Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Other Finals Decks > ICSM past paper errors > Flashcards

ICSM past paper errors Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mobitz 1 and Mobitz 2?

A

Mobitz 1(Wenckebach) is progressive prolongation till a P is dropped

Mobitz 2 is where PR is consistent but not always followed by a QRS (the ratio one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What history is typically given for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Bronchiectasis
Bronchoconstriction
Eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the CXR findings of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Nil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the management of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Steroids +- itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does EAA typically present?

A

Acutely (4-8hrs post exposure) with SOB, dry cough, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the CXR findings of EAA?

A

Upper/mid zone fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the types of psoriatic arthritis?

A

AOPSD

Arthritis mutilans
Oligoarthritis (asymmetric)
Polyarthritis (rheumatoid)
Sacroiliitis
DIP joint disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aside from a positive family history, what is the strongest risk factor for breast cancer?

A

Obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat legionella pneumonia?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is co-danthramer and when is it commonly prescribed?

A

A stool softener with stimulant diuretic often coprescribed with morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What heart sound would you hear in a patient with pericarditis?

A

Pericardial friction rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which are the most sensitive and specific antibodies for SLE?

A

ANA most sensitive

Anti-smith most specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which murmur is an aortic dissection commonly associated with?

A

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the commonest causes of epididymitis in men under and over 35?

A

Under 35 = Chlamydia

Over 35 = E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you treat #NOFs?

A

Garden 1 and 2,
Cannulated screw,

Garden 3 and 4,
Aint hemi anymore,

Between greater and lesser,
DHS is better

If below the neck should fail,
Intermedullary nail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the classic features of GB syndrome?

A

Progressive weakness of all four limbs typically affecting legs before arms but with proximal muscles affected first

Sensory features are mild, and there may also be areflexia, CN involvement and autonomic involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic test for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Renal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the paraneoplastic syndromes associated with SCLC?

A

ACTH
ADH
Lambert Eaton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of SCLC?

A

Mostly picked up once metastatic so manage with chemo and radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which type of lung cancer is associated with PTHrP?

A

Squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antibiotic would you use to treat Klebsiella pneumonia?

A

Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Man flies from TLV -> LHR and develops chest pain. A few hours later his leg is white and pulseless. What has happened?

A

Aortic dissection with secondary acute limb ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When would you do an aortobifem bypass?

When there is disease at the aortic bifurcation or in both iliac arteries as well as the aorta itself

A

When there is disease at the aortic bifurcation or in both iliac arteries as well as the aorta itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the effect of attention and stress on a Parkinsonian tremor?

A

Worsens the tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which vessels are blocked in calf and button claudication?

A 
Calf = Superficial femoral
Buttock = Iliac (int or common)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the presentation of a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Shortened and internally rotated leg with flexion and adduction at the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the three options for managing metastatic bone pain?

A

Strong opioids
Radiotherapy
Bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What imaging technique is used in triple assessment?

A

<35 - USS

>35 - Mammography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If bacteria is grown from a catheter, how should this be managed?

A

Treat only if symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the threshold for blanket treatment of a paracetamol overdose?

A

If more than 150mg/kg has been taken this is likely toxic so no need to wait for bloods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When would you see keratoderma blenorrhagicum and circinate balanitis?

A

Reactive arthritis (/reiter’s syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the management of IIH?

A 
Weight loss
Acetazolamide
Topiramate
Therapeutic LPs
Optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration
VP shunting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of varicocele and epididymal cysts transluminates?

A

Epididymal cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How might a subphrenic abscess present?

A

Cough
Tachypnoea
Hiccups
Anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What investigation should you do in a patient with guarding and peritonism?

A

Erect CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which pain relief options are available in NOF patients?

A

Paracetamol
Opioids
Fem nerve block
(NSAIDs C/I’d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When would you feel a slow rising pulse?

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which vitamin would you give someone when starting TB treatment?

A

B6 - Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does IVC obstruction present?

A

Peripheral oedema of lower limbs

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Brown sequard on the left side, which side experiences loss of pain sensation?

A

Right (contralateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the management of severe falciparum malaria?

A

IV artesunate +- doxycycline +- exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the role for quinine and chloroquine in malaria management?

A

Should be used in conjunction with doxycycline. Quinine to be used when there is chloroquine resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which DMARD causes retinopathy?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the side effects of sulfasalazine?

A

Rashes
Oligospermia
BM suppression
Interstitial lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What specifically causes ophthalmoplegia in thyroid eye disease?

A

Rectus muscle thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the clinical features of cataracts?

A

Lens opacities
Darkened red reflex
Gradual vision loss
Dazzling in bright lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the causes of cartaracts?

A 
Age
UV light
DM
Steroids
Congenital infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the different stages of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Background = Dots, blots and hard exudates

Pre-proliferative = Cotton wool spots, venous beading, cluster haemorrhages

Proliferative = Neovascularisation

Maculopathy = location based rather than severity - Hard exudates over macula with vision loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a Lisfranc injury?

A

Disruption of metatarsal bone from tarsal bone.

50
Q

How do lung cancers spread and where?

A

Locally to pleura and surrounding structures

Lymphatic to mediastinal and cervical nodes

Blood to bone, brain, liver

51
Q

When would a Simmonds test be positive?

A

In Achilles’ tendon rupture

52
Q

In someone presenting with atypical chest pain, what might be used to determine pre-test probability of IHD?

A

Epidemiological evidence

53
Q

Son of 75 year old lady requests home visit for mother who has recent behavioural changes. Sometimes gets confused and sees people in the room who aren’t there. Recent loss of appetite. Cause?

A

ACS

54
Q

45 year old lady with spontaneous dark brown nipple discharge. Examination reveals only one duct producing discharge. What does she have?

A

45 year old lady with spontaneous dark brown nipple discharge. Examination reveals only one duct producing discharge. What does she have?

55
Q

Tall 28 year old man with radiofemoral delay and hypertension. BP 210/110. Has rib notching. What is underlying diagnosis?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

56
Q

Sickle cell girl with severe back pain (?) What do you do first?

A

IV fluid bolus

57
Q

What are the four main sickle cell crises?

A

Thrombotic/vaso-occlusive

Sequestration

Aplastic

Haemolytic

58
Q

When would you smear cells?

A

CLL

59
Q

What should be done for patients who are stable with GI haemorrhage?

A

OGD within 24 hours of admission

60
Q

Which antibodies are positive in PBC?

A

AMA

61
Q

What are the histological differences between PSC and PBV?

A

PBC - intrahepatic granulomatous destruction

PSC - Fibrosis and strictures of intra AND extra hepatic ducts

62
Q

Which opioids are preferred in renal failure patients/

A

Fentanyl

Buprenorphine

63
Q

Someone with previous TKR, now tender, febrile, hot, swollen. No evidence of crystals on microscopy. Aspirate showed turbid fluid.

A

Septic arthritis

64
Q

What should be given acutely in gout patients where NSAIDs are contraindicated, and what is its main side effect?

A

Colchicine - Diarrhoea

65
Q

What is the commonest cause of corneal ulceration?

A

HSV infection

66
Q

30+ year old lady with fever and fits. Scan shows temporal lobe necrosis. Cause?

A

HSV

67
Q

T1DM girl on subcut insulin pump comes in with frequent episodes of SOB, palpitation and tingling of fingers. Cause?

A

Hyperventilation syndrome

68
Q

Patient with pernicious anaemia then has ?iron def as well and gastroscopy shows ulcer in stomach. What malignancy?

A

Adenocarcinoma

69
Q

Guy comes in with swollen legs and bilateral scrotal swelling with recent 10kg weight gain?

A

Peripheral oedema

70
Q

Lady who recently came from Afghanistan with low calcium, raised PTH. What test to confirm Dx?

A

Serum Vit D levels

71
Q

Guy with epilepsy and now housebound. Pain in spine and on compressing rib cage? What does he have?

A

Osteomalacia (linked to long term anticonvulsant therapy)

72
Q

Someone with right sided hemiparesis, aphasia, some kind of visual deficit - doesn’t blink to hand waving on right side but does on left. Which artery?

A

MCA

73
Q

Fit guy whose dad died early comes to you worried. He passes out during sports i think. What investigation?

A

ECG

74
Q

Which part of the brachial plexus is damaged in Erbs and Klumpke’s palsies?

A 
Erbs = Upper
Klumpke = Lower
75
Q

Patient has long term indwelling suprapubic catheter. Keeps getting blocked and flushed out by nurses a few times. What do you do?

A

Bladder washout

76
Q

Lady comes back from india 3 days ago with abdo pain, diarrhoea and vomiting. What do you do?

A

Stool MC&S

77
Q

Hypertensive Young guy with mildly raised cr and proteinuria on multiple occasions. Physical exam otherwise unremarkable. What does he have?

A

Nephritic syndrome 2ary to hypertensive retinopathy

78
Q

Someone with Hodgkins lymphoma, mediastinal mass and night sweats. What is most appropriate treatment?

A

Curative chemo

79
Q

Guy with pulseless electrical activity, given one dose of adrenaline/epinephrine. Still no carotid pulse. What now

A

Another dose of adrenaline

80
Q

Ix in leaking AAA?

A

CT abdo

81
Q

38 year old lady with cyclical breast pain.

A

Abnormal normal development and involution of breast (ANDI)

82
Q

Patient with asthma has a short hx of yellow sputum and wheeze, was given oral amox which improved sputum but wheeze still there but afebrile, what now?

A

PO Pred

83
Q

Which virus causes squamous cell carcinoma of the tonsils?

A

EBV

84
Q

55 year old with 10 a day smoking history presents with 6 month Hx of white sputum and a cough - what should be done first?

A

CXR

85
Q

Fasting glucose of 7.2 in an asymptomatic patient - what should be done next?

A

HbA1c

86
Q

Which investigation is diagnostic for UC?

A

Faecal calprotectin

87
Q

In a patient with UC, what feature indicates for a colectomy?

A

Epithelial dysplasia (intraepithelial neoplasia)

88
Q

Asthmatic patient is unable to finish sentences, is hypoxic with a high PCO2 and pH 7.3. She has already been treated with IV nebulisers and prednisolone - what would you do next?

A

Intubate and ventilate - hypercapnia in an asthmatic patient is cause to intubate

89
Q

Old guy with COPD has CO poisoning - normal sates - what type of oxygen do you give him?

A

15 litres non-rebreathe

90
Q

Hypotensive patient is post op and have been given 500ml bolus with no sighs of HF. Has passed just 10ml of urine and is not in pain. What next?

A

Give more fluids

91
Q

Patient with peripheral oedema, scrotal oedema and proteinuria - what diagnostic investigation do you do?

A

Renal biopsy

92
Q

Tonsillar exudates, jaundice, upper abdo pain - what is the cause?

EBV
Staph
Tonsillitis
Influenza
Malaria
A

EBV

93
Q

Woman calls GP about man with terminal prostate cancer who has become breathless - what do you do?

A

Visit them nest morning and have palliative care discussion

94
Q

Woman with RA and Hx of knee replacement is having cystoscopy for urinary symptoms. Knee is now hot swollen and tender.

Pseudogout
Septic arthritis

A

Septic arthritis

95
Q

Bilateral knee pain, stiff for 20 mins in the morning, knee is swollen at night.

A

Osteoarthritis

96
Q

Pain in small joints and wrists, pleuritic pain, protein ++ and blood ++ - what antibodies would you expect to see?

A

ANA

97
Q

Sudden onset chest pain, post PCI with stent for STEMI, ECG shows ST elevation widespread in anterior leads and T-wave inversion, pleuritic chest pain, worse pain on movement, quiet heart sounds and auscultation, chest clear

A

Pericarditis

98
Q

Which arrhythmia is seen most commonly after an MI?

A

VF

99
Q

Anti-jo antibodies seen with signs of polymyositis. Which test is diagnostic?

A

Muscle biopsy

100
Q

Patient with CREST symptoms presents with Pleuritic CP/SOB and crackles. Which investigation would you do?

A

High res CT - as CREST patients also development PA HTN -> Cor pulmonate

101
Q

Myelodysplasia which has gotten worse in the last few weeks. Abundant primitive cells seen on slide.

A

AML

102
Q

SLE features + jaundice, reticulocytosis, spherocytosis and polychromatic?

A

AIHA

103
Q

Lived reticularis and miscarriages?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

104
Q

Which blood test is best for detecting dehydrated patients?

A

Serum urea

105
Q

Old lady on second blood transfusion develops sudden breathlessness, normotensive, history of IHD, bilateral crackles and wheeze. Nurse has stopped the transfusion. What do you give?​

A

IV furosemide

106
Q

Bowel screening question. What is FOB for:

Monitoring people with existing disease
Screening for people with asymptomatic disease
Screening for symptomatic disease
Screening for people at risk of developing colonic disease

A

Screening for people with asymptomatic disease

107
Q

Vocal cord surgery, struggling to speak, tachypnoeic 28, grip weakens when asked to grip nurses fingers What is the antidote:

A

Neostigmine - reverses the effects of non-depolarising muscle relents such as rocuronium at the end of an operation

108
Q

21 year old female has acne, tried topical antibiotics and topical retinoids no success. DVT in past after plane. What to try next?

A

Lymecycline (or another tetracycline)

109
Q

Old lady has a hemicolectomy. Post op her morphine epidural in situ comes out and she is in significant pain for the interim, before it is eventually replaced. She now has a pyrexia. What is the cause?​

A

Atelectasis

110
Q

Person with nephrectomy and had stone in the good kidney at PUJ and swelling of upper urinary tract on imaging. Had fever. ?Septic obs. How to manage?

A

Lithotripsy

111
Q

Palpitations, weight loss and altered bowel habit in old lady, what nail changes are seen? What was the answer here someone please? Here - skin changes in hyperthyroid include

A

Onycholysis (hyperthyroid nail)

112
Q

Young guy, collapses frequently during sport? with ECG - Sinus rhythm. PR or QRS 120ms, cQT 510ms

A

VT

113
Q

Mc Murray’s positive, had twisted knee and heard a pop - Diagnosis and investigation?

A

Menisceal tear

MRI knee

114
Q

Difference between breast feeding mastitis and abscess?

A

Lump

115
Q

What are the features of PBC?

A

Early - silent, obstructive LFTs, fatigue, jaundice

Hyperpigmentation
Xanthelasmas
Clubbing

116
Q

What is the most likely progression with BCCs?

A

Local invasion

117
Q

What is the investigation of choice for acute diverticulitis?

A

CT abdo

118
Q

What is surfer’s ear?

A

Otitis externa

119
Q

Leg claudication and ABPI of 0.84 - next step

A

Structured exercise programmes

120
Q

Man with dysphagia and weight loss - Squamous cell or adenocarcinoma?

A

Squmous cell

121
Q

2cm smooth non tender swelling fixed to underlying structures

A

Ganglion

Other Finals Decks (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions