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I&P1 > I&P > Flashcards

I&P Flashcards

1
Q

What theory includes positive and negative internal working model?

A

Attachment theroy

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2
Q

What does secure attachment involve?

A

Positive internal working model

Emotional regulation ability

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3
Q

What are the consequences of not having early secure attachment?

A

Adult relationships effected, psychological health affected

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4
Q

Who discovered the ‘pre attachment’ stage?

A

Harlow and Harlow

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5
Q

At what age does the ‘pre attachment’ stage of attached development occur?

A

0-2 months

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6
Q

At what age does the ‘attachment-in-the-making’ stage of attached development occur?

A

2-7 months

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7
Q

At what age does the ‘clear cut attachment’ stage of attached development occur?

A

7-24 months

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8
Q

At what age does the ‘goal corrected partnership’ stage of attached development occur?

A

24+ months

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9
Q

At what age does ‘ stranger anxiety’ occur?

A

10 months

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10
Q

At what age does ‘ separation distress’ occur?

A

12 months

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11
Q

Who developed the ‘Strange Situation’?

A

Ainsworth

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12
Q

What is the ‘Strange Situation’?

A

interaction between infant, mother and stranger

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13
Q

What are the types of attachment in the ‘Strange Situation’?

A

Secure
Insecure (avoidant)
Insecure (resistance)
Disorganised

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14
Q

What is the Minnesota Longitudinal study?

A

A study involving 250 children of moderate risk to poverty. They were more reliant on teachers, more socially isolated and often rated as passive and easily fustrated

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15
Q

What is the ‘Disorder of sexual development’?

A

the reproductive or sexual anatomy is not standard female and male

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16
Q

What is the ‘social learning theory’?

A

rewarding for masculine behaviour and punishing for feminine behaviour

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17
Q

At what age is ‘gender identity’ acquired?

A

2-3 years old

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18
Q

At what age is ‘gender stability’ acquired?

A

4 years old

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19
Q

At what age is ‘gender consistency’ acquired?

A

4-5 years

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20
Q

Who formed the ‘Gender similarities hypothesis’?

A

Hyde

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21
Q

What is ‘Phonology’ in language development?

A

the ‘sound system’

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22
Q

What is ‘Semantics’ in language development?

A

expressed meaning of words and sentences

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23
Q

What is ‘Syntax’ in language development?

A

the form or structure of a language

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24
Q

What is ‘Pragmatics’ in language development?

A

rules about language in social contexts

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25
Q

At what age is the ‘pre-linguistic’ period in language development?

A

0-12 months

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26
Q

What does the ‘pre-linguistic’ period in language include and at what age?

A

Crying (first 3-4 weeks)}
Cooing (3-5 weeks onward)
Babbling (3-4 months)

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27
Q

At what age do children associate objects with its name?

A

8-12 months

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28
Q

At what age to children give objects their true symbolic representation?

A

18 months

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29
Q

At what age does ‘Telegraphic speech’ occur?

A

18-24 months

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30
Q

What is ‘Telegraphic speech’?

A

eg. more car, more walk, no bed, no home

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31
Q

At what age to children add complexity to their language?

A

2+ years

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32
Q

At what age does narrative speech occur?

A

3-5 years

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33
Q

Which two people developed language acquisition?

A

Skinner and Chomsky

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34
Q

What is language acquisition? (according to Skinner)

A

Language is learned via imitation and progressive reinforcement

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35
Q

What is language acquisition? (according to Chomsky)

A

Universal grammar is innate

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36
Q

Who developed the ‘Critical period hypothesis’?

A

Lenneberg

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37
Q

Which hypothesis consists of children before the age of 12 being bilingual with no accent recover their language skills after a head injury?

A

Critical period hypothesis

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38
Q

Which areas of the brain are used to ‘speak a heard word’?

A

Broca’s area, Wernick’s area, motor area and primary auditory area

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39
Q

Broca’s area, Wernick’s area, motor area and primary visual area and Angular gyrus are used to do what?

A

‘Speak a written word’

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40
Q

Name the types of aphasia?

A

Expressive and Receptive

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41
Q

What is ‘expressive aphasia’?

A

Damage to Broca’s areas. Speech is hesitant but comprehension unimpaired.

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42
Q

What is ‘receptive’ aphasia’?

A

Damage to Wernicks’s areas. Fluent, non sense speech but comprehension impaired.

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43
Q

Who developed the ‘styles of parenting’?

A

Baumrind

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44
Q

Name the 3 different styles of parenting.

A

Authoritarian, Authoritative and Permissive

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45
Q

What is ‘Authoritarian’ style of parenting?

A

Strict ideas on discipline and behaviour. Not to be discussed.

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46
Q

What is ‘Authoritative’ style of parenting?

A

ideas about discipline and behaviour discussed with kids

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47
Q

What is ‘Permissive’ style of parenting?

A

relaxed ideas

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48
Q

What is the best parenting style?

A

Authoritative

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49
Q

Who decided that ‘Authoritative’ was the best method of parenting?

A

Steinburg

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50
Q

At what age do children touch their mum’s but look to their peers more?

A

12-18 months

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51
Q

At what age do children try to gain peer attention and imitate peers?

A

2 years

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52
Q

At what age does the peer relationship does solitary, parallel group in proportion happen?

A

2-4 years

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53
Q

At what age does the peer relationship does more clique and gangs (mixed sex crowds) happen?

A

12+ years

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54
Q

At what age does the peer relationship does more group play, larger groups become sex segregated happen?

A

5-6 years

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55
Q

What is ‘bottom up processing’?

A

Sensory driven, organising incoming information

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56
Q

What is ‘top up processing?’

A

Driven by knowledge, experience or expectations. Determining perception in an ambiguous setting.

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57
Q

What are the two methods of visual perception?

A

Depth perception and gestalt/whole perception

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58
Q

What is depth perception?

A

Binocular disparity. Monocular clues (reflect on learning)

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59
Q

What is Gestalt/whole perception?

A

organisational tendencies - seeking meaningful groupings

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60
Q

What is ‘sensory limitations’?

A

Awareness failure or protective filtering?

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61
Q

What is the theory for ‘sensory limitation’ and who founded it?

A

The doors of perception - Huxley

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62
Q

What is ‘The doors of perception’ theory?

A

Brain and nervous system protects us from being overwhelmed and confused by large amounts of useless information

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63
Q

What kind of model is ‘the assumptive world’ model?

A

internalised cognitive model

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64
Q

What is ‘the assumptive world’ model?

A

Blind from birth, vision as an adult

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65
Q

Who developed ‘the context of madness’?

A

Rosenhan

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66
Q

What is ‘the context of madness’?

A

Being sane in insane places. 8 patients heard voices whilst in hospital therefore were diagnosed with schizophrenia. After discharged, schizo was in remission

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67
Q

What is ‘consciousness’?

A

Being aware of your self and your surrounding operating on a continium

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68
Q

Who developed ‘the hard problem’?

A

Chalmers

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69
Q

What is ‘the hard problem’?

A

Explains how physical processes in the brain are subjective. Subjective v objective

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70
Q

What are the ‘dominant/popular functional views’?

A

Monitoring, Controlling, consciousness and unconsciousness processing.

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71
Q

What is ‘monitoring’ in the ‘dominant/popular functional views’?

A

You experience what you attend to. Inattentional blindness

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72
Q

What is ‘controlling’ in the ‘dominant/popular functional views’?

A

plan, initiate and guide actions. Future possibilities choosing between alternatives

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73
Q

What is ‘monitoring’ in the ‘consciousness and unconsciousness processing’?

A

actions can be always unconscious, normally conscious or vice versa or both unconscious/conscious

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74
Q

What is subliminal perception?

A

used in advertisements. Message is discreetly placed and repeated eg. flashing images, below audible volumn

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75
Q

Who developed the ‘ironic process theory’?

A

Wegner

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76
Q

What is the ‘ironic process theory’?

A

deliberate attempts to suppress certain thoughts make them more likely to surface

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77
Q

What is ‘ironic monitoring process’?

A

signals the failure of mental control

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78
Q

what can help the failure of mental control?

A

Psychoactive drugs, meditation and hypnosis (Kilstrom)

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79
Q

How many stages of sleep are there?

A

4 AND REM (so 5)

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80
Q

What does REM stand for?

A

Rapid eye movement

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81
Q

What is core sleep?

A

The first 5 hours. Mostly deep (stages 3 and 4). Half of it is REM sleep

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82
Q

What is optional sleep?

A

The 2 hours after the core sleep. Mostly stage 1 and 2

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83
Q

What is the ‘Bunker study’?

A

Proves that the normal cardiac rhythm is 25 hours and not 24. Participants were made to live in a bunker with no daylight and this was the cycle they naturally shifted to

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84
Q

In what stage are dreams most likey?

A

REM - twice as likely and 6 times longer

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85
Q

What is ‘insomnia’?

A

difficulty getting to sleep or staying asleep for long enough to feel refreshed the next morning, even though you’ve had enough opportunity to sleep

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86
Q

What are the causes of insomnia?

A

Normally secondry to another problem eg. psychological problems, medical disorders, drugs, alcohol

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87
Q

What is the treatment for insomnia?

A

Hypnotic drugs, sleep education, dealing with tension/intrusive thoughts

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88
Q

What is narolepsy?

A

‘sleep attacks’. Overwhelming sleepiness causing paralysis and hallucinations. Most prone when excited

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89
Q

Who conducted the study on sleep deprivation?

A

Randy Gardner

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90
Q

What did Gardner’s study on sleep deprivation show?

A

11 days without sleep causes difficulty in focusing, irritability, memory lapses, blurred vision. We have a reserve capacity for 7 nights sleep loss. Cortical function is affected. 1/3 of lost sleep is recovered via stage 4/REM sleep

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91
Q

What are the 3 stages of memory?

A

Encoding, Storage and Retrieval

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92
Q

What is the model associated with the three stages of memory?

A

multi store memory model

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93
Q

In what ways can memory be encoded?

A

Iconic memory (visual) or echoic memory (phonological)

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94
Q

What is ‘chunking’ in terms of memory?

A

recording new material into larger, more meaningful units

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95
Q

Ways in which long term memory is formatted?

A

Episodic: autobiographical
Semantic: knowledge about the world
Procedural: skills based

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96
Q

What is ‘hyperthymesia’?

A

possessing an extremely detailed autobiographical memory

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97
Q

What is ‘associative learning’?

A

The relationship between two events

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98
Q

What is ‘Pavlovian/classical conditioning’?

A

a learning process that occurs when two stimuli are repeatedly paired: a response which is at first elicited by the second stimulus is eventually elicited by the first stimulus alone

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99
Q

What is an example of ‘Pavlovian/classical conditioning’?

A

Pavlov’s dog. Bell = food = saliva. Eventually bell = saliva

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100
Q

What is ‘operant/instrumental conditioning’?

A

type of learning where behaviour is controlled by consequences. Key concepts in operant conditioning are positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, positive punishment and negative punishment

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101
Q

What are the biological constraints of conditioning?

A

Some learning is biologically advantageous, phobias, conditioned taste aversions

102
Q

Who conducted the ‘bright, noisy water’ study?

A

Garcia and Koelling

103
Q

What is the ‘bright, noisy water’ study?

A

Rats trained to drink water for one 20 min period a day. There was ‘bright, noisy water’ and ‘tasty water’. They were split into 3 groups: receiving xrays, lithium or shock after drinking the water. Rats avoided tasty water during sickness and bright noisy water during pain

104
Q

Who was involved in the ‘sauce béarnaise’ study?

A

Seligman

105
Q

Where can ‘second order conditioning’ be an issue in clinical setting?

A

Chemotherapy: sickness can be associated

106
Q

What are the types of reinforcement?

A

Primary (unconditional), secondary (conditioned), social, shaping and chaining

107
Q

What is the ‘primary’ type of reinforcement?

A

inherently reinforcing e.g food

108
Q

What is the ‘secondary’ type of reinforcement?

A

being reinforced e.g. money

109
Q

What is the ‘social’ type of reinforcement?

A

consequences of behaviours e.g smiling, nodding

110
Q

What is the ‘shaping’ type of reinforcement?

A

reinforcements of successive desired behaviour

111
Q

What is the ‘chaining’ type of reinforcement?

A

complex behaviours broken down into parts and each part is reinforced

112
Q

What is pain?

A

unpleasant and emotional experience associated with actual/potential tissue damage OR pain is what the patient says it is and exists when he or she says it does

113
Q

What is a pain rating scale?

A

Uses the 1-10 ‘pain thermometer’

114
Q

What is ‘McGill Pain Questionnaire?

A

Uses descriptors, the body areas effected and pain score

115
Q

When is ‘faces’ pain scale mainly used?

A

in paediatrics

116
Q

Who developed the gate control theory?

A

Melzack and Wall

117
Q

What is the gate control theory?

A

suggests that the signals encounter ‘nerve gates’ at the level of the spinal cord and they need to get cleared through these gates to reach the brain. therefore when the gate is open then there is pain. Uses TENS. Pain is a perception that varies between individuals and there are many causes of pain

118
Q

Who created the ‘phantom limb pain’ theory?

A

Moseley

119
Q

What is ‘phantom limb pain’?

A

experienced by amputees. Pain is experienced in this area despite the fact that limb sensation should no longer be there after time. Changes in pain linked to mood, behaviour and environment

120
Q

Who conducted the study for ‘cultural differences and treatment’ for pain?

A

Clarke and Clarke

121
Q

What did the ‘Clarke and Clarke study’ with the Himalayan climbers prove?

A

motivated tolerance was higher that the actual tolerance.

122
Q

Explain western culture views on pain/treating ill people

A

‘tough love’ approach. More compassionate care. Patients will drag outgoing to the doctor which is bad

123
Q

What are treatments for coping with acute pain?

A

Anaesthesia eg. N20, relaxation techniques, cognitive behaviour therapy for pain

124
Q

Who devised the ‘classic decision theory - rational choice framework’?

A

Von Neumaan and Morgenstem

125
Q

What is the expected utility theory?

A

Framework to understand how decisions under risk or uncertainty should be made. Based on the logical assumptions about how people calculate the ‘best’ option. The option that has the greatest expected utility is the ‘correct/rational’ choice

126
Q

Who devised the ‘Bounded Rationality’?

A

Simon

127
Q

What is ‘Bounded Rationality’?

A

The strategies people use to make decisions as people don’t have the capacity to calculate EUT therefore use simpler methods such as Satisficing, Elimination by aspect and Heuristic

128
Q

Who devised the ‘Satisficing’ approach to making a decision?

A

Simon

129
Q

Who devised the ‘Elimination by aspect’ approach to making a decision?

A

Tversky

130
Q

Who devised the ‘Heuristic’ approach to making a decision?

A

Chaiken

131
Q

What is the ‘Satisficing’ approach to making a decision?

A

choosing a criteria and going with the first option that matches it

132
Q

What is the ‘Elimination by aspect’ approach to making a decision?

A

choose a criteria the COMPARE all those that fit with it

133
Q

What is the ‘Heuristic’ approach to making a decision?

A

Use a ‘rule of thumb’ ie. a friend suggested it, you’ve done it before

134
Q

What are the information processing strategies?

A

information is searched for then inferred.
System 1: heuristic approach
System 2: Systematic approach

135
Q

What is the heuristic strategy for information processing?

A

fast, little effort required. looks at who gave you the information and how reliable they are. More likely to regret it or make the wrong choices

136
Q

What is the systamatic strategy for information processing?

A

slow and more analysed. Evaluate pro’s and cons. Less likely to regret the decision

137
Q

Who came up with the ‘doctors errors’ theory?

A

Graber

138
Q

What is ‘doctors errors’?

A

3 types of failures in diagnosing:
no fault - silent disease. poor quality data from the patient
systematic: delays, missed appointment
cognitive: poor data collection, flawed reasoning

139
Q

Who came up with the ‘duel process model of diagnostic reasoning’?

A

Croskerry

140
Q

What is ‘healthy’?

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing (WHO)

141
Q

What is ‘ill’?

A

More than not being well (Lall)

142
Q

Broadbend and Petrie claim that 38% of symptoms are what?…

A

Headaches

143
Q

Who suggested that less that 5% of people with symptoms do not act upon them?

A

Campbell and Rowland

144
Q

Who devised the ‘sick role’?

A

Parsons

145
Q

What is the ‘sick role’?

A

society giving people a ‘sick role’ which identifies and accepts them as ill. This makes them exempt from normal social roles and responsibilities. They can seek help (Kals and Cobb). Defined by society

146
Q

Who devised the ‘self regulation/illness representation’ theory?

A

Leventhal

147
Q

What is the ‘self regulation/illness representation’ theory?

A

Defined by self. Links how illness is presented with the coping and illness behaviours that follow. Varies between individuals. Strategies are appraised and changed if needed.

148
Q

What are the stages of the ‘self regulation/illness representation’ theory?

A

Stage 1: Illness representation - identify, cause, timeline, consequences, cure
Stage 2: Coping
Stage 3: Appraisal

149
Q

Who devised the ‘Beliefs about medicine’?

A

Horne

150
Q

What is stress?

A

a response, a stimuli and a response

151
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

at first, stress is coped with but then exhaustion stage is reached and body reacts by attacking organs

152
Q

Who developed the general adaptation syndrome?

A

selye

153
Q

what is post traumatic stress disorder?

A

natural emotional reaction to a deeply shocking and disturbing experience e.g trauma

154
Q

Who hypothesised that PTDD improves after time?

A

Hull et al via ‘Pipa alpha’

155
Q

Who developed psychoimmunology?

A

Cohen

156
Q

What is psychoimmunology?

A

the depression of the immune system function due to stress

157
Q

Who developed the ‘social readjustment theory’?

A

Holmes and Rahe

158
Q

What is the ‘social readjustment theory’?

A

if a major traumatic event has occurred then a person has to readjust socially

159
Q

Who developed the ‘hassles and uplifts scale’?

A

Lazarus and Folkman

160
Q

What is the ‘hassles and uplifts scale’?

A

A questionnaire that is done before you go to bed. Consists of rating the hassles and uplifts of different people and relationships after each day

161
Q

What are the two studies related to breast cancer and life events?

A

Retrospective and Quasi-Prospective

162
Q

Who developed the Retrospective study for breast cancer and life events?

A

Protheroe et al

163
Q

Who developed the Quasi-Prospective study for breast cancer and life events?

A

Cooper and Faragher

164
Q

What is the Retrospective study for breast cancer and life events?

A

300+ women involved who had breast lumps. The difficult life events in the past were not associated with the cancer

165
Q

What is the Quasi-Prospective study for breast cancer and life events?

A

200+ attended a breast screening. The malignancies found to be associated with a single major event

166
Q

What personality type has a higher risk for heart disease and heart attacks?

A

Type A

167
Q

Who proved that lifestyle changes are helpful in the management of stress?

A

Billings and Siberman et al

168
Q

Who developed the ‘appraisal process’?

A

Lazarus and Folkman

169
Q

What is the primary ‘appraisal process’?

A

perception of demands

170
Q

What is the secondary ‘appraisal process’?

A

available coping options

171
Q

What is self esteem?

A

Takes many identities. ‘The looking glass self’ - looking at ourselves as others see us. Self appraised by other peoples reactions

172
Q

Who developed the ‘social comparison theory’?

A

Festinger

173
Q

What is the ‘social comparison theory’?

A

Using social and relationship information to compare ourselves to others. Maintains self esteem. Inc ‘self serving bias’ which is an unrealistic optimism or positive self view of ones self.

174
Q

What is the case study linked with ‘social comparison theory’?

A

Weinstein - Asked students the future likelihood of experiencing future events. They mentioned more desirable events than undesirable. However this was not seen in people with depression.

175
Q

What ‘self concept’ do young children have?

A

Visual self concept by the age of 2 (age, appearance, gender)

176
Q

What ‘self concept’ do older children have?

A

internal attributes, likes and feelings

177
Q

What ‘self concept’ do adolescents have?

A

subtle, abstract, complex

178
Q

What is the ‘3 mountains problems’?

A

proves that thought in the preoperation period is egocentric - Children are asked to draw how the mountains would look from the doll’s point of view. Typically, 3- 4 year olds simply draw how the mountains look from their own viewpoint.

179
Q

When would the ‘3 mountains problems’ not be proven?

A

in children with autism

180
Q

What is the ‘halo affect’?

A

What is beautiful is good and vice versa

181
Q

What is the white coat halo?

A

The positive perception you have of people in healthcare e.g. confidentiality, specialised knowledge, caring

182
Q

What did ‘Milgram’s study’ consist of?

A

An ordinary man follows orders to deliver an electric shock to a victim from a man in a white coat. This has been replicated several times and proven to be correct

183
Q

What is the ‘law of social impact’?

A

the likelihood that a person will respond to social influence will increase with:
•Strength: how important the influencing group of people are to you.
•Immediacy: how close the group are to you (in space and time) at the time of the influence attempt.
•Number: How many people there are in the group

184
Q

Who developed the ‘law of social impact’?

A

Latane

185
Q

What is the ‘bystander apathy’?

A

individuals do not offer any means of help to a victim when other people are present. Made aware by the Kitty Genovesa case, in which she was left on the street unconscious and bleeding

186
Q

Who developed the ‘bystander apathy’?

A

Latane

187
Q

What does group productivity depend on?

A

Social facilitation - better performance in competition or being observed. When task gets more complex, then social inhibition comes into play and there are more errors

188
Q

What is ‘social loafing’?

A

Working less hard when you’re in a group

189
Q

What is ‘the risky shift’?

A

a group consensus is almost always riskier than the average decision made by an individual prior to a group discussion

190
Q

What is ‘group polarisation’?

A

Group discussions that strengthen the average inclination of group members

191
Q

What are the ‘non social factors’ in responding to an emergency?

A

ambiguity of the situation
personality
personal threat

192
Q

What are the ‘social factors’ in responding to an emergency?

A

presence of others - bystander apathy

193
Q

What is ‘conformity’?

A

adhering to the norms or going with the majority

194
Q

who studied conformity’?

A

Solomon Asch

195
Q

What is the biomedical model of disability?

A

The aim is to prevent disability or return person to a state of normal functioning as disability results in social disadvantage. The intervention is eg. surgery, glasses etc

196
Q

What is the social approach of disability?

A

rejects impairment as a cause of disability. Disadvantages mostly from societies inability to accommodate. Intervention is social change, not just medical intervention and prevention

197
Q

What is the ‘equality act’?

A

protects disabled people and their carers against discrimination or victimisation

198
Q

What is an outcome indicator?

A

used by the government to plan for society. measures that describe how well we are achieving our outcomes. They help us know whether things are changing in the way we intended

199
Q

Who studied ‘important values in your life’?

A

Rokeach

200
Q

What is ‘important values in your life’?

A

figuring out whether terminal values are ranked highest priority. Illness, pain and disability associated with a lower quality of life.

201
Q

What is ‘health related quality of life’?

A

function effect of a medical condition and its therapy as assessed by the patient

202
Q

what are ‘patient reported outcome measures’ or ‘PROM’s’?

A

patient rating of the effect of a disease, condition or treatment. disease specific measurements can also be used

203
Q

Why do some people with limiting illnesses rate their quality of life better than healthy people?

A

Response shift - change in internal standards, re-evaluate values
Rating scale - comparing to past or to others their age
Items assessed - prioritise aspects of their life more

204
Q

What is health promotion?

A

enabling people to increase control over or improve their healthcare. More than just an individual behaviour, wide range of social and environmental interventions

205
Q

Who developed the ‘alameda county study’?

A

Belloc and Breslow

206
Q

What is the ‘alameda county study’?

A

a study of 7000 people that had a follow up 9 years later. The people that had a longer life where those that who followed five practices e.g 8 hours sleep, alcohol moderation, healthy eating etc

207
Q

Who developed the ‘social cognition theories’?

A

Bandura

208
Q

What are the ‘social cognition theories’?

A

Behaviours are governed by: expectancies about behaviours, incentives or consequences about behaviour and social congnitions

209
Q

Which models explain behaviour?

A

Health belief model, protection motivation and stages of change

210
Q

What is the ‘theory of planned behaviour’?

A

explains lifestyle behaviour from a persons view of their social world. Beliefs determines attitude which determines Intervention which determines behaviour

211
Q

What is ‘absolute poverty’?

A

poverty that is consistent throughout the country

212
Q

What is ‘relative poverty’?

A

poverty in relation to a measure in the country where a person lives

213
Q

What is ‘The Whitehall Studies’?

A

Study of social gradient and health in civil servants in London. 10, 314 men and women. Showed that there was a clear stepwise social gradient in physical and mental health

214
Q

Who developed ‘Status syndrome’?

A

Marmot

215
Q

What is ‘Status syndrome’?

A

Psychological mechanisms associated with social status differentiation. Low social position linked to two main biological stress pathways

216
Q

What is the ‘Life course theory’?

A

Independent of their adult socioeconomic characteristics, children who fathers working in manual occupations carried a higher risk of coronary heart, stomach problems and stroke

217
Q

Who developed the ‘Life course theory’?

A

Galobardes, Lynch, Davey Smith

218
Q

Who developed social class?

A

Cleland & Cotton

219
Q

what is ICD-10?

A

a way to classify mental disorders

220
Q

what is a adult psychiatric morbidity survey?

A

measures prevalence of mental health disorders

221
Q

what is OCD?

A

lives dominated by obsession and compulsion eg ritual behaviour

222
Q

what is ‘generalised anxiety disorder?

A

excessive and uncontrollable worry about future events and outcomes. occurs with many other anxiety disorders

223
Q

what is ‘conditioned acquisition’ used for?

A

phobias - involves signal, trauma, reaction and result

224
Q

what is dementia?

A

determination in intellectual function and social behaviour

225
Q

who developed the ‘enriched model of dementia’?

A

kitwood

226
Q

what is the treatment for mild Alzheimer?

A

acetylcholine esterase inhibitors

227
Q

what is the treatment for mild Alzheimer?

A

NMDA receptor agonist

228
Q

what are the types of depression?

A

bipolar, unipolar and dysthmia

229
Q

what are the treatments for depression?

A

MAOI’s, Tricyclics, SSRI’s, noradrenaline, serotonin, physical activity, exercise, electro convulsive therapy

230
Q

who developed ‘cognitive theory of depression’?

A

becks

231
Q

what is ‘cognitive theory of depression’?

A

talking therapy. good in mild to moderate cases of depression

232
Q

what are the all the explanations for health inequality?

A

1) health selection - survival of the fittest
2) lifestyle
3) materialistic explanation
4) the psycho-social explanation
5) the life course explaination

233
Q

what is the ‘health selection - survival of the fittest’ explanation?

A

health status influences social position eg the healthiest are the above the unhealthiest

234
Q

what is the ‘lifestyle’ explanation?

A

lower social economic class means high rate of unhealthy behaviour

235
Q

what is the ‘materialist’ explanation?

A

material causes affect health eg. those who have central heating in their homes which are free from damp are less likely to have health-threatening respiratory illness

236
Q

what is the ‘psycho social’ explanation?

A

the higher the health inequality, the more health and social problems

237
Q

what is mental health?

A

a sense of wellbeing, subjective, emotional state. positive. the absence of abnormality.

238
Q

who developed the ‘basic emotional states’?

A

Ekman and frieson

239
Q

what is the ‘basic emotional states’?

A

happiness, sadness, fear, anger, surprise, disgust

240
Q

who developed the ‘psychological arousal and emotional intensity’?

A

hohman

241
Q

what is the ‘psychological arousal and emotional intensity’?

A

interviewing patients with spinal injuries and observing a chance in the intensity of experiences

242
Q

what is the ‘psychological differentiation of emotion’?

A

actors pose faces whilst imagining or reliving situations. the heart rate and temp was recorded and there was an increase to correlate with increased anger and fear

243
Q

who developed the ‘psychological differentiation of emotion’?

A

Ekman et al

244
Q

what are the ‘broad theories of emotion’?

A

pattern theory
cognitive theory
appraisal theory

245
Q

what is ‘pattern theory’ in the broad theories of emotion?

A

an encounter with something causes a specific arousal and overt behaviour which causes an emotion

246
Q

who developed the ‘pattern theory’ in the broad theories of emotion?

A

james-lange

247
Q

what is ‘cognitive theory’ in the broad theories of emotion?

A

an encounter causes a general arousal which causes an experience of emotions

248
Q

who developed the ‘cognitive theory’ in the broad theories of emotion?

A

schactiter and singer

249
Q

what is ‘appraisal theory’ in the broad theories of emotion?

A

encounter causes an appraisal of encounter which causes an experience of emotions

250
Q

who developed the ‘expression of the emotions in man and animal’?

A

darwin

251
Q

what is syringe myelia?

A

bilateral damage to the brain - failure to recognise fear from facial expressions

252
Q

who said ‘happiness and health is positive’?

A

lyubmursley et al, veenhoven and seligman

I&P1 (2 decks)

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