortex to medulla, outer to inner) reg T cells are in the thymus corpuscle

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42
Q

What is red bone marrow’s role as a primary lymphoid organ?

A

Red bone marrow is where T and B cells are produced.

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43
Q

What is lymphedema?

A

Prevents normal return of lymph. Tumors and obesity play roles, pannus: compression from abdominal fat, whole leg

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44
Q

What is lymphangitis?

A

Streaking red marks where lymph node lines are swollen

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45
Q

What are acid-fast bacteria?

A

Acid-fast bacteria include Mycobacterium and Nocardia.

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46
Q

What is immunology?

A

The study of defenses the body uses to recognize itself from nonself (foreign) substances or cells; the immune system destroys or renders harmless foreign matter.

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47
Q

What are the functions of immune defense mechanisms?

A

Protection against infection by various types of pathogens: virus, microbes (bacteria, fungi. parasites). Isolate and remove foreign substances that are not microbial. Destroy cancer cells that may arise (immune surveillance)

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48
Q

What are some examples of mucous membranes?

A

Intact skin epidermis: acid mantle of skin and keratin
Intact mucous membranes: mucus, nasal hairs, cilia, gastric juice, acid mantle of vagina, lacrimal secretion (tears), saliva, urine

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49
Q

What are TLRs?

A

Recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns on invading microorganisms (PAMPs) and damage associated molecular patterns from damaged host cells (DAMPs)

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50
Q

What is the adaptive immune response?

A

It is specific and depends on specific recognition by lymphocytes of the substance or cells to be attacked

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51
Q

What is pus?

A

Pus is a creamy mixture of dead neutrophils, tissue, and pathogens.

52
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A

It is nonspecific and defends against foreign substances or cells w/o having to recognize their specific identities. It recognizes carbohydrates or lipids on microbial or viral cells walls that are “non-self” using toll-like receptors (TLRs)
1st line: surface barriers: skin, mucous membranes
2nd line: internal defenses: phagocytes, NK cells, inflammation, antimicrobial proteins, fever (causes liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc which is needed by microorganisms and increases metabolic rate, which increases rate of repair

53
Q

What is an abscess?

A

An abscess is a sac of pus walled off by collagen fibers, which may need surgical drainage.

54
Q

What are NK cells?

A

Nonphagocytic, kill via apoptosis (using perforin and granzymes (granules). Large lymphocytes that police blood and lymph. Secretes TNF and IFN

55
Q

What is inflammation?

A

A local response to infection or injury. Prevents spread of damaging agents. Disposes of cell debris and pathogens. Alerts adaptive immune system and sets the stage for repair.

56
Q

What are the stages in the process of chemotaxis?

A

Margination: The loose attachment of neutrophils to the endothelial cells by adhesion molecules, resulting in collection of neutrophils near the infection site.
Diapedesis: Squeezing of neutrophils between adjacent endothelial cells of the capillaries, to enter the infection site.
Chemotaxis: Migration of neutrophils towards the infection site, due to the chemoattractant released by damaged cells.

57
Q

What are Interferons?

A

IFN, a family of immune modulating proteins. Antimicrobial proteins. 2nd line immunity
Type I: block viral replication in host cells and are released into ECF to “warn” healthy neighboring cells (COVID-19 limits this)
Type II: IFN-gamma, produced by immune cells and potentiates the actions of type I interferon, enhances macrophages activity, participates in chemotaxis in inflammation
Can use IFNs to cure hep C

58
Q

What is the complement cascade?

A

C3 activation leads to the development of a MAC, opsonization (and enhanced phagocytosis), and enhancement of inflammation. Bacteria and viruses don’t have regulatory receptors. A lectin is a type of protein that can bind specifically to certain sugars or carbohydrates on the surfaces of cells or microorganisms w/ enzymatic activity. Lectins are widely found in nature and play essential roles in many biological processes, including cell-cell communication, immune responses, and pathogen recognition

59
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

Squeezing of neutrophils between adjacent endothelial cells of the capillaries to enter the infection site.

60
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Migration of neutrophils towards the infection site, due to the chemoattractant released by damaged cells.

61
Q

What are interferons?

A

IFN, a family of immune modulating proteins. Antimicrobial proteins. 2nd line immunity.

62
Q

What is Type I interferon?

A

Blocks viral replication in host cells and is released into ECF to ‘warn’ healthy neighboring cells.

63
Q

What is Type II interferon?

A

IFN-gamma, produced by immune cells, potentiates the actions of type I interferon, enhances macrophage activity, and participates in chemotaxis in inflammation.

64
Q

What is the complement cascade?

A

C3 activation leads to the development of a MAC, opsonization, and enhancement of inflammation.

65
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small proteins secreted by cells of the immune system that act as signaling molecules to regulate immune responses, inflammation, and cellular communication.

66
Q

Some bacteria, such as tuberculosis bacilli, resist digestion by macrophages and remain alive inside. How?

A

Can form tumorlike growths called granulomas- area of infected macrophages surrounded by uninfected macrophages and outer capsules. Bacteria may remain inactive forever, or if person’s immunity decreases, may break free, become activated, and cause disease. TB aggregates itself into granulocytes and forms tumors called granulomas

67
Q

What are the immune system’s adaptive defenses?

A

Specific: recognizes and targets specific antigens
Systemic: not restricted to initial site
Has memory: mounts an even stronger attack to “known” antigens (second and subsequent exposures)
Humoral immunity (B cells) and cellular immunity (T cells)
Any molecule that can trigger an adaptive immune response against itself or the cell bearing it is called an antigen.

68
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Any molecule that can trigger an adaptive immune response against itself or the cell bearing it.

69
Q

APCs must present the antigen with the MHC for recognition of T cells. What is MHC?

A

MHC proteins are, in essence, cellular “identity tags”- that is genetic markers of biological self. MHC I: found on the surface of virtually all cells of the body except erythrocytes (and dendritic cells displaying endogenous antigens). MHC II: found mainly on the surface of macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells (specifically displaying exogenous antigens)
APC: dendritic cells, B cells, macrophages/mast cells

70
Q

What is MHC?

A

MHC proteins are cellular ‘identity tags’ that are genetic markers of biological self.

71
Q

What are endogenous antigens?

A

Antigens that typically come from pathogens inside the cell, such as viruses or intracellular bacteria.

72
Q

What are exogenous antigens?

A

Antigens that are typically derived from extracellular pathogens that have been engulfed by dendritic cells.

73
Q

What is the difference between B cells and T cells?

A

B cells are humoral and target extracellular pathogens, while T cells are cellular and target intracellular pathogens.

74
Q

Humoral Immune response

A

Antibody production from direct antigen binding. Remember B cells also do some antigen presentation. B cells have IgG on their cell surface

75
Q

What is the basic antibody structure?

A

Two identical heavy chains, two identical light chains, and variable regions at one end of each arm combine to form two identical antigen-binding sites.

76
Q

Antigen-antibody complexes do not destroy antigens, they prepare them for the destruction by innate defenses (i.e. extracellular targets). What is the basic antibody structure?

A

Antibodies make it and/or inactivate it for recognition by the immune system.
Basic antibody structure: two identical heavy (H) chains, Two identical light (L) chains, and variable (V) regions at one end of each arm combine to form two identical antigen-binding sites. Stems or constant © regions (aka “effector” regions) determine antibody class.

77
Q

What role do monoclonal antibodies play?

A

They can be used as clinical tools.

78
Q

Parasitic infections by worms such as Ascaris and Schistosoma require different immune attack strategies

A

Worms are too big for regular PLAN attack (Precipitation, lysis, agglutination or neutralization). IgE antibodies still play a critical role in worm’s destruction by binding to the surface of the worm, marking it for destruction by eosinophils. Eosinophils bind to exposed stems of IgE, which triggers eosinophils to release their toxic contents onto prey, lysing it from the outside

79
Q

How do T cells mature in the thymus?

A

T cells recognize MHC as ‘self’ for survival and as foreign for apoptosis. T cell recognizes MHC as “self”= survival. T cell recognizes MHC as foreign= apoptosis (clonal deletion)

80
Q

What is clonal inactivation?

A

The development of unresponsiveness in potentially self-reacting T cells in the periphery of the body.

81
Q

How are T lymphocytes activated?

A

Via antigen presentation on APC (MHC I or II) or by intracellular antigens displayed by cells infected with viruses or bacteria, cancerous or abnormal cells, foreign (transplanted) cells (MHC I)

82
Q

What are CD4 cells?

A

Inactive, helper and regulatory T cells are active, APC requires MHC II and stimulus (release of IL-1 and 2, TNF-alpha, and other cytokines by APC)

83
Q

What are CD8 cells?

A

Inactive cytotoxic T cells that use perforin and granzymes to induce cell apoptosis.

84
Q

What are regulatory T cells?

A

They help maintain balance and prevent autoimmunity.

85
Q

What are NK cells?

A

They promote apoptosis and recognize signs of abnormality that cytotoxic T cells do not, such as: cells that lack class I MHC proteins, antibodies coating target cell, different surface markers seen on stressed cells

86
Q

What are immunodeficiencies?

A

Congenital or acquired conditions that impair function or production of immune cells or molecules.
Genetic mutations: example severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) and common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Acquired: malnutrition, immunosuppressive drugs, HIV/AIDS (CD4 cells)
Bone marrow dysfunction: myelodysplastic syndromes
Thymic aplasia: deficiencies in T cells
Impaired antibody production: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Disease affected phagocytes: chronic granulomatous disease

87
Q

What is autoimmune disease?

A

Results when the immune system loses ability to distinguish self from foreign
Autoimmunity: production of autoantibodies and sensitized Tc cells that destroy body tissues.
Key steps in development: genetics, environment, loss of immune tolerance, autoantibody production, T cell activation, inflammation and tissue damage, organ specific manifestations, and cycles of flares and remissions
ExampleS: T1DM, rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, Hashimotos

88
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

Diseases in which immune responses to antigens cause excessive inflammation and damage to the body. Requires sensitization and then additional exposures to the same antigen causing the damaging immune response. 4 types of hypersensitive: cytotoxic, immune-complex, delayed, and immediate

89
Q

Graft/tissue rejection and transfusion rxns

A

Transplanted tissue and/or organs are recognized by the body as foreign and the immune system (T cells) launches an attack against them. Transfusion/blood reaction is caused by antigens and the binding of antibodies, specifically ABO antigens found on the surface of RBCs

90
Q

What is Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Allergen binds to IgE on mast cells causing release of histamine, leading to allergic reactions. Allergic rhinitis (hay fever); Asthma (allergic); anaphylaxis (ex: from bee stings, peanuts, or shellfish), urticaria (hives)

91
Q

What is Type II hypersensitivity?

A

(no external allergen however something present on our own cells) and IgG/IgM bind causing activation of complement, NK cells, macrophages
Hemolytic anemia (AUTOIMMUNE OR DRUG-INDUCED) rheumatic fever, goodpasture syndrome; Graves’ disease (Antibody-mediated stimulation of the thyroid receptor)

92
Q

What is Type III hypersensitivity?

A

soluble antigens are present in the body and form a complex and deposit in tissues such as joints, glomeruli, and blood vessels and stimulate the complement system to attack these tissues. Autoimmune and more complicated
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, serum sickness; arthus rxn (localized rxn after injection of an antigen)

93
Q

What is Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

CD4 (T helper cells) recognize (genetic component) intracellular antigens (ex: a liquid urushiol from poison ivy) causing release of cytokines and activate macrophages/T-helper cells which then attack and release cytokines
Tuberculin skin test (PPD test); Contact dermatitis (ex: poison ivy, nickel allergy); T1DM, MS

94
Q

What is the function of neutrophils and where are they produced?

A

Phagocytosis, release inflammatory chemical and they are produced in the bone marrow

95
Q

What is the main function of basophils and where are they produced?

A

Similar to mast cells, release histamine and inflammatory chemicals and they are produced in the bone marrow

96
Q

What is the main function of eosinophils and where are they produced?

A

Destroy parasites, hypersensitivity reactions and they are produced in the bone marrow

97
Q

What are the functions of monocytes/macrophages and where are they produced?

A

Enter tissues and transform into macrophages and they are produced in the bone marrow

98
Q

What is the main function of B cell ( -> plasma cell) and where are they produced?

A

Binding antigens/internalize them to then transform to plasma cells to secrete antibodies, present antigens to T helper cells and they are produced in the Bone marrow, where they mature and are then activated in the periphery

99
Q

What is the main function of Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ cells are the inactive form) and where are they produced?

A

Bind antigens on plasma membrane of target cells and destroy the cells (virus infected, cancer, tissue transplants) and they are produced in Bone marrow, mature in thymus, activated in periphery

100
Q

What is the main function of Helper T cells (CD4+ cells are the inactive form) and where are they produced?

A

Secrete cytokines that help activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and macrophages and they are produced in the Bone marrow, mature in thymus, activated in periphery

101
Q

What is the main function of Regulatory T cells (CD4+ cells are the inactive form) and where are they produced?

A

Inhibitors on other immune cells and they are produced in the Bone marrow, mature in thymus, activated in periphery

102
Q

What is the main function of NK cells and where are they produced?

A

Bind to virus infected and cancer cells to kill them, function in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity and they are produced in the Bone marrow, where they mature and are then activated in the periphery

103
Q

What is the main function of Plasma cells and where are they produced?

A

Secrete antibodies and they are produced in the Peripheral lymphoid organs differentiate from B cells during the immune response.

104
Q

What is the main function of macrophages and where are they produced?

A

Phagocytosis, antigen presentation, cytokines involved in inflammation and activation of T cells and they are produced Bone marrow, reside in almost all tissues and organs

105
Q

What is the main function of dendritic cells and where are they produced?

A

Phagocytosis, antigen presentation and they are produced in Almost all tissues/organs

106
Q

What is the main function of mast cells and where are they produced?

A

Release histamine and other chemicals involved in inflammation and they are produced in Bone marrow, reside in almost all tissues and organs

107
Q

What is the main role of neutrophils?

A

First responders, acute inflammation

108
Q

What is the main role of macrophages (free and fixed)?

A

Long-term phagocytes, tissue repair

109
Q

What is the main role of dendritic cells?

A

Antigen presentation, link to adaptive immunity APCs

110
Q

What is the main role of monocytes?

A

Precursor to macrophages and dendritic cells

111
Q

What are the functions of ILs?

A

Group of cytokines that mediate communication between immune cells. They regulate cell growth, differentiation, and immune response.

112
Q

What is the role of TNF?

A

A cytokine involved in systemic inflammation. It plays a role in regulating immune cells and can contribute to the inflammatory response.

113
Q
A
114
Q

What is the role of Leukotreienes?

A

Similar to prostaglandins, leukotrienes are lipid mediators that contribute to inflammation, especially in conditions like asthma. They are produced by various cells, including mast cells

115
Q

What is the role of bradykinin?

A

It is a peptide that promotes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability. It also induces pain and is involved in the regulation of blood pressure.

116
Q

What is the function of histamine?

A

Increases vascular permeability and causes vasodilation. Released by mast cells and basophils, increases vascular permeability, leading to the movement of immune cells to the site of injury or infection. It also causes vasodilation.

117
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

Lipid compounds that mediate inflammation, pain, and fever. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) work by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins.

118
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small proteins that play a crucial role in cell signaling and regulate immune responses. They include ILs, IFNS, and TNF. They also regulate immune responses and promote inflammation.

119
Q

What is the function of IL-1?

A

Stimulates IL-2 receptor expression and systemic responses to inflammation.

120
Q

What is the role of complement proteins?

A

Enhance the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells. Part of the immune system, complement proteins enhance the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells. They can also induce inflammation.

121
Q

What is the function of nitric oxide?

A

Has vasodilatory effects and helps regulate the immune response. Produced by various cells, including macrophages. Has vasodilatory effects and helps regulate the immune response. It also has antimicrobial properties

122
Q

What is the function of IgM (pentamer)?

A

First produced during immune response, fairly abundant, along with IgG, provide most of the specific immunity against bacteria and viruses

123
Q

What is the function of IgG (monomer)?

A

Most abundant and involved in long-term immunity, causes placenta (also called gamma globulins)

124
Q

What is the function of IgA (dimer)?

A

Defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces (saliva, tears, breast milk)

125
Q

What is the function of IgD (monomer)

A

Not fully understood. Found on the surface of B cells-initiation of immune response?

126
Q

What is the function of IgE (monomer)?

A

Allergic reactions and defense against parasites, binds to mast cells and basophils to trigger the release of histamines

A + P (5 decks)

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