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4th year passmed > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

What test is done to diagnose syphillitic chancre?

A

RPR/VDRL blood test

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2
Q

What does a urinary NAAT test look for?

A

Urethral gonorrhoea and chlamydia

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3
Q

What antibiotic should be prescribed in the event of an animal bite?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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4
Q

How does an Aspergilloma form?

A

A mass like fungal ball (mycetoma) colonises an existing lung cavity e.g. 2ary to TB, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis or emphysema

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5
Q

What is the commonest causative agent of malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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6
Q

What are the features of falciparum malaria?

A 
Fever
HSM
Diarrhoea
Jaundice
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
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7
Q

What is the transmission risk following needle stick injury of:

HepB
HepC
HIV

A

HepB - 20-30%
HepC - 0.5-2%
HIV - 0.3%

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8
Q

What should be offered after an initial negative HIV test result in an asymptomatic patient?

A

Offer repeat test at 12 weeks

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9
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A

HIV antibodies and p24 antigen test

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10
Q

Which bacterial infection its associated with erythema multiform?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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11
Q

What age group does mycoplasma pneumonia typically affect?

A

Younger patients

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12
Q

What are the classical features of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Long prodrome with insidious onset
Followed by dry cough
Bilateral consolidation

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13
Q

What are the complications of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A 
Haemolytic anaemia
Erythema multiform/nodosum
Meningoencephalitis
Pericarditis
Acute glomerulonephritis
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14
Q

What is the management of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Doxy or a macrolide

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15
Q

What is the incubation period of ebola virus?

A

2-21 days

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16
Q

What is the first line management of early Lyme disease?

A

Oral doxy for 14-21 days

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17
Q

What rash is seen in Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans

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18
Q

What are the presenting features of Lyme disease?

A

Early erythema migrans with systemic features
Cardio - HB, myocarditis
Neuro - CN7 palsy, meningitis

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19
Q

What organism causes bloody diarrhoea and hepatic abscesses?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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20
Q

What is the presentation of cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

A

Crusted ulcerative lesions at the site of the bite

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21
Q

What is the presentation of visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Fevers sweats rigors
Massive HSM
Grey skin - kala azar

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22
Q

What is the management of acute simple cystitis in a man?

A

7 days PO Trimethoprim/Nitrofurantoin

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23
Q

Which antibiotic causes a disulfaram like reaction when mixed with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole

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24
Q

Which Strep causes tonsillitis/pharyngitis?

A

Pyogenes

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25
Q

What should be given to patients with injuries high risk for Tetanus infection?

A

Tetanus vaccine booster AND tetanus IM Ig

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26
Q

Gastroenteritis with short incubation period and vomiting?

A

Staph a

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27
Q

Heat are the features of enteric typhoid fever/

A

Systemic upset initially
Relative bradycardia
Abdo pain + constipation
Rose spots on trunk

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28
Q

Which class of antibiotics can cause black hairy tongue?

A

Tetracyclines

29
Q

What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?

A

Discolouration of the teeth
Photosensitivity
Angioedema
Black hairy tongue

30
Q

What might cause a falsely negative Mantoux test?

A

Immunosuppression (sarcoid, steroids, AIDs, lymphoma)

31
Q

What are the features of Legionella pneumonia?

A 
Flu like prodrome
Dry cough
Confusion
Recent foreign travel
Hyponatraemia
Pleural effusion
32
Q

What is the diagnosis and management of Legionella pneumonia?

A

Dx - urinary antigens

Rx - Macrolide

33
Q

Which causes of gastroenteritis have the longest incubation period?

A

Giardiasis and amoebiasis - >7 days

34
Q

What are the live attenuated vaccines and when should they be avoided?

A 
BCG
MMR
Oral polio
Yellow fever
Oral typhoid

In immunosuppressed patients

35
Q

What organisms cause the following LP picture?
High protein
Normal glucose
Lots of mononuclear cells

A

HSV (Virus)

36
Q

How does Kaposi’s sarcoma present in children?

A

Usually no rash

Often only with generalised lymphadenopathy and enlarged tonsils

37
Q

What is the first line management of syphilis?

A

IM BenPen

38
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Seen sometimes following syphillis treatment
Presents with fever rash tachycardia but no signs of anaphylaxis.
Manage solely with antipyretics

39
Q

What are clue cells seeing?

A

Bacterial vaginosis?

40
Q

What is the management of bacterial vaginosis?

A

PO metronidazole

41
Q

How does diphtheria present?

A

Sore throat with grey ‘diphtheric membrane’ covering to tonsils
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Cranial nerve palsies
Heart block

42
Q

What happens to TPHA and VDRL results post syphilis management?

A

TPHA - remains positive

VDRL - goes negative

43
Q

What antibiotic is used for gonorrhoea?

A

IM Cef

44
Q

What antibiotic is used for extensive otitis extern?

A

Flucloxacillin

45
Q

What is the antibiotic management of PID?

A

Doxy + Met + Def

46
Q

Which chest infection causes reactivation of herpes simplex virus?

A

S. pneumonia

47
Q

Which antibiotics are commonly used to treats MRSA?

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Linezolid

48
Q

What antibiotic is used fro Legionella?

A

Clarithromycin

49
Q

What infection are sewage workers at risk of, why, and how does it present?

A

Leptospirosis
Transmitted via rat urine

Fever
Flu
Renal failure
Jaundice
Subconjunctival haemorrhage
50
Q

How long is HIV PEP?

A

4 weeks

51
Q

What is the management of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

6 months of sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

52
Q

What are the causes of painful and painless penile ulcers?

A

Painless - Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma Venereum, Donovanosis

Painful - Behcets, HSV, Chancroid

53
Q

What causes a gram negative diplococci meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

54
Q

Which pneumonia causes immune mediated neurological disease?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

55
Q

Which antibiotic should not be given to patients on methotrexate?

A

Trimethoprim

56
Q

Which vaccinations are offered routinely to pregnant women in the UK?

A

Influenza and pertussis

57
Q

Fevers on alternating days?

A

Malaria

58
Q

What agent might cause chronic opportunistic infection in immunosuppressed patients such as diabetics?

A

Pseudomonas

59
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

EBV

60
Q

What effect can trimethoprim have on the kidneys?

A

Can cause tubular dysfunction ->Hyperkalaemia and raised Cr

61
Q

When should HAART be started?

A

At the time of diagnosis

62
Q

What infection is common in renal transplant patients, and does it affect the lungs?

A

CMV - and yes, CMV pneumonitis

63
Q

What lung infection famously causes desaturations on exercise?

A

PCP

64
Q

What is the management of severe and non severe falciparum malaria, and non-falciparum malaria?

A

Severe - IV artesunate
Non-severe - Oral artesunate
non-falciparum - Chloroquine

65
Q

What is the management of asymptomatic bacteruria in pregant women?

A

Amoxicillin

66
Q

Which antimalarial is taken weekly and should be avoided in patients with depression?

A

Mefloquine

67
Q

What is the incubation period of yellow fever?

A

2-14 day incubation period

68
Q

What causes Chagas’ disease?

A

Trypanosome cruzi

69
Q

Chagas’ disease features?

A

Myocarditis -> DCM

Megaoesophagus and megagolon

4th year passmed (28 decks)

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