ID Flashcards

1
Q

Zika

A

humans and non-primates are reservoirs

Transmission:
- intrauterine, intrapartum, sex, blood transfusion, lab exposure

Sex: usually male to female.
prolonged viraemia in pregnant women; no evidence of increased susceptibility or severity in pregnant women
Safe sex for 3 months (male) and 2 months (female) after at risk travel

Incubation: 3-14 days (med 5 days)

Sx:
Rash (97%) for 6 days
Pruritis, HA, arthralgia, myalgia, nonpurulent conjunctivitis
fever in 50%
**
Complications:**
- congenital zika syndrome (fetal sequelae worse if infected in first trimester) can occur with both symptomatic and asymptomatic infection
>microcephaly with partial collapsed skull
>thin cerebral cortices with calcifications
>macular scarring and focal retinal mottling
>congenital contracture
>marked early hypertonia and extrapyramidal sx

diagnosis
- nucleic amplification tests (<7days of illness)
any bodily fluid - urine viraemia last longer than blood
- serology after 7 days (may be positive for years) - false negative is possible. can X react with other flaviviruses and vaccines

Symptomatic and pregnant: serum and urine for Zika virus PCR, dengue seum PCR and Dengue IgM
- USS after 4 weeks of infection, then regularly

Zika Virus exposure may breastfeed as transmission through breast milk has not been described although the virus is detectable in breast milk.

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2
Q

Do you add CS for TB meningitis?

A

YES, lower mortality rate

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3
Q

HIV and TB

A

Management of treatment-naïve HIV-infected patients with TB is especially challenging in areas with high rates of coinfection. Initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) may be complicated by the immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS), which can manifest as reactivation of latent TB, progression of active TB disease, or clinical deterioration in patients previously improving on antituberculous therapy.

For ART-naïve HIV-infected patients with CNS TB, initiation of ART should be delayed for the first eight weeks of antituberculous therapy, regardless of CD4 count. Treat TB first, then start ART after 8 weeks

All HIV-infected patients with TB be treated with ART. The optimal timing depends on the patient’s immune status:

For HIV-infected patients with pulmonary TB and CD4 cell count** <50 cells/microL,** initiation of ART within two weeks after starting TB treatment

For HIV-infected patients with pulmonary TB and CD4 count ≥50 cells/microL, initiation of ART within eight weeks after starting TB treatment

For HIV-infected patients with TB involving the central nervous system (CNS), ART should be delayed for the first eight weeks of antituberculous therapy, regardless of CD4 count.

For HIV-infected patients with baseline CD4 cell count <100 cells/microL on antituberculous therapy and initiating ART within 30 days of starting antituberculous therapy, prophylactic administration of prednisone during the first four weeks following initiation of AR may be considered to reduce the risk of IRIS

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4
Q

Syphilis

What are non-treponemal tests?

A

RPR and VDRL

Non-specific for syphilis: can be false positive in: pregnancy, SLE, APLS, TB, leprosy, malaria, HIV

**It become negative after treatment **

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5
Q

Syphilis

What are the treponemal specific tests?

A

realitative only
TP-EIA, TPHA

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6
Q

Syphilis

What do the test results mean?

A
  1. Positive non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test —> consistent with active syphilis infection
  2. Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test–> consistent with a false-positive syphilis result e.g. due to pregnancy or SLE (see list above)
  3. Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test : consistent with successfully treated syphilis
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7
Q

ESCHAPPM

A

E: Enterobacter spp.
S: Serratia spp.
C: Citrobacter freundii
H: Hafnia spp.
A: Aeromonas spp.
P: Proteus spp. (P. vulgaris)
P: Providencia spp.
M: Morganella morganii

Inducible beta lactamases

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8
Q

Which ceph has poor cover against gram positive organisms (including strep pneumoniae)?

A

Ceftazidime

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9
Q

Why ganciclovir in CMV?

A

Ganciclovir was the first antiviral agent approved for the treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. It is widely used for the treatment of CMV infections among patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity, particularly persons with poorly controlled and advanced HIV/AIDS, and recipients of solid organ and bone marrow transplantation, who are at high risk for invasive CMV disease.
The drug is converted intracellularly to ganciclovir 5’-monophosphate by a viral kinase, which is encoded by the cytomegalovirus (CMV) gene UL97 during infection. Subsequently, cellular kinases catalyze the formation of ganciclovir diphosphate and ganciclovir triphosphate, which is present in 10-fold greater concentrations in CMV or herpes simplex virus (HSV)-infected cells than uninfected cells.

Unlike acyclovir, ganciclovir has poor bioavailability (6%) and is therefore given intravenously

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10
Q

What are the main side effects of colistin?

A

Neuro and nephro toxicity

bacteriocidal abx
causes disruption to outer cell mb

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11
Q

Indications for surgery for native valve endocarditis?

A
  • valve dysfunction causing HF
  • Paravalvular extension - abscess, fistula, heart block
  • difficult to treat pathogen
  • Persistent infection >7days
  • Reccurent emboli and elarging vegetations
  • mobile vegetation >10mmon the MV or AV with one or more other relative indications
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12
Q

Can PJP be cultured?

A

no, but the organism needs to be visualised - this can be done with immunofluorescence

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12
Q

Can PJP be cultured?

A

no, but the organism needs to be visualised - this can be done with immunofluorescence

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13
Q

Why is valacyclovir better than acyclovir?

A
  • faster resolution of acute neuritis
  • lower rates of post hepatic neuralgia
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14
Q

Which antifungal or antibacterial medication causes blue-green visual aura?

A

Voriconazole

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15
Q

Side effects of voriconazole?

A
  • visual changes
  • hallucinations
  • prolonged QTc
  • neuropathy
  • CNS alterations - memory, concentration
  • alopecia
  • photosensitivity rash (linked to SqCC)
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16
Q

Valacyclovir and acyclovir

A
  • Valacyclovir acts as a prodrug for acyclovir
    0 Are phosphorylated by virally-encoded thymidine kinase and subsequently by cellular enzymes, yielding acyclovir triphosphate
  • Acyclovir triphosphate competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase
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17
Q

Penicillin allergy and other beta lactams

A

There is approximately two percent cross reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins. There is approximately 1% cross reactivity between penicillin and carbapenem. There is no cross reactivity between penicillin and monobactams therefore aztreonam is the most appropriate response.

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18
Q
A

The most frequent causes of brain abscess are Streptococcus and Staphylococcus spp; among these species, viridans streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus are the most common
Paranasal sinuses – Streptococcus spp (especially S. milleri), Haemophilus spp, Bacteroides spp, Fusobacterium spp

●Odontogenic sources – Streptococcus spp, Bacteroides spp, Prevotella spp, Fusobacterium spp, Haemophilus spp

●Otogenic sources – Enterobacteriaceae, Streptococcus spp, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Bacteroides spp

●Lungs – Streptococcus spp, Fusobacterium spp, Actinomyces spp

●Urinary tract – Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter spp

●Penetrating head trauma – Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacter spp, Clostridium spp

●Neurosurgical procedures – Staphylococcus spp, Streptococcus spp, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter spp

●Endocarditis – Viridans streptococci, S. aureus

●Congenital cardiac malformations (especially right-to-left shunts) – Streptococcus spp

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19
Q

Paradoxical reaction to anti-TB medications

A
  • enlargement of LN size
  • occurs in about 20% of pts
  • usually occurs between 3 weeks to 4 months
  • Culture negative
  • ## Male gender is predictive
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20
Q

MOA of antifungals in general

A

Azole: inhibits Ianosterol 14-a demethylase (CYP450), which converts Ianosterol to ergosterol –> damage to cell mb –> death

Amphotericin: binds to ergosterol and forms pores

Echinocandins: inhibits the enzyme that generates beta glucans

Flucytosine: inhibits DNA synthesis

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21
Q

Donovan bodies

A

Granuloma inguinale

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22
Q

Mechanism of acyclovir resistance?

A

●Reduced or absent thymidine kinase
●Altered thymidine kinase activity resulting in decreased acyclovir phosphorylation
●Altered viral DNA polymerase with decreased affinity for acyclovir triphosphate

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23
Q

Quantiferon gold sensitivity and specificity

A

Sensitivity ~80%
Specificity 98% in low TB pop with no RF

it may stay positive after successful TB treatment therefore cannot be used to assess outcome of treatment.

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24
Q

Antibiotics that have low association with developing C.diff colitis

A

Aminoglycosides, metronidazole, tetracyclines, teicoplanin, rifampicin and carbapenems

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25
Q

oral ACT (Artemether and lumefantrine combination therapy) absorption is determined by…

A

presence of rich, fatty food

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26
Q

EBV serology

A
  • IgM and IgG antibodies directed against the Epstein-Barr viral capsid antigen (VCA) are usually present at the onset of clinical illness because of the long viral incubation period.
  • IgM levels wane approximately three months later; thus, they are a reliable marker of acute infection in a clinically appropriate picture.

-IgG VCA antibodies persist for life and are a marker of EBV infection.

  • IgG antibodies to EBV nuclear antigen (EBNA; a protein expressed only when the virus begins to establish latency) **begin to appear 6 to 12 weeks after the onset of symptoms **and persist throughout life. Their presence early in the course of an illness effectively excludes acute EBV infection.
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27
Q

Which CD4 count do you worry about toxo?

A

<100

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of fluoroquinolone resistance?

A

reduced permeability via cell wall

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29
Q

Drug reaction groups

A

Type A: can affect any individual and are predictable from the known pharmacologic properties of the drug
- make up 90% of all ADR
- i.e. diarrhoea from abx, gastritis from NSAID, aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity

Type B: Occue in susceptible patients, and cannot predict from pharmacologic properties of the drug
- less common 10%
- majority of hypersensitivity reactions mediated by immunological or inflammatory mechanism
- *In addition, there are reactions, referred to as idiosyncratic drug reactions and exaggerated sensitivity reactions, which present with symptoms that do not involve the immune system or inflammatory cells.

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30
Q

TB reactivation

A

High RF:
- AIDS
- HIV
- Transplantation
- Silicosis
- CKD on RRT
- Carcinoma of head/neck
- Recent TB <2yrs
- abnormal CXR with apical fibronodular changes
- TNF alpha inhibitors

Moderate RF:
- Treatment with GC
- DM
- Young age when infected <4y

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31
Q

What’s different about ertapenam compared to other carbapenem

A

Narrower spectrum
Active against enterobacteriaceae, and anaerobes

Less active against: pseudomonas, acinetobacter, Gram positive (particularly enterococci and penicillin resistant pneumococci)

The major benefit of ertapenem over other carbapenems is that it has a long half-life and can be administered once daily.

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32
Q

Which antibiotics are NDM1 strain susceptible to?

A

Colistin, Tigecycline

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33
Q

Clostridium Difficile

A
  • Toxin B is essential for the virulence of C. difficile and is more than 10 times more potent than toxin A on a molar basis for mediating colonic mucosal damage. Thus, strains lacking toxin A can be as virulent as strains with both toxins
  • NAP1/BI/027 are hypervirulent strains
  • bezlotoxumab (monoclonal antibody against toxin B) together with standard oral antibiotic therapy was associated with a lower rate of recurrent infection than oral antibiotic therapy alone
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34
Q

Botulism

A

-acute onset of bilateral cranial neuropathies associated with symmetric descending weakness

  • Other key features include absence of fever, maintenance of alertness, and lack of sensory deficits other than blurred vision.
  • The diagnosis of botulism is confirmed by identification of toxin in serum, stool, vomitus, or food sources or by isolation of C. botulinum from stool, wound specimens, or food sources. However, initial detection of toxin requires one to four days and anaerobic cultures often take up to six days for growth and identification of the organism. Because these confirmatory tests do not yield timely results, the decision to administer antitoxin should be based on the presumptive clinical diagnosis of botulism and not be delayed while awaiting results of confirmatory diagnostic studies. (
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35
Q

Which medications are not used in MDR-TB treatmetn

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Rifabutin
Thiacetazone
Augmentin
Macrolides

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36
Q

What si the hallmark feature of diffuse scleroderma?

A

Tendon friction rubs

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37
Q

When to use steroids with PJP tx

A

CS within 72hr of anti PJP treatement helps to prevent respiratory failure and death in AIDS patients.

All patients with A-a gradient >45 or PaO2 <70 should receive corticosteroids when antimicrobial therapy is initiated.

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38
Q

Treatment for MAC

A

Clarithromycin or Azithromycin + Ethambutol +/- Rifabutin or Rifampicin

Penicillin is not effective

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39
Q

Tropic diseases with incubation <10d

A

Dengue
Yellow fever
Zika
Chikungunya
Infuenca
Enteric infections
Rickettsial infection

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40
Q

Tropical disease with incubation period 10-21

A

Malaria
Thyphoid
Leptospirosis
Brucellosis

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41
Q

Incubation period >21days in tropical disease

A

Hep A/B/E
Schistosomiasis
TB
Leishmaniasis
vivax malaria
Meliodosis
Trypanomiasis

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42
Q

Tropical diseases with fever and rash

A

Dengue, Chikungunya, Rickesttsial infection, enteric fever, measles, acute HIV infection

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43
Q

Tropical Diseases

Fever and abdominal pain

A

Enteric fever, Amboebic liver absces

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44
Q

Tropical Diseases

Fever lasting >2 weeks

A

Malaria, enteric fever, EBV, CMV, toxo, acute HIV, acute schistosomiasis, brucellosis, TB, Q fever, visceral leishmaniasis

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45
Q

Tropical Diseases

Fever ONSET >6weeks of travel

A

**Plasmodium vivax or ovale **
Acute Hep B,C, E
TB
Amoebic liver abscess

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46
Q

P. falciparum tx:

A

Central America: Chloroquine
Otherwise: Artemether-Lumafantire or Atovaquone-proguanil

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47
Q

P. Vivax or ovale tx

A

PNG/Indonesia: Chloroquine resistant, thus tx with Artemether-Lumafantrine, them primaquine

Otherise:
Chloroquine, then Primaquine

For Primaquine need to screen for G6PD activity
Tafenoquine is the new kid on the block - single dose, but need more G6PD activity

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48
Q

P. Knowlesi

A

Forest area in SE asia
Need PCR

REsponds to chloroquine

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49
Q

Severe malaria

A

High parasitaemia >10%
End organ dysfunction

Tx. IV artesunate

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50
Q

Malaria inx

A

Sporozoites to Liver

Thick film: screening
Thin: density and specification

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51
Q

Which species causing malaria has cyclic fever every 48h?

A

Plasmodium vivax/ovale

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52
Q

Which species causing malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Plasmodium malariae: cyclical fever every 72 hours

Plasmodium malariae: is associated with nephrotic syndrome.

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53
Q

Can you use ACT in pregnancy?

A

No

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54
Q

Leishmaniasis

A
  • intracellular protozoa Leishmania
    - bites of sandflies
  • Different forms: Cutaneous, mucocutaneous leishmaniasis and visceral forms are seen

Cutaneous:
- caused by tropica or mexicana
- crusted lesion at the site of bite +/- underlying ulcer
- if caught in South/Central america - it needs treatment due to risk of transformation to mucocutaneous

Mucocutaneous:
- braziliensis
- skin lesions spread to mucosa

Visceral:
-mostly caused by** Leishmania donovani**
- occurs in the Mediterranean, Asia, South America, Africa

Sx:
Fever, sweats, rigors
Grey skin (Kala-azar)
Pancytopenia with hepatosplenomegaly

Need BM for dx

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55
Q

Trypanosomiasis

A
  • African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
  • American trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease).
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56
Q

Trypanosomiasis

African trypanosomiasis, or sleeping sickness

A
  • Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa - Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa.
    Both types are spread by the** tsetse fly. **
    Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to follow a more acute course.

Clinical features include:

  • Trypanosoma chancre - **painless subcutaneous nodule at site of infection
    -
    intermittent fever**
  • enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes
  • later: central nervous system involvement e.g. somnolence, headaches, mood changes, meningoencephalitis

Treatment:
- IV pentamidine or suramin (early)
- later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol

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57
Q

Trypanosomiasis

American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease,

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

  • The vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic in the acute phase although a **chagoma **(an erythematous nodule at site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen.
  • Chronic Chagas disease affects heart and GIT
  • CM or arrthythmias
    - Megaoesophagus/Megacolon

Treatment:
- benznidazole or nifurtimox

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58
Q

**Interesting facts about rabies

A

RNA rhabdovirus
travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion

  • hydrophobia: water-provoking muscle spasms
  • hypersalivation
  • Negri bodies: cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons
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59
Q

Lyme disease

A
  • spirochete bacteria: Borrelia burgdorferi (North America), B. garinii, B. afzelii (Europe and Asia)
  • spread by ticks
  • needs tick attachment for >36h for infection

Clinical Features:
stage 1 (early localized stage: 7-14 d post-bite):

■ malaise, fatigue, headache, myalgias

erythema migrans: expanding, non-pruritic bulls-eye (target) lesions (red with clear centre) at site of tick bite
- typically develops 1-4 weeks after the initial bite but may present sooner
- usually painless, more than 5 cm in diameter and slowlly increases in size
- present in around 80% of patients

Stage 2 (early disseminated stage: weeks post-infection):

■** CNS: **
aseptic meningitis
CN palsies (CN VII palsy)
peripheral neuritis

cardiac: heart block or myocarditis

Stage 3: persistent stage - months to years
■ may not have preceding history of early-stage infection
■ MSK: chronic monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis
■ acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans (due to B. afzelii)
■ neurologic: encephalopathy, meningitis, neuropathy

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60
Q

LYme disease

Investigations

A

ELISA:
Ab to Borrelia burgdorferi

Treatment:
- Doxycycline or Amoxicillin or Cefuroxine
- -if you have erythema migrans, start Abx

Ceftriaxone if stage 2-3

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61
Q

Dengue

A
  • Endemic regions: Asia, Central/South America, Africa, Northern Territory Australia
  • Aedes aegypti
  • endemic during rainy season

Clinical maifestations:
Dengue fever:
- onset is sudden with high fever (may be biphasic, lasts 2-7 days), severe headache (especially in the retro-orbital area), arthralgia, myalgia, anorexia, abdominal discomfort, and sometimes a macular papular rash.
- Flushing, a characteristic feature is commonly observed on the face, neck, and chest.

Dengue haemorrhagic fever:
- usually follows second exposure/infection
- 1. Acute onset of high fever for 2-7 days

  1. Haemorrhagic menifestation
  2. Platelet <100
  3. Haemoconcentration (rising packed cell volume >20%) or other evidence of plasma leakage—for example, ascites, pleural effusions, low level of serum protein/albumin.

*plasma leakage is more specific/common

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62
Q

Dengue

Investigations

A
  • Low platelet counts of <100 × 109/l.
  • Leucopenia early in the illness.
  • Atypical lymphocytosis (>15%).
  • Abnormal coagulation profile (prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, prothrombin time, raised fibrinogen degradation products).
  • Reduced serum complement levels.

Low albumin
abnormal LFTs
Acidosis

RT-PCR is more specific and sensitive and allows for detection of early infection

**Treatment is just supportive **

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63
Q

Schistosomiasis

parasitic **flatworm infection **
S. mansoni, S. japonicum and S. haematobium.

A

Katayama fever: acute infection
* fever
* urticaria/angioedema
* arthralgia/myalgia
* cough
* diarrhoea
* eosinophilia

Chronic infection:
- Eggs in cluster in bladder causing inflammation
- looks like calcification in bladder
-** Risk of Squamous cell bladder cancer **

Inx:
- schistosome antibodies in asymptomatic pt
- if symptomatic: gold standard is urine or stool microscopy

Tx:
single oral dose of praziquantel

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64
Q

Toxoplasmosis tx:

A

Co trimoxazole if not cerebral involvement

Cerebral toxoplasmosis accounts for around 50% of cerebral lesions in patients with HIV: CT: usually single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions, mass effect may be seen

management: **pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine **for at least 6 weeks

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65
Q

Cryptosporidiosis

A

protozoal cause of diarrhoea
Cryptosporidium hominis and Cryptosporidium parvum

Sx: watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever (+/- sclerosing cholangitis, pancreatitis)

modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium

Tx:
Nitazoxanide
Rifaximin

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66
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

threadworm - human parasitic nematode worm

  • present in soil and gain access to the body by penetrating the skin.

- Features:
- diarrhoea
- abdominal pain/bloating
- papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae e.g. soles of feet and buttocks
- larva currens: pruritic, linear, urticarial rash

  • if the larvae migrate to the lungs a pneumonitis similar to Loeffler’s syndrome may be triggered

Eosinophilia

Treatment:
ivermectin and albendazole are used

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67
Q

Amoebiasis

A

Entamoeba histolytica
spread by faecal oral route
causes liver and colonic abscess

Long incubation
Dysentery - stool micro shows trophozoites - tx with **metronidazole **

Liver abscess:
most common in liver (hematologic spread); presents with right upper quadrant pain, weight loss, fever, hepatomegaly

for invasive disease or cyst elimination: follow with iodoquinol or paromomycin

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68
Q

Thyphoid
Enteric Fever

A

Salmonella enterica - Serotype: typhi, paratyphi A, B, C

Humans are the only reservoir
- direct and contaminated food/water

Incubation:
5-21 days

Sx:
Week1: Fever >1/52, relative bradycardia
Week 2: Abdominal pain, rose spot
Week 3: Septic shock, hepatosplenomegaly, perforation

BM has high sensitivity

Widal test: positive test may indicate past exposure

Treatment:
1. Ciprofloxacin or Ceftriaxone or Azithromycin
2. If from Pakistan: Carbapenam
3. Dex in severe infection

Long term damage to biliary tract sx in 1-6%, more common in women

69
Q

NS1 - in dengue

A
  • sensitive marker in first 5 days
  • toxic properties that disrupts the endothelial glycocalyx –> vascular permeabilty –> plasma leakage –> dengue shock sx
70
Q

What is the main characteristic symptom of Chikungunya

A

Severe arthralgia
Symmetrical joint pain in >90%
Itchy rash
Incubation 3-7

71
Q

Candida

A

Most common species: Candida albicans

OthersL
parapsilosis, glabrata (glabrata is rising)
tropicalis, krusei

72
Q

RF for candida infections

A

Cancers: Solid >haem>post-transplant
GI conditions
Chronic CVD
DM
Pancreatitis and HIV (rare)

Antibiotics - most common
IDVC
Major surgery
TPN feeding

73
Q

RF for non albicans candidaemia

A

widespread fluconazole use

74
Q

Risks for mortality with candida infection

A

Age >65
ICU admission
Chronic organ dysfunction
Surgery within 30 days
Haem malignancy
source of candidaemia
antibiotic therapy >10d

75
Q

Candademia

Investigations/Dx

A
  • Blood culture
  • beta-D-glucan, whole blood PCR
76
Q

Which candida organism is contributing to increasing resistance?

A

C. glabrata

77
Q

Antifungal MOA

A

Ergosterol synthesis: (inhibit C-14a demethylase)
- azoles
- terbinafine
- naftifine

affecting mb function:
- Amphotericin B

Cell wall synthesis:
- caspofungin

Nucleic acid synthesis:
- 5-fluorocystosine

78
Q

Voriconazole

A

Addition of methyl group to fluconazole backbone
broader cover (including fluconazole resistant Candida)

ADR:
-Visual SE, photosensitivity, LFTs

Need therapeutic monitoring

79
Q

Amphotericin

A

Treatment for resistant candidaemia

Binds to sterol and increase mb permeability and lead to pore formation

  • conventional: nephrotoxic

Liposomal AmB:
Bind preferentially to fungal wall
less nephrotoxic and infusion reaction
better CSF penetration

80
Q

Echinocandins- caspofungin

A

Inhibit synthesis of beta-1-3-D-glucan (inhibit fungal cell wall synthesis)
97% protein bound
metabolised by hydrolysis and N-acetylation

No renal adjust, but adjust for severe liver disease

Interactions:
- cyclosporin A, Tacrolimus, ART, phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Rifampicin

Broad spectrum, but it doesn’t cover for C. parapsilosis

81
Q

Candida auris

A

Emerging drug resistant yeast
high mortality
Antifungal resistance is common including Echinocandins and AmB

Tx: first line is echinocandins

82
Q

Bacteriocidal antibiotics

A

Very Finely Proficient A t CCell MurDer

Vancomycin
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillin
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Carbapenams
Metronidazole
Daptomycn

83
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

ESCTa TiC

Erythromycin and other macrolides
Clindamycin
Sulfamethoxazole
Trimethoprim
Tetracyclin
Chloramphenicol

84
Q

Antibiotics site of action

Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Carbapenam
Glycopeptide

A

Cell wall

85
Q

Antibiotics site of action

  • Rifampicin
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Isoniazide and ethambutol
A

Rifampicin: RNA polymerase
Fluoro: DNA gyrase
Nitrofurantoin: protein synthesis
Isoniazid and ethambutol: mycolic acid pathway

86
Q

Antibiotics site of action:

Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline
TMP/SMX
Dapsone
Metronidazole

A
  • 50s ribosome
  • 30s ribosome
  • 30s ribosome
  • Folic acid pathway
  • Folic acid pathway
  • Toxic metabolites
87
Q

What is the common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea

A

clindamycin

88
Q

Which antibiotics is known to prolong QTc?

A

Macrolide

IT’s also a CYP3A4 inhibitor

89
Q

Antibiotics

Aminoglycosides

A

30S ribsome inhibitor

  • good for circulating organisms
  • poor tissue, bone, lung, abscess, CSF penetration

ADR: nephrotoxicity (ATN), Ototoxocity

90
Q

B-lactam are good for abscesses?

A

FALSE

91
Q

Drugs with good tissue penetration

A

Tetracycline
Macrolides
Quinolones
Clindamycin

92
Q

Antibiotics that do not need renal adjustment

A

MAcrolides
Fusidic acid
Clindamycin

93
Q

Tell me about tetracycline metabolism?

A

Concentrated in the liver, excreted bia bile and reabsorbed in intestine, eliminated in urine

Avoid in liver failure

94
Q

Antibiotics and liver failure

A

Penicillin safe - but can cause cholestatic jaundice
Aminoglycoside: safe
Glycopeptide: safe

Tetracycline: AVOID
Macrolide: may worsen liver dysfunction
Co-trimoxazole - aVOID - *significantly metabolised by the liver *

95
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins have antipseudomonal property

A

Ceftazidime (3 gen), Cefepime (4th gen)

96
Q

Cephalosporin with MRSA cover?

A

Ceftaroline (MRSA cover)

97
Q

Betalactam: MOA

A

Mimic building block of bacterial cell wall - bind to PBP –> inhibit cell wall synthesis –> death

98
Q

What is the mechanism of betalactam cross reactivity?

A

R1 side chain

99
Q

Cefazolin doesn’t share side chains with penicillin or other cephalosporins?

A

TRUE

100
Q

What is the mechanism of B-lactam resistance?

A

modification of PBP
mecA gene encodes a new PBP 2a

Intrinsic resistance to enterococcal (as doesn’t bind to PBP)

101
Q

ESBL

A

carries on plasmid, thus can pass to other organisms
- can use **carbapenam **

102
Q

AmpC

A

Broad spectrum cephalosporinase
Intrinsic to ESCAAPPMS
use cefepime or carbapenam

103
Q

Overcoming Betalactamase production

A
  1. use a stable beta lactam, i.e. flucloxacillin (penicillinase staph) or Carbapenam stable vs ESBL/AmpC
  2. combine with beta lactamase inhibitor (not reliable tho)
  3. Use different class
    - Cotrim, cipro, gent for ESBL
    - Colistin, tigecycline, fosfomycin for carbapenamases
104
Q

Which enterococcus is susceptible to penicillin?

A

E. faecalis is amoxicillin susceptible

Enterococci are intrinsicly resistant to cephalosporins

105
Q

Why do you add amoxicillin to cef for meningitis in elderly?

A

to cover for listeria
which is a G+ve rod

106
Q

Line infections:

A

When to remove:
- if pt really unwell
- tunnel or entry site infection
- persistently postive BC despite tx
- Organisms:
> S. aureus, Candida, pseudomonas, other GN non-fermenters

107
Q

Glycopeptides

A
  • BIG
  • can’t cross the outer mb of gram negatives, so only for GRAM POSITIVE
  • MUST BE IV
  • Red man syndrome with vancomycin, not teicoplanin
  • inhibits cell wall synthesis
108
Q

Glycopeptide resistance

A

D-ala, D-ala to D-ala, D-lac
Van A/B

prevents binding of antibiotic to cell wall constituents

Alt antibiotics:
- Linezolid
- Daptomycin
- Tigecycline

109
Q

IS clindamycin a macrolide?

A

NOOOOOO

IT’s a lincosamide

110
Q

Macrolids

A

Active against organisms that don’t have a cell wall as well
GI SE: Erythro>Clarithro >azithro

Good tissue penetration and intracellular (esp Azithromycin for legionella, typhoid

It also has antiinflammatory/immunomodulatory effects

111
Q

Clindamycin

A

Lincosamide
50s ribosome
Inhibits protein synthesis - good for toxic shock sx and nec fasciitis due to GAS (as it reduces toxin production)

associated with C.diff

Very well obsorbed orally
Excellent tissue penetration (good for skin and soft tissue)
**Good Anaerobic activity **

112
Q

Tetracyclin

A

Ribosome 30s
active against organism without cell wall e.g. mycoplasma
Active against intracellular organism: ie Rickettsia

Gram POSITIVE and gram NEGATIVE activity
useful against MRSA

ADR:
Discolouration of bone and teeth
Mucosal irritation - take with food
Photosensitivity

Resistance is via EFFLUX mechanism

NOT for young or PREGNANT

113
Q

Rifampicin

A

Inhibit RNA synthesis

Excellent tissue penetration
Antituberculous activity
antibiofilm
useful in infections onvolving prosthetic materials

Red/orange discolouration of bodily fluids

Can easily develop resistance due to change in RNA polymerase. NEVER use alone

STRONG CYP450 inducer

114
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin, Tobramycin, amikacin

Doesn’t cross BBB
poor tissue penetration
not good for abscesses

GOOD for bacteraemia
Not absorbed orally, so IV only

115
Q

What;s the treatment for stenotrophomonas maltophilia?

A

Co-trimoxazole

116
Q

Folate pathway inhibitos

A

TMP and SMX
They inhibit 2 different part of the pathway, thus reduces resistance when combined

TMP is teratogenic in 1st trimester

Rare, but can cause myelosuppression

Co-trim:
- PJP, and Toxo tx
- Useful for MRSA, ESBL/AmpCs
- Active against Stenotrophomonas, Burkholderia, pneumocystis
- Associated with low risk of SJS

117
Q

Quinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase

Very useful for resistant gram negative
IT is the only ORAL agent against pseudomonas

Moxifloxacin (resp quinolone) is useful for penicillin resistant pneumococci + TB

Good ORAL absorption
Good tissue penetration
Good for OP pyelo
Good ANTIBIOFILM

Mutation in DNA gyrase can cause resistance

Cipro is associatd with hypervirulent strain of C.diff (ribotype 027)

ADR:
- tendonitis
- Aneurysm rupture
- Cognitive impairment
- hypoglycaemic coma
- Worsening MG
- irreversible peripheral neuropathy

118
Q

Pharmacodynamics of antibiotics to know

A

Aminoglycosides: Cmax>MIC
B-lactam: time >MIC
Vancomycin: AUC>MIC

119
Q

Linezolid

A

Oxazolidinone inhibits protein synthesis

GRAM POSITIVES only

use in VRE, MRSA

ADR: myelosuppression
Peripheral and optic neuropathy

Serotonin syndrome when used with other MAOi or Tramadol
Lactic acidosis

120
Q

Daptomycin

A

Cyc Lipopeptide
IV only
GRAM POSITIVE ONLY

VRE and MRSA
inactivated by surfactant

ADR: rhambomyolysis - check CK

121
Q

Tigecycline

A

Glycylcycline
IV only

Active against MRSA,
and many of the multi drug drug resistant GRAM NEGATIVES (ine. NDM

Remember: not good for bacteraemia

122
Q

Fidaxomicin

A

Treatment of C. diff
NOT ABSORBED

reduced risk of relapse cf. vanc

123
Q

Colistin

A

Binds to LPS and lipids in the bacterial cell mb

Active against many GNB and new resistant organism

RENAL toxicity

can develop resistance via mcr-1 gene –> causing changes to outer mb

124
Q

Fosfomycin

A

Inhibits MurA enzymes

used for resistant UTI (AmpC, ESBL)

SE: GI

125
Q

Panton-Valentine- Leucocidin (PVD)

A

pore forming necrotising endotoxin
related to MRSA

126
Q

What do you use for MRSA (non-multiresistant)?

A

Cotrim
Clinda
Erythro
Doxy
Rifampicin (don’t use alone)
Fusidic Acid (dont use alone - not used in NZ due to resistance)
Gent

127
Q

Severe MRSA

A

Glycopeptides
- remember higher the MIC, higher the treatment failure

Linezolid (100% absorbed) - static
- binds to both 30s and 50s ribosomal subunits
- suppress toxin production
- good penetration: bone, lung, CNS
- New: Tedizolid = better version

DAPTOMYCIN:
- bacteriocidal

Tigecycline:
- eliminated in biliary tract, less useful in UTI
- Active against Acinetobacter and stenotrophomonas
- NOT active against pseudomonas, proteus, providencia
- high Vd, thus not good for bacteraemia

128
Q

Ceftaroline: 5th gen

A

like 3rd gen, but has MRSA cover
renally cleared
active against Gram+Ve bacteria (including coagulase negative)

Active against VRE.faecalis (NOT Faecium)

Limited activity against G-ve
NOT ACTIVE against: pseudomonas, or AmpC or ESBL

Ceftobiprole: 5th gen, like above, but with pseudomonas cover

129
Q

Enterococci

A

Gram positive cocci
Group D Strep formally

Inherently resistant to ceph

E. faecalis:
-susceptible to penicillin
- More virulent

E. Faecium:
- less virulent
- resistant to penicillin

Enterobacter: GN rod

130
Q

Van A and Van B

A

D-ala-D-ala to D-ala-D-lac

A: is resistent to both Vanc and TEicoplanin

B: is only R to vanc

A/B are transferable

131
Q

Penicillin resistance can be overcome if penicillin concentration at the target site is above the MIC for the organism for 40-50% of the dosing interval

A

TRUE

CNS penicillin concentration is much lower than plasma 0.5-5%

132
Q

Macrolide resistance

A

mefA: efflux pump - low level of R

ermB gene - alteration of binding site, high level of resistance

MAcrolide resistance CANNOT be overcome by higher doses

133
Q

What is most common mode of R in GN againt beta lactams?

A

beta lactamases

134
Q

Beta lactamases

AmpC beta lactamases

A

ESCHAPPM:
Enterobacter
Serratia marcescens
Citrobactor fruendii
C. koseri doesn’t have AmpC
Hafnia alvei
Acinetobacter and aeromonas
Proteus vulgaris P. mirabilis doesn’t have AmpC
Providencia
Morganella morganii

Inducible resistance to cephalosporins
(except Cefepime)

Tx options:
Carbapenems and cefepime, whilst awaiting susceptibility

AmpC is on plasmid
- so they can swap with other bacteria

135
Q

ESBL

A
  • all penicillin, ceph (including cefepime) and aztreozam (monobactam)
  • most commonly found on E.coli, and Klebsiella
  • on PLASMID = transferrable

may also carry other non-betalactam resistance

Tx:
Carbapenam are the first choice

136
Q

CRE

A
  1. KPC: Klebseilla pneumoniae carbapenamases : Europe, South America, China, SE Asia, some US
  2. New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase proteinase (NDM) - India
  3. OXA-48: Oxacillin-type beta lactamase-48 (Turkey)
  4. VIM - Verona-integron-encoded metallo-beta lactamase- australia
  5. IMP

Treatment options:
1. Colistin or PolymixinB
2. High dose tigecycline (not useful for bacteraemia)
3. Aminoglycoside (Gent, Tobramycin, Amikacin)
4. Double carbapenam tx ???

137
Q

Avibactam

A

Second gen beta lactamase inhibitor

It binds to the beta lactamase enzyme and inactivates it (reversible cyclisation)

It can inhibit:
Class A: ESBL, KPC
Class C: AmpC
Class D: Oxa-48

NOT:
NDM
VIM
IMP

Ceftazadime-avibactam is good for KPC

138
Q

HIV basics

A

HIV uses gp120 and gp41 to attach to CD4, then to CCR5 or CXCR4

CD4+ are the only cells that can be infected; this includes Th, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, microglial cells

Strains that can bind either CXCR4 or CCR5 replicate rapidly and deplete CD4 cells faster

if you don’t have CCR5, then you can’t be infected (del mutation found on 1% of europeans)

~3-4 weeks after the infection, HIV viral load will be 10^6/mL, then CD8 cells starte killing the infected cells, reducing it to 10^4. B-cells produce Ab against HIV infected cells.
Killing of large number of CD4 infected cells –> glandualr fever like seroconversion illness

antibodies will be falsely negative for 3-4 weeks

CTL only kill CD4 cells that are producing HIV, not the dormant ones. ~99.9% of infected CD4 cells are not producing HIV

HLAB*57.01 binds a HIV core protein peptide strongly and activates CTL. Slower progression of disease

139
Q

HIV markers detection with time

A

HIV NAD detection 11 days
p24 from 16 days
Antibody 3-4 weeks

140
Q

HIV management

All HIV medications are tolerated in pregnancy

A

Undetectable = no transmission
Start treatment at all CD4 counts

Naive patients:
- INSTI + 2 x NRTI
- INSTI + 1 x NRTI (except for:
>HIV RNA >500, 000
>HBV coinfection
>if ART to be started before resistance profile is known
- other option (single tablet): Efavirenz + Emtricitabine/tenofovir)

When to start if they have:
1. TB:
CD4 >50, then 8-12 weeks after starting antiTB medications
if CD4<50, the 2 weeks after antiTB medications
if TB meningitis, then delay until onset of Anti-TB txmt

Intergrase inhibitor (INSTI): “gravir”
PIs: “avir”

141
Q

HIV

NRTI

A

NRTI:
- inhibits viral reverse transcriptase
- FTC: Emtricitabine (low barrier to resistance)
- 3TC: Lamivudine (low barrier to resistance)
- ABC: Abacavir hypersensitivity with HLA B5701, CVD*
- AZT: Zidovudine lipodystropgy, metabolic toxicity, GI
- TDF -nephrotoxicity (prox. tubular cells), reduced BMD, monitor creat, phosphate, mitochondrial toxicity
- TAF (better, less renal toxicity)

142
Q

HIV

NNRTI

A

bind to RT (but not at deoxynucleiotide binding site)
- low barrier to resistance

  • NVP - Nevirapine - hypersensitivity, fatal hepatitis
  • EFV: Efavirenz CNS - sedation/insomnia, vivid dreams. Rash (can continue, unlike Nvirapine. Increase LIPIDS and LFTs
  • Rilpiverine Prolong QTc
  • Delaverdine , Rash HA
  • Etravirine- rash, GI
  • Doravirine
143
Q

Protease inhibitor

“avir”

A

Blocks viral maturation during and after budding of virions –> defective virus
High barrier to resistance

All have: GI SE,** Dyslipidaemia, IGT, lipodystrophy**

  • Ritonavir: poorly tolerated usually used to boost other PIs by inhibiting CYP3A4
  • Lopinavir - more ritonavir SE
  • Atazanavir (elevated bilirubin, rarely renal stones)
  • Darunavir (rash)
144
Q

HIV

INSTI

A

inhibit intergration of viral DNA into human DNA. Rapid reduction in viral load

  • Dolutegravir (DTG) - high barrier to resistance
    > HA, Depression/anxiety, possibly increase in neural tube defects
  • Bictegravir (BIC):
    > HA, GI, avoid dofetilide
  • Raltegravir: low barrier, increase CK/rhabdo
  • Elvitegravir
145
Q

HIV

Enfuvirtide

A

fusion inhibitor

146
Q

Maraviroc

A

CCR5 antagonist
*remember the virus may switch to CXCR4

147
Q

Key facts about Atripla

A

Efavirenz + Emtricitabine, tenofovir
CNS toxicity - suicidality

148
Q

Dolutegravir + pregnany

A

pseudo increase in creatinine
ok in pregnancy

149
Q

Cobicistat

A

no HIV activity
inhibits tubular secretion

150
Q

HIV

PrEP

A
  • MSM/Trans:
    Not eligible for funded PrEP
    Insertive CLAI with any casual male partner (in last 3 months or expected in next 3 months)
    Travelling to a high-HIV prevalence country and anticipates risk

Heterosexual people:
- High risk of HIV and eligible for funded PrEP
CLI with a regular HIV+ partner who is not on treatment and/or has a detectable viral load.

  • Not eligible for funded PrEP; could consider self-funded PrEP
    Receptive CLI with any casual MSM partner (in last 3 months or expected in next 3 months)
    Travelling to a high-HIV prevalence country and anticipates risk

Tx:
1 pill daily of
tenofovir/emtricitabine.
Start 7 days before HIV risk.

Event driven:
tenofovir/emtricitabine:
* 2 pills at least 2h before sex
(up to 24h before sex)
* 1 pill 24h later
* 1 pill 48h after first dose
If repeated sexual activity, then
continue with 1 pill daily until
48h after last sexual contact

151
Q

HIV

PEP

A
  • PEP within 72hrs is beneficial (animal studies only), greatest benefit <24h
  • 28d course was better than shorter course
  • non-occupational exposure to known HIV source, VL unknown: 3 drugs, *don’t need it for oral sex
  • Occupational: shorts and mucous mb exposure: if viral load is known to be undetectable 2 drugs, otherwise 3 drugs

2drugs:
- tenofovir + emtricitabine or lamivudine

3 drugs:
- NRTI as above + INSTI

152
Q

HIV

Risk of transmission

A
  • Receptive anal sex with ejaculation (1/70), withdrawal (1/155)
  • Shared needles (1/125), needle stick injury 1/440
  • Uncircumcised - 1/160, circumcised 1/900
153
Q

HIV

Opportunistic infections

A
154
Q

HIV

Which OI can you get at any CD4 levels

A

TB
Oral thrush
pneumococcal pneumonia
VZV
Cervical ca

155
Q

When can you have lives vacccines in HIV pt

A

CD4 count >200

156
Q

HIV

PJP

A

Primary prophylaxis when CD4 <200, until it’s >200 for 3 months

Subacute presentation as fungus must synthesis it’s own folic acid

It doesn’t have ergosterol in it’s wall, thus other antifungal is not effective

Sx:
SOB (91%)
Fever 66%
Cough 50% - non productive

Tachycardic, tachpnoeic, hypoxia but chest exam will sound normal

CT: widespread groundglass with apical sparing

Dx:
PCR of induced sputum 50-90% sensitive, 99% specific

BAL >90% diagnostic yield
Serum beta-D glucan - useful rule out

Tx:
Co-trimoxazole

if allergic:
- Pentamidine IV
- Dapsone or Atovaquone PO
- Clindamycin + PRimaquine

**STEROIDS if hypoxic PaO2<70 **

Prophylaxis:
- cotrim or neb pentamidine

OTher indication for PJP prophylaxis:
- Pred >20mg/day for >4 weeks
- ALL induction to end of maintenance
- Allo-HSCT
- Alemtuzumabm rituximab, ATG
- SOT

Expect improvement in 4-8days

  • Pentamidine: necrosis of islet cells
157
Q

Whst is the best prognostic factor in PJP

A

PaO2 at diagnosis

Steroids improves mortality if given when PaO2<70

158
Q

HIV

Cryptococcocosis

A
  • round yeast
  • C. neoformans
  • Usually occurs CD4 count <100, (50!!)
  • usually disseminated when diagnosed
  • Subacute meningitis (25% won’t have meningeal sx)
  • raised ICH: CN palsies, seizures but typically fever and confusion

Dx:
LP: raised opening pressure
Analysis can be normal, but may have raised protein and WCC, low glucose

CSF: Af 94%, Culture 100%, PCR 80%
**india ink and CRAG positive **

Managment:
1. LP to manage high pressure aim <25cm H2O
2. Induction (1 week):
Liposomal AmB + 5flucytosine
- 5FC is specifically converted to 5FU by fungal cystosine deaminase
3. Consolidation with fluconazole for 8weeks

ONLY START ART after 4-6 weeks once CSF is sterile, as it reduces the risk of IRIS –> mortality

IRIS in crptococcosis:
- fever, HA, high opening pressure, seizures, CN palsies, new MRI lesions wks/mo after ART
- tx: NSAIDs or prednisone

159
Q

When does CMV and MAC occur in HIV pt

A

When CD 4 <50

160
Q

HIV

Toxoplasmosis

A

CD 4 <100 for brain abscess
px:
HA, fever, seizrues, AMS, focal deficits

Dx:
MUST HAVE Toxo IgG + in serum
PCR CSF for toxo

ring enhancing lesions on MRI (multiple)

Tx:
Co-trim
used to use pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine or leucovorin, but out of favour now

Should improve in 1-2wks

161
Q

What are the predictors of IRIS?

A

high VL
low CD4
high pathogen burden

usually 6 weeks after starting ART

Tx: STEROIDS, NSAIDs

162
Q

What is the risk of vertical transmission of HIV without treatment?

A

1/4

163
Q

what do you do if VL >1000 or unknown at time of delivery?

A

give AZT (Zidovudine) and C-section

164
Q

CMV retinitis

A

correlates with CD4 counts
not an indication for tx unless has organ disease

If immediate sight threatening lesion:
- ARV, IV ganciclovir
- Intravitreal ganc

Small peripheral:
ARV
Oral valganc

Improves within 2 weeks

165
Q

Syphilis chancre

A

macule, papule, ulcer, then resolution over 3-6wks
plasma cell infiltrate

**typically painless single ulcer **

166
Q

Latent TB treatment

A

9H=4R=3RH
~90% efficacy

Remember: H: 15% R worldwide, and severe hepatotoxicity

3mo H and rifapentin: higher completion rate, similar ADR, less hepatotoxic, increased rate of hypersensitivity

In HIV infecton: 1 month of daily H + rifapentin

167
Q

Active TB treatment

A
  • H +P: better for sterilising acitivity
  • H+ R: prevention of R + early bacteriocidal activity

2 mo HZRE + 4 RH = 98% cure

168
Q

What is the newer shortened regime for TB treatment?

A

Rifapentin + HZM or HM for 4 months

169
Q

What are the ADRs for pyrazinamide?

A

Hepatitis, skin, polyarthralgia, gout

170
Q

TB drugs and risk of hepatitis in order of probability

A

Z>H>R

If LFTS > 5 ULN or 3 x ULN with sx - stop or switch to Amikacin, Ethambutol, moxi