I&P Year 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the two broad types of attachment?
A
Secure and insecure
2
Q
Are these models of attachment displayed by infants secure or insecure?
1) social competence
2) positive view on their own value and safety
3) good emotional regulation and management
4) trusting
A
Secure
3
Q
What are three examples of things that provide a barrier to secure attachment?
A
Divorce
Bereavement
Long periods of hospital care
4
Q
What are the 4 stages of attachment development?
A
1) pre attachment
2) attachment in the making
3) clear cut attachment
4) good partnership
5
Q
At what stages of life do the following stages of attachment occur?
1) pre attachment
2) attachment in the making
3) clear cut attachment
4) good partnership
A
1) 0-2 months
2) 2-7 months
3) 7-24 months
4) 24 months +
6
Q
What are the two signs of secure attachment in infants?
A
Separation distress
Stranger anxiety
7
Q
When approximately will stranger anxiety begin in infants?
A
10 months
8
Q
When approximately will separation distress begin in infants?
A
12 months
9
Q
What is trans-auditory learning?
A
Where the baby listens from the womb and learns to recognise their mothers voice
10
Q
Are avoidant and resistant attachment types of secure or insecure attachment?
A
Insecure
11
Q
What is avoidant insecure attachment?
A
Where an infant avoids contact with their mother when reunited after time apart and is okay to be left with strangers
12
Q
What is resistant insecure attachment?
A
Where an infant becomes very upset by the mother leaving as they do not trust that she will return
13
Q
How do avoidant and resistant insecure attachment continue into adult relationships?
A
Avoidant insecure makes the individual dismissive of relationships
Resistant insecure makes the individual fear rejection from a partner and has a strong desire to maintain closeness
14
Q
What factors affect how your gender is determined?
A
Learning
Social factors
Cultural factors
15
Q
What are the 4 factors that determine gender in children?
A
1) prenatal hormones
2) development of genitalia
3) which gender they’re raised as
4) gender identity
16
Q
What does DSD stand for?
A
Disorders of sexual development
17
Q
What are DSDs?
A
sexual ambiguity in genitalia
18
Q
What is the name of the organisation that supports and enhances the health and wellbeing of families affected by DSDs?
A
Accord Alliance
19
Q
What is the name of first phase of gender development?
A
Gender identity self awareness
20
Q
When does gender identity self awareness begin?
A
2-3 years
21
Q
What is the name of the second phase of gender development?
A
Gender stability
22
Q
What is the name of the third phase of gender development?
A
Gender constancy
23
Q
When does the gender constancy phase begin?
A
6 years
24
Q
True or false:
Gender is interpreted only by appearance by children under 6
A
True
25
What psychological disorders are men more likely to be treated for than women?
Drug and alcohol abuse
26
What psychological disorders are women more likely to be treated for than men?
Depression and eating disorders
27
How did Jean Piaget examine child intelligence?
He investigated how children think rather than what they know
28
What are Jean Piaget stages for cognitive development?
1) sensorimotor
2) pre-operational
3) concrete operational
4) formal operation
29
At what age do Jean Piaget 4 stages of cognitive development (below) occur?
1) sensorimotor
2) pre-operational
3) concrete operational
4) formal operation
1) birth-2 years
2) 2-7 years
3) 7-11 years
4) 11+
30
At what age does object permanence develop?
8 months
31
What does the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development involve?
Knowing the physical environment by seeing and touching it so thinking is only achieved by doing
32
How long can a baby remember something when 2 months old?
A day
33
How long can a baby remember something when 3 months old?
1 week
34
How long can a baby remember something when 6 months old?
2+ weeks
35
What age do the following cognitive functions all develop by?
1) obeying simple requests
2) pointing to objects they are told to point at
3) can follow the gesture of an adult
4) demonstrates affection
5) can recognise themselves in mirrors and photos
18 months
36
What is the self identity milestone?
When infants can recognise themselves in a mirror
37
What is a schema?
A concept or framework that organises and interprets information
38
What is the word for this:?
Interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas and fully understanding it
Assimilation
39
What is the word for this?:
Modifying an old schema to fit a new object or problem
Accommodation
40
What is centration?
A period of cognitive development where young children focus their attention one one aspect of an object, situation or problem at a time and ignore other potentially relevant aspects
41
What age does centration tend to occur?
2-7 years
42
What is the 3 mountain, 3 policemen test?
A way to see if children are aware of the way others minds work
43
What is the word to describe understanding that one feature such as a mass of clay can stay the same even though the appearance changes?
Conservation
44
At what age do children have sense of conservation?
5+
45
What is the difference between formal and concrete operation?
Concrete operation is thinking in relation to real things
Formal operation is the ability to apply logic to an abstract scenario
46
What is metacognition?
Thinking about thinking in order to reflect
47
How is IQ calculated now compared to how it used to be calculated?
Old: mental age/ chronological age x100
New: using a table of standardised age scores
48
Give 4 cognitive skills tested by the Wechsler adult intelligence test?
Verbal comprehension
Perceptual reasoning
Working memory
Processing speed
49
What is the same of the IQ test used most widely by institutions?
The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test
50
What does asymmetry of function mean in terms of brain function?
The left and right brain hemispheres do different things
51
What type of experiments have been used to help understand asymmetry of function?
Split brain experiments on epileptic patients
52
Are these functions of the left or right hemisphere?
Simple language function
Spacial and pattern abilities
Emotional recognition
Right
53
Are these functions of the left or right hemisphere?
Complex language functions
Complex logical functions
Mathematical computations
Left
54
What is phonology?
The sound system of a language
55
What is a phoneme?
All the unique sounds in a language
56
How many phonemes does English have?
40
57
What are morphemes?
The smallest meaningful units of language such as small words or prefixes
58
What does syntax mean?
The form or structure of a language using combinational rules
59
What are pragmatics?
Rules about language in social contexts
60
What is echolalia?
Repeating others words of phrases
61
At what age can infants associate objects with their name?
8-12 months
62
What is overextending in an infants language development?
When they use a single word for a group of words
63
What is telegraphic speech?
A child’s first word combinations which omit unnecessary words
64
What is the word for the type of thinking using the verbal language?
Propositional thinking
65
Describe skinners view on language acquisition
Language is learnt verbally via imitation and reinforcement so the more social input children have, the better their language development
66
Describe Chomskys view on language acquisition
Language is a biologically programmed behaviour and we are born with innate share linguistic principles
67
Describe Lenneberg’s critical period hypothesis on language development
If a language is acquired after puberty there are some aspects of a language that cannot be fully mastered
68
What is this neuropathway showing?
Primary auditory area -> wernickes area -> Broca’s area -> motor area for speech
Speaking a heard word
69
What is this neuropathway showing?
primary visual area -> Angular gurus -> Wernicke’s area -> Broca’s area -> motor area for speech
Speaking a written word
70
What is expressive aphasia caused by?
Damage to Broca’s area
71
What is receptive aphasia caused by?
Damage to Wernicke’s area
72
Describe the symptoms of expressive aphasia
Difficulty in speech including stuttering, hesitation and difficulty finding words
Comprehension is largely unimpaired
73
Describe the symptoms of receptive aphasia
Impaired comprehension
Fluent, grammatical speech that lacks content and is nonsense
74
Give the three central rights of the child
1) right to life, survival and development
2) right to health and welfare
3) right to education, leisure, culture and acts
75
Give the UN right of the child regarding family
The right to live in a family environment and have contact with both parents when possible
76
Give 6 duties of parents to their child
1) provide a home
2) protect and maintain the child
3) disciplining
4) agreeing/disagreeing to medical treatment
5) choosing and providing for the child education
6) choosing the child’s region
77
What’s the difference between authoritarian, authoritative and permissive parenting?
Authoritarian - strict rules allowing no freedom, no affection and quick to punish
Authoritative - supportive with clear limits
Permissive - lenient rules, lots of freedom
78
What is the name of the parenting style model that examines how demanding and responsive a parent is?
Maccoby and Martin’s parenting style model
79
What parenting style is used if a parent is unresponsive and undemanding?
Uninvolved
80
Describe the law on reasonable chastisement in England
Parents have the right to make choices about reasonable punishment with a smack being reasonable if it is open handed and wont leave a mark
81
Give 4 common household behavioural control methods
1) naughty step
2) positive reinforcement
3) reward charts
4) house rules
82
What percentage of families contain a married couple/civil partnership?
68%
83
What percentage of families contain a single parent?
14%
84
How does a child’s relationship with other children vary from 12 months - 12+ years?
12-18 months - spend longer looking at other children than mum
2 - imitate
5 - 6 years - sex segregated groups will form
12+ years - sex mixing begins and peer approval becomes more important
85
What is sociometry?
A research method in which students rate the social status of other students
86
What is the difference between bottom-up and top-down processing?
Bottom-up is driven by sensory input whereas top-down is driven by prior knowledge or expectations
87
Why do we have binocular disparity?
our eyes are far apart so have different fields of view
88
Give 4 examples of cues that aid our perception of depth
1) vanishing points in the distance
2) texture gradients
3) relative size
4) interpositioning
89
What is interpositioning?
the placement of one object in from of another creating the perception of depth
90
What is Gestalt?
The tendency to integrate pieces of information into a meaningful whole as our brain seeks the groupings, continuity and patterns
91
Describe the idea of perceptual constancies
When an object changes orientation or angle, it doesn't change the shape or colour despite what our sensory input says
92
What is protective filtering? (in relation to perception)
only taking in the information we need and feel safe to accept
93
Summarise Huxley's Doors of Perception
The brain protects us from being overwhelmed by irrelevant information by shutting it out and only perceiving special, useful information
94
How does having hearing loss affect your other senses?
it can decrease your other senses because you're providing more attention to trying to hear
95
What was the name of the psychologist who experimented on being sane in insane places in 1973?
Rosenhan
96
What was the mean number and range of days taken for Rosenhan's pseudo-patients to get released from hospitalisation?
19 (7-52)
97
What fraction of adults do not get enough sleep?
1/3
98
What is an insufficient amount of sleep?
Less than 7 hours per night
99
What are 4 chronic diseases that lack of sleep has been linked to?
1) obesity
2) diabetes
3) heart disease
4) mental health
100
How long does a REM cycle last for?
60-90 mins
101
What are the names given to the halves of sleep that are deep sleep and lighter sleep?
Core sleep and optional sleep
102
What is the name of the chart that shows the depth of sleep throughout a night?
Hypnogram
103
What is a circadian rhythm?
The internal process that regulates the sleep wake cycle
104
What study found that each circadian cycle lasts 25 hours?
the Bunker study
105
Describe how the bunker study concluded that a circadian cycle lasts approximately 25 hours
Subjects were placed in a bunker without time indicators and their sleep cycles shifted by an hour each night
106
What percentage of the time a foetus spends is in REM sleep?
100%
107
What are parasomnias?
Abnormal movements, dreams or behaviours during sleep
108
Give 3 ways sleep changes when you get older?
1) you sleep less
2) time spent in REM and stages 3 and 4 is reduced
3) parasomnias become rarer
109
What is the mean adult sleep duration?
7.75 hrs
110
Give 3 ways we can investigate sleep
1) assessing subject sleep quality through questionnaires
2) monitoring movements using cameras or tilt switches
3) assessing features of dreams
111
What is sleep latency?
The time taken to fall asleep
112
Give 4 examples of sleep conditions
1) insomnia
2) narcolepsy
3) sleep paralysis
4) sleep deprivation
113
What percentage of the population live with insomnia?
30%
114
Give 3 causes of insomnia
1) psychological problems like depression and anxiety
2) medical disorders and pain
3) social environment like alcohol and drugs
115
Give 4 examples of insomnia treatments
1) hypnotic drugs
2) sleep education
3) sleep hygiene
4) dealing with tension and intrusive thoughts
116
What is sleep hygiene?
Behavioural changes before bed to aid sleep
117
Give 3 symptoms of narcolepsy
1) sleep attacks
2) cataplexy
3) vivid onset dreams
118
What is cataplexy?
Sudden loss of muscle control
119
What causes sleep paralysis?
REM sleep intrusion
120
What is the name of the individual who set the world record for the longest time without sleep?
Randy Gardner
121
How long did Randy Gardner stay awake for?
264 hours (11 days)
122
Describe Randy Gardners symptoms after 2, 5 and 9 days without sleep
2 days - had trouble focussing his eyes
5 days - irritable, uncooperative, memory lapses and problems concentrating
9 days - he had fragmented thought patterns, blurred vision and severe memory lapses
123
Describe Randy Gardners first sleep after being awake for 11 days
He slept for 6.5 additional hours, 93% of which was REM sleep or stages 4 sleep
124
What is human agency?
The capacity to act independent, express power and have the ability to make choices and impose those
125
Define inequality
The systematic difference in the distribution of power, resources and opportunity in a social system
126
Give the 7 UN indicators of poverty and deprivation
1) dirty water
2) lack of sanitation
3) poor nutrition
4) lack of shelter
5) lack of essential medical care
6) information deprivation
7) no access to education
127
What is absolute poverty?
Where household income is insufficient to afford basic necessities of life such as food, shelter and clothing
128
What is relative poverty?
Where household income is a certain percentage below median income for that country
129
Define inequality in health?
The systematic variation in health status, life expectancy, mortality and morbidity between different groups
130
Give the 9 determinants of health found in The Rainbow Model
1) agriculture and food production
2) education
3) work environment
4) living conditions
5) unemployment
6) water and sanitation
7) healthcare services
8) housing
9) individual lifestyle factors
131
What is the name of the model that shows the range of health determinants?
The Rainbow Model
132
What are 4 examples of altered states of consciousness?
1) sleep and dreams
2) psychoactive drug use
3) meditation
4) hypnosis
133
What is mind-body dualism?
The philosophical viewpoint that mind and body and separate entities that do not interact
134
What is the Hard Problem?
The problem of explaining why and how we have individual instances of subjective conscious experiences
135
Who created the Hard Problem?
Chalmers 1994
136
Give 2 examples of dominant functional views of consciousness
1) monitoring
2) controlling
137
What is monitoring? (as a dominant functional views of consciousness)
Experiencing what you attend to
138
What is controlling? (as a dominant functional views of consciousness)
Planning, initiating and guiding our future actions
139
Give 2 examples of unconcious processes in perception
1) subliminal perception
2) thought supression
140
What is subliminal perception?
Perception below the threshold of conscious awareness
141
Who came up with the idea of thought suppression through his polar bear idea?
Dostoyeusky
142
What does an ironic motoring process search for?
Mental contents that signal the failure of mental control
143
Describe the Stroop effect
People are slower to name colour incongruent words as when the word and text colour don’t match, there is interference
144
What are psychedelics?
A family of drugs that alter states and produce hallucinations
145
Other than hallucinations, what 2 other responses do psychedelics cause?
Delusions and emotional changes
146
What are the two types of meditation?
1) concentrative/ one point mediation
2) open meditation
147
What are the aims of concentrative meditation?
To diminish sensory input often by repeating a mantra or relaxation movement
148
What is open meditation?
Being aware and mindful towards everything around you without expecting a response from your experiences
149
Define hypnosis
A social interaction in which a subject responds to suggestions offered by the hypnotists involving alterations no in perception, memory and voluntary action
150
What are the two views of how hypnosis works?
1) altered consciousness
2) period of focussed attention causing a state of social compliance
151
What is the difference between positive and negative hallucination?
Positive - seeing and hearing something that is not present
Negative - failing to perceive something
152
What are the two types of associative learning?
1) classical conditioning
2) operant conditioning
153
What is another term for classical conditioning?
Pavlovian conditioning
154
What is another term for operant conditioning?
Instrumental conditioning
155
What is classical conditioning?
A type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events
156
What is operant conditioning?
A type of learning in which behaviour is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminishes if followed by a punisher
157
What terms are used to describe the formation or weakening of an association?
acquisition and extinction
158
What is temporal contiguity?
Stimuli impacts response immediately proceeding it
159
Is extinction process in associative learning the learning of a new association or the removal of an old one?
Learning of a new one
160
Give two examples of associations that are biologically advantaged
1) conditioned taste aversions
2) phobias
161
Describe the anticipatory nausea/vomiting experienced by chemotherapy patients
An association with the chemo environment and feeling in so the environment becomes a conditioned stimulus for nausea and vomiting
162
What is second order conditioning?
a new conditioned stimulus similar to a previous conditioned stimulus can elicit the same conditioned response
163
What is the law of effect?
Behaviours that are followed by good things happen more often
164
What are examples of primary and secondary rewards?
Primary - food
Secondary - money
165
What are examples of social rewards?
Smiling, nodding, verbal praise
166
What is ‘chaining’?
Reinforcing the connection of each stage of a sequence using positive reinforcement
167
Give an example of negative reinforcement
Picking up a crying baby to stop them from crying
168
What is negative reinforcement?
The escape of avoidance of an aversive event
169
When does extinction in associative learning occur?
When the reinforcement is removed
170
What is positive punishment?
An aversive stimulus or condition such as a smack
171
What is negative punishment?
Removing a pleasant stimulus
172
Describe drive reduction theory of motivation
Motivation is a result of a homeostatic push such as thirst or hunger
173
What are the 5 steps of the drive reduction theory loop?
1) biological need
2) drive
3) goal directed behaviour
4) satisfaction
5) stage of equilibrium
174
Describe the incentive theory of motivation
Behaviour being motivated on the pull of objects which have reward
175
What is taste alliesthesia?
Changed taste sensation over time
176
Which theory of motivation, the incentive or drive reduction theory has an emotional component?
incentive
177
Give a study that showed taste alliesthesia in action
Cabanac and Frankham observed how taste scores changed as candidates chewed fudge over time
178
What term describes why some foods are more resistant to alliesthesia explaining why dessert can be eaten after a big meal?
Sensory specific satiety
179
Who did the study on whether sweets were visible and in reach in an office?
Painter
180
What does hedonic mean?
Pleasure seeking
181
Give Roger and Smits explanation on food craving
When people resist and avoid palatable food this makes the desire for eating more intense
182
Give the 5 levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs from most to least important
1) physiological needs
2) safety and security needs
3) belongingness and love needs
4) esteem needs
5) self actualisation and achieving full potential
183
Which scale measures the extent to which an individual is a sensation seeker?
the Brief Sensation Seeking Scale
184
What are the 7 basic emotional states proposed by Ekman and Friesen?
Happiness
Sadness
Fear
Anger
Surprise
Disgust
Contempt
185
Which of Ekman and Friesen's 7 emotions caused a decrease in body temperature?
Fear and disgust
186
Describe pattern theory by James-Langue?
for an emotion to be experienced an event must happen, followed by a physiological state of arousal
187
Describe the cognitive theory (of emotion) by Schachter and Singer
For an emotion to be experienced, an event must happen followed by a physiological state of arousal, followed by a step of cognitive appraisal towards this arousal
188
What region of the brain is involved in fear and emotion processing?
the amygdala
189
Other than the amygdala, what structures and neurotransmitters assist in emotional regulation?
the limbic system
hypothalamus
serotonin
190
Give two ways in which emotional acquisition is determined by environment
imitation
reinforcement
191
Give the 3 factors of life that happiness relies on
1) pleasance
2) engagement
3) meaning
192
What are the stages of memory acquisition?
1) encoding
2) storage
3) retrieval
193
What is meant by encoding?
receiving and processing new information
194
Who devised the current multi-store memory model?
Baddeley
195
What 3 components make up short term memory in Baddeley's multi-store memory model?
1) short term store
2) articulatory loop
3) visio-spatial scratch pad
196
What 3 ways can information be encoded?
visually
acoustically
semantic
197
What findings came from Glanzer and Cunitz word order experiment?
participants were more likely to remember words positioned earlier and later in the list
198
What are the names of the effects that make the words at the start and end of a list easier to remember and the middle harder?
Primacy effect
recency effect
serial position effect
199
What is the average number of digits that adults can remember in a sequence?
7
200
What is chunking?
When you group information to make it easier to learn
201
Give the 3 types of long term memory
1) episodic
2) semantic
3) procedural
202
What is episodic memory?
autobiographical information about events we have personally experienced
203
What is semantic memory?
facts and general knowledge
204
What is procedural memory?
implicit memory that stores information about how to do things
205
What is eidetic imagery?
photographic memory
206
What is the name of the condition characterised by highly superior autobiographical memory?
hyperthymesia
207
what is the difference between explicit and implicit memory?
explicit - memory of facts and experiences that you can declare and consciously know
implicit - procedural memories that are subconscious often
208
Where is implicit memory stored?
basal ganglia and cerebellum
209
where is the short term memory store located?
prefrontal cortex
210
where is the long term memory store located?
TOP
211
Where does the consolidation of short term memory to long term memory take place?
the hippocampus
212
where is recall ability best utilised?
In the same context as where the encoding took place
213
What is white coat halo and why can it be dangerous?
Uniform and status of doctors making them appear trustworthy but can mean that their wrongs can be left unquestioned
214
Who led the classic shock experiment?
Milgram
215
Describe the set up for Milgram’s shock experiment
1) ordinary people were invited to ask questions to an ‘answerer’ and shock them with increasing voltage if they answer incorrectly
2) orders were given by a scientist in a white coat who would respond to any objections with “the experiment requires you to continue”
3) shock victim would beg for mercy
216
In Milgram’s shock experiment at what point did participants predict they would disobey orders?
Level 9
217
In Milgram’s shock experiment, not 1 person disobeyed until shock level …?
20
218
What percentage of participants in Milgram’s shock experiment went to the full shock?
63%
219
What is the Market Research study?
Panels of 9 people were presented with a legal case where a company was unfairly targeting a member of staff
They were asked to discuss and sign in favour of the company
Only 4/33 panels all signed the market research case
220
Give 3 factors that affect group behaviour in Latane’s law of social impact
1) number of people
2) strength/ legitimacy of others
3) immediacy
221
Describe the setup of the smoke test
Students were left alone or in a group of 3 in a waiting room and a stream of smoke entered the room. The time taken for them to report it was recorded
222
Describe the results of the smoke test
75% of those alone reported the steam within 2 minutes
In groups of 3, <13% reported in 6 minutes
223
Give 3 social processes in emergencies which explain bystander apathy
1) diffusion of responsibility
2) social definition (if others Döner espond is it an emergency?)
3) audience inhibition
224
Give 3 non-social factors which determine whether we help in emergencies
1) ambiguity of situation
2) personal threat
3) one’s personality
225
What is an ‘in group’?
A social group toward which a member feels respect and loyalty
226
What is an ‘out group’?
A social group toward which a person feels a sense of competition or opposition
227
What is social inhibition?
A decrease in performance when in the presence of others usually for complex tasks
228
What is social facilitation?
Improved performance when in the presence if others, on simple and well-learned tasks
229
Describe an experiment that demonstrated both social facilitation and social inhibition
Candidates were instructed to type their name quickly and did this faster when observed
However when the task difficulty was increased, candidates weren’t faster when observed
230
Describe motivational loss in relation to the rope pulling experiment
Individuals in groups worked less than their individual potential due to social loafing
231
Give three reasons for social loafing?
1) unclear/different standards
2) output equity
3) evaluation apprehension (hiding in a group)
232
Give 3 ways organisations try to combat social loafing?
1) making individual contributions identifiable
2) keep group sizes at an appropriate level
3) emphasise individual contributions
233
What is group polarisation?
The enhancement of a groups prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group
234
What is a risky shift in group work?
The tendency for groups to make riskier decisions than individuals would
235
Why does group discussion often strengthen the average inclination of individuals?
1) persuasive arguments
2) social comparison and social desirability
3) discussion produces a commitment
236
What is a pro-social behaviour?
Any act performed with the goal of benefitting another person
237
What is the social responsibility norm?
An expectation that people will help those needing their help
238
What is the reciprocity norm?
An expectation that people will help, not hurt those who have helped them
239
What is conformity?
Adjusting out behaviour or thinking to coincide with a group standard
240
Why do we conform?
To avoid ridicule and social disapproval
241
What is deindividuation?
The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that Forster arousal and anonymity
242
Define an impairment?
A problem in body function or structure due to a physical loss, disease or condition
243
Describe the charity model of disability
Disabled people are treated as passive without agency and with a focus on sympathy
Disability is seen as something tragic
244
Describe the biomedical model of disability
The aim of medicine is to recent or treat impairment or return the disabled to a state of normal function.
Doctors are the experts
245
Describe the social model of disability
Rejects impairment as a cause of disability and instead says that disadvantages come from societies inability to accommodate difference
246
What is human agency?
The capacity to act independently with the expression of power and the ability to make choices and impose those choices
247
Give the 3 broad groups of social barriers to disabilities
1) environment
2) attitudes
3) organisations
248
Give 4 examples of environmental barriers to disabilities
1) inaccessible buildings
2) services
3) language
4) communication
249
Give the updated WHO-ICF definition of disability
The negative aspect of the interaction between an individual with an impairment and contextual factors
250
How does the 2010 equality act define disability?
An impairment or long term health condition of twelve months or more in duration which can include mental and physical health conditions which affect activities of daily living
251
Is there a legal requirement to disclose your disability?
No
252
What is direct discrimination?
treating someone less favourably because of their characteristics
253
What is indirect discrimination?
Rules, regulations or procedures that have the effect of discrimination
254
What is victimisation?
To punish or treat a person less favourably because that person has asserted his/her rights
255
Describe the regulations around reasonable adjustments for disabled people
All public sector services have the legal duty to make reasonable adjustments to their services so that they are accessible and effective for disabled people
256
Give the WHOs definition of quality of life
An individuals perception of their position in life in the context of the culture and value system in which they live and in relation to their goals, expectations, standards and concerns
257
Give the multi-dimensional factors that determine quality of life
1) physical health
2) psychological factors
3) personal beliefs and freedom
4) social relationships
5) level of independence
6) relation to environment
258
What nation was concluded to have the best quality of life by the Organisation of Economic Cooperation?
Norway
259
What does PROM stand for?
Patient reported outcome measures
260
What actually are PROMs?
Patient ratings of the effects of a disease, condition or treatment on their quality of life
261
What is health related quality of life?
The functional effect of a medical condition and/or its therapy on quality of life as assessed by the patient
262
Give an example of a disease where there’s a linear association between lower QoL and disease
Parkinson’s disease
263
What is the general PROM-related QoL scale?
EuroQol Group 5 dimensions scale (EQ-5D)
264
What are the 5 dimensions in the EQ-5D questionnaire?
1) mobility
2) self care
3) usual activities
4) pain
5) anxiety and depression
265
Give an example of a disease specific QoL scale
Kidney disease QoL
266
Give 3 reasons why some patients with limiting illness rate their QoL higher than healthy people
1) response shift (re-calibration of values)
2) items assessed
3) rating scale
267
What time period of pain is considered chronic?
More than 3 months
268
What fraction of people with severe pain also have clinical anxiety or depression?
2/3
269
What is the name of the condition where someone can’t experience pain?
Congenital analgesia
270
What is the traditional definition of pain?
Pain is an unpleasant and emotional experience associated with actual and potential tissue damage
271
Give a recently updated definition of pain
Pain is whatever the patient says it is and exists when they say it does
272
Give 6 common features of pain behaviour
1) complaining
2) negative facial expressions
3) reduced behavioural repetiore
4) posture changes
5) para-vocalisation
6) rubbing/ holding/ guarding
273
Give 4 examples of pain rating scales
1) pain thermometer
2) visual analogue
3) McGill pain questionnaires
4) faces pain scale
274
Describe the pain thermometer
Fixed point pain scale from 1-10 with 10 being the worst pain
275
Describe the visual pain analogue
100mm line from no pain to worst pain with non fixed marks
276
Describe the McGill Pain questionnaire
Set of detailed questions with many descriptors and increasing severities
Pain location can be labelled on a blank body
277
Why does the face pain scale only use even numbers?
So that midpoint values can be identified if a child feels though they are between two faces
278
What is the gate control theory?
The theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological gate that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain
279
Give an example of a treatment that uses gate control theory to reduce pain
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimualtion
280
Is there substantial evidence to support the gate control theory?
No
281
What factors affect phantom limb pain?
Changes in mood, behaviour and environment
282
What is believed to initially case phantom limb pain?
A memory of pain from amputation imprinting
283
Describe the virtual walking study
Paraplegics were shown projections of themselves walking with actors legs everyday for 10 minutes, using their arms in time with the movement
This reduced lower limb pain
284
What are the 3 traits of pain?
1) threshold
2) duration
3) quality
285
What are the three types of pain duration?
1) physical
2) acute
3) chronic
286
What are the three types of pain quality?
1) superficial
2) deep
3) referred
287
Describe the Clarke and Clarke study on pain tolerance between Nepalese and western climbers
Nepalese climbers tolerated electrical stimulation better than western climbers
288
Does anaesthetic increase pain unpleasantness or pain intensity?
Pain unpleasantness
289
Describe the results of the surgery preparation pain study?
Preparing a patient for surgery using specific information and relaxation techniques resulted in less morphine being needed days after surgery
290
Describe the nurse praise study’s results on pain?
Pain intensity experienced by a group of patients was lower when nurses praised ‘well talk’ than days when the nurses praised ‘sick talk’
291
Give the 5 stage cycle of chronic disease psychological distress
1) decreased pain tolerance
2) pain
3) anxiety
4) sleeplessness
5) irritability
