Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Medicine Year 1 > ICM > Flashcards

ICM Flashcards

1
Q

What is the intracellular fluid composed of?

A

High Potassium

Low Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the intracellular gradient maintained?

A

Sodium-Potassium pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is interstitial fluid composed of?

A

High Sodium
Low Potassium
(Identical to blood but with lower levels of protein, and no red blood cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is intravascular fluid composed of?

A

High Sodium
Low Potassium
(Identical to interstitial fluid but with higher protein and red blood cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 2 fluid compartments of the body?

A

Intracellular

Extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the 2 major fluid compartments contain the most fluid?

A

Intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is extracellular fluid divided into?

A

Interstitial and Intravenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is the smallest fluid compartment?

A

Intravenous (part of the extracellular compartment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the basic daily requirements of sodium, potassium and fluid?

A

Sodium- 2mmols/kg/day
Potassium- 1mmol/kg/day
Fluid- 1-1.5mls/kg/hour (for adults, roughly 1.5l- 2.5l per day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much urine is lost on average per day?

A

1ml/kg/hr (adults, roughly 1.5l- 2.5l per day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 2 types of fluid?

A

Crystalloid and Colloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe a crystalloid fluid

give examples of crystalloid fluids

A

Crystalloid fluids have low mollecular weight salts or sugars, that can pass freely between the intravascular and interstitial compartments. (Stays in the extracellular compartment)

Hartman’s
Dextrose
Normal Saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe colloid fluids

give examples of colloid fluids

A

Colloid fluids are larger molecules and may take longer to diffuse out of the intravascular space.

Gelatins
Albumin
Plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purple blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A

Full blood count
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Blood film
Red cell folate

it contains EDTA, a strong anti-clotting factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pink blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A

Group and save
Crossmatch
Coomb’s test

it contains EDTA, a strong anti-coagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the blue blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A

Coagulation screen
INR
D-dimer

it contains sodium citrate, a reversible anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the yellow blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A 
Urea and Electrolytes (Us+Es)
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Liver function tests (LFTs)
Amylase
Troponins
Creatine Kinase (CK)
Lipid profile

it contains silica particles and a serum separating gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the grey blood bottle test for?

What does it contain?

A

Glucose
Lactate

It contains sodium fluoride as an antiglycolytic agent and potassium oxalate as an anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the red blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A 
Hormones
Toxicology
Drug levels
Bacterial and viral serology
Antibodies

It contains silica particles, acting as a clot activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the dark green blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A

Ammonia
Insulin
Renin and aldosterone

It contains sodium heparin which acts as an anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the light green blood bottle used for?

What does it contain?

A

Routine biochemistry (although the yellow bottle tends to be preferred)

it contains lithium heparin as an anticoagulant and plasma separator gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the blue lidded blood culture bottle used for?

A

Aerobic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purple liddd blood culture bottle used for?

A

Anaerobic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What order do you take bloods in?

A
  1. Blood cultures
  2. Blue bottles
  3. Red bottles
  4. Yellow bottles
  5. Black bottles
  6. Green bottles
  7. Navy bottles
  8. Purple bottles
  9. Grey bottles
  10. Pink bottles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is there a specific order for collecting blood?

A

To avoid contaminating samples with the products that the bottles contain, anticoagulants etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many times should you invert the blood bottles?

A

5-8 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which blood bottle label should you write by hand at the bedside?

A

Pink bottle- to avoid cross match errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 5 sites for intra-muscular injections?

A 
Deltoid
Dorsogluteal
Rectus femoris
Vastus Lateralis
Ventrogluteal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How long should intra-muscular needles be?

A

Long enough to penetrate the muscle and still leave 1/4 of the needle to remain external.

Commonly 21-23 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why should you use the smallest needle size possible?

A

Reduce the risk of thromboli; blood can still flow around it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How tight should the tourniquet be?

A

Tight enough to occlude venous flow but not arterial flow; you should be able to fit 2 fingers under the torniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When would you not want to cannulate in the veins of the forearm?

A

If the patient has any fistulas, i.e. if they are on or due to have dialysis treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give the size of cannula going from smallest to largest

A 
Yellow
Blue
Pink
Green
Black
Grey
Brown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What questionnaire can you use to assess anxiety?

A

The GAD-7 questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What questionnaire can you use to assess depression?

A

The PHQ-9 questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List the scores and severity for anxiety when using the GAD-7 questionnaire

A 
Mild= 0-5
Moderate= 6-10
Moderate-Severe= 11-15
Severe= 16-21
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List the severity scores for depression when using the PHQ-9 questionnaire

A 
Mild= 0-5
Moderate= 6-10
Moderate-Severe= 11-15
Severe= 16-20
38
Q

What is clubbing a sign of?

A

Malabsorption
Crohn’s disease
Cirrhosis

39
Q

What is leuconychia a sign of?

Describe it, what is it associated with?

A

White marks on the nails
Hypoalbuminaemia
Associated with renal failure, fungal infection and lymphoma

40
Q

What is koilonychia?

What causes it?

A

Spoon shaped nail

Iron deficiency anaemia

41
Q

What is dupuytrens contracture?

What is it associated with?

A

This is the thickening of connective tissue in the palm.

It is associated with numerous things including diabetes, alcohol and epilepsy

42
Q

What is palmar erythema and what is it associated with?

A

Red palms

Alcohol related liver disease, diabetes and Wilson’s diseas

43
Q

What is asterixis?

What is it associated with?

A

‘Liver flap’

Encephalitis

44
Q

What are Kayser-Fleischer Rings?

What are they associated with?

A

Brownish-yellow rings around the eye.

Copper deposits and Wilson’s disease

45
Q

What is the Kocher’s surgical scar typically from?

A

Cholecystectomy

46
Q

What is the Pfannensteil scar typically from?

A

C-section

Prostatectomy

47
Q

What is the Lanz incision typically from?

A

Apendectomy

48
Q

What is ascities?
What causes it?
How can you test for it?

A

Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity
Cirrhosis, cancer, heart failure
Percuss for shifting dullness

49
Q

What are spider Naevi?

What cause them?

A

Red dot on abdomen with ‘spider-leg’ like projections around it
High oestrogen levels, pregnancy or liver disease

50
Q

What is Caput Medusa?

What causes it?

A

Distended and engorged superficial veins

Severe portal hypotension
Inferior vena cava obstruction

51
Q

What is gynaecomastia?

What causes it?

A

Man boobs
Liver disease
May also be drug induced

52
Q

Where would you find Virchow’s node?

What is it a sign of?

A

Left supra-clavicular lymph node

Strong association with abdominal cancer

53
Q

From foetal to puberty, what percent of growth is done when?

A

Foetal- 30%
Infantile- 15%
Childhood- 40%
Puberty- 15%

54
Q

How should you measure height from birth to 2 years?

Then from 2 years and old?

A

Horizontally

Vertically

55
Q

Where should you place the chest ECG leads?

A

V1- Right sternal edge, 4th intercostal space
V2- Left sternal edge, 4th intercostal space
V3- Mid way between V2 and V4
V4- 5th intercostal space, mid clavicular line
V5- Mid way between V4 and V6
V6- Left axillary line, at the same level as V4

56
Q

Where do you place the ECG limb leads?

A

Red- Right wrist
Yellow- Left wrist
Green- Left foot
Black- Right foot

57
Q

What is the normal paper speed for an ECG?

58
Q

How long does 1 small square on an ECG represent?
1 large square?
5 large squares?

A

.04 seconds
.2 seconds
1 second

59
Q

What is the formula for working out heart rate on an ECG?

A

No. of large squares between R peaks x .2,

60 divided by ans.

60
Q

How many squares should the P-R interval be?

A

3-5 small squares

61
Q

How many squares should the QRS complex be?

What does a widened QRS complex mean?

A

2-3 small squares

Ventricular conduction problems

62
Q

What does elevation or depression of the ST segment mean?

A

Elevation- Infarction

Depression- Ischemia

63
Q

What does inversion of the T wave mean?
What does a large peaked T wave mean?
What does a flattened T wave mean?

A

Inversion- could be due to infarction
Large peaked- Hyperkalaemia
Flattened- Hypokalaemia

64
Q

Describe ventricular rhythm on an ECG

A

No P wave

Wider QRS complexes

65
Q

Name the shockable cardiac arrest rhythms

A

Ventricular fibrilation

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

66
Q

Name the non shockable cardiac arrest rhythms

A

Pulseless electical activity

Asystole

67
Q

What is foetal lie?

A

Relationship of longitudinal axis of foetus to the mothers spine

68
Q

When is a foetus engaged?

A

When there are 2 or fewer fifths of the head palpable per abdomen

69
Q

When can you hear the baby’s heartbeat with a dopler?

A

12 weeks of gestation onwards

70
Q

When can you hear the baby’s heartbeat with a Pinard?

A

24 weeks of gestation onwards

71
Q

From when does the PSH match the number of weeks gestation?

72
Q

What is the pterodactyl like speculum called?

A

Cusco speculum

73
Q

What is an antalgic gait?

A

Avoidance of pain

74
Q

What are the signs of Parkinson’s in terms of gait?

A 
Bradykinesia
Hypokinetic
Rigidity
Shuffling
En bloc turning
75
Q

What is ataxic gait?

A

‘drunk walking’
Wide stance
Poor coordination

76
Q

What make a good X-ray?

A

Good Inspiration
Good Penetration
No rotation
Good coverage of area

77
Q

On an abdominal x-ray, what are haustra a sign of?

A

Colon or large bowel,

lines that do not go all the way accross

78
Q

On abdo X-ray, how large should the small bowel and large bowel (or colon) be?

A

3cm across for small bowel

6cm across for large bowel

79
Q

What, on an abdo x-ray, indicates small bowel?

A 
Valvulae Conniventes (lines all the way across)
No faeces
80
Q

What can cause small bowel obstruction?

A

Scarring from previous operations (adhesions)
Herneas
Peritoneal cancers

81
Q

What is Rigler’s sign?

A

Being able to see the inside and outside of the bowel. It is a sign of free gas (pneumoperitoneum)

82
Q

What are the signs of pneumoperitonium?

A

Triangular patches of gas

Rigler’s sign

83
Q

What are the causes of large bowel obstructions?

A

Cancers

Strictures fro things like diverticulitis

84
Q

What is a decubitus film?

A

Images of a baby side on- show pneumoperitoneum.

85
Q

What is the best test for pneumoperitonium?

A

Erect chest X-ray

86
Q

Name the 10 peripheral pulses

A 
Carotid
Subclavian
Axillary
Brachial
Radial
Ulnar
Femoral
Popliteal
Posterior Tibial
Dorsalis Pedis
87
Q

Name the oxygen masks in order from low flow rate to highest flow rate

A

Nasal cannula
Venturi mask
Medium concentration mask (Hudson)
Non-rebreathe mask

88
Q

What does ‘clean’ mean?

A

Free from dirt

89
Q

What does asepsis mean?

A

Free from pathogenic organisms

90
Q

What does sterile mean?

A

Free from live bacteria and other microorganisms

91
Q

What are the 2 types of ANTT?

A

Standard ANTT

Surgical ANTT

92
Q

How do you distinguish between the 2 types of ANTT?

A

Can you do the procedure without touching the key parts?
yes- Standard
no- Surgical

Medicine Year 1 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions