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Review > I/O > Flashcards

I/O Flashcards

1
Q

The foundation for almost all human resource activities

A

Job Analysis

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2
Q

The process of studying positions, describing duties and responsibilities that go with jobs, and grouping similar positions into job categories

A

Job Analysis

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3
Q

captures a wealth of job information, which serves as a guide for variety of uses

A

Job Analysis

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4
Q

is usually undertaken when the organization is starting operations, a new job is created, a job is changed significantly by the nature of operations

A

Job Analysis Program

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5
Q

Three elements of Job Analysis Program

A
  1. Company policy and administration of the Program
  2. Job Information
  3. Methods of securing job information
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6
Q

the descriptions of the functions and duties performed and the responsibilities involved, and the relation of the job to other jobs in the company

A

Job Description

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7
Q

the specification of the minimum personal qualifications in terms of a trait, skill, knowledge, and ability required of a worker to perform the job satisfactorily

A

Job Specification

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8
Q
  • describes the job in terms of key result areas and the functions and the roles and the competencies
  • has less emphasis on specific duties and processes
A

Job Profile

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9
Q

indicates the qualifications in terms of skills, experience, training and other special qualifications as well as the traits required of the worker to satisfactorily perform the job

A

Job Specification

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10
Q

Steps in Conducting a Job Analysis

A

Step 1: Identify tasks performed
Step 2: Write the task statements
Step 3: Rate the task Statements
Step 4: Determine Essential KSAOs

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11
Q

KSAOs

A

Knowledge, Skill, Ability, Other characteristics

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12
Q

a body of information needed to perform a task

A

Knowledge

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13
Q

proficiency to perform a learned task

A

Skill

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14
Q

basic capacity for performing a wide range of different tasks, acquiring a knowledge, or developing a skill

A

Ability

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15
Q

include such personal factors as personality, willingness, interest, and motivation and such tangible factors as license, degrees, and years of experience

A

Other characteristics

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16
Q

sources such as supervisors and incumbents who are knowledgeable about a job

A

Subject matter experts (SME)

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17
Q

the person conducting the job analysis

A

Job Analyst

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18
Q

a group analysis interview consisting of subject matter expert

A

SME Conference

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19
Q

a questionnaire containing a list of task each of which the job incumbent rates on a series of scales

A

Task inventory

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20
Q

the process of identifying the tasks for which employees need to be trained

A

Task analysis

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21
Q

an effective way of obtaining job information is to have employees accomplish well designed and adequately explained Job Analysis Questionnaires later reviewed by their immediate superiors

A

Questionnaires

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22
Q

a structure instrument based on statistical analysis of worker-oriented job elements consists of 194 items covering the following categories

A

Position Analysis Questionnaires (PAQ)

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23
Q

developed Position Analysis Questionnaires

A

McCormick, Jeanneret, and Mechan

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24
Q

where and how the workers gets the information used for the job

A

Information input

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25
Q

the reasoning, planning, decision making involved in the job

A

Mental process

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26
Q

the physical activities performed by the worker and the tools or equipment used

A

Work output

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27
Q

physical and social contexts in which the work is done

A

Job context

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28
Q

an instrument designed as an alternative to the PAQ developed by Cornelius and Hackel

A

Job Elements Inventory (JEI)

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29
Q
  • contains 153 items
  • easier to read
A

JEI

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30
Q
  • designed by Fine
  • a quick method used by the federal government to analyze and compare thousands of jobs
A

Functional Job Analysis (FJA)

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31
Q

three functions in FJA

A
  • Data (information and ideas)
  • People (clients, customers, and co workers)
  • Things (machines, tools, and equipment)
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32
Q

developed Job Components Inventory (JCI)

A

Banks, Jackson, Standford and Warr

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33
Q
  • initiated in England
  • consist of more than 400 questions
  • a practical tool used in curriculum development career guidance and broad based training
A

Job Components Inventory (JCI)

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34
Q
  • revised version of the PAQ developed by Patrick and Moore
  • designed to be used more by the analyst than the workers
A

Job Structure Profile (JSP)

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35
Q

to obtain a whole perspective of the job, this is done to clarify all aspects in the job, obtain a better personal impression, make the employee and superior participate in the process, and understanding maximized

A

Interview

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36
Q

observes the people performing their jobs in the work setting

A

Observation

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37
Q

is the process of search for and securing applicants for the various job positions so that the right people in the right number can be selected to fill the job positions which arise from time to time in organization

A

Recruitment

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38
Q

the total process of recruitment selection and placement

A

Hiring process

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39
Q

these are qualified candidates from the company and within the ranks of its present employees

A

Internal Source

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40
Q

the hiring from the outside source is a management option

A

External Source

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41
Q
  • every time a position becomes available it is posted in the company bulletin board for the information of all interested parties
  • it should specify and contain the job description
A

Job Posting

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42
Q
  • one of the least expensive recruitment systems
  • as soon as people learn that there’s a job opening, the word spread around
A

Word-of-the-Mouth System

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43
Q

a popular and effective means of soliciting applicants is advertising through media, newspapers, magazines, radio or television

A

Advertising Media

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44
Q

the best day of the week to put an ad

A

Sunday

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45
Q

ads that do not reveal the identity of the company, instead they give a box of number where the resume or pertinent papers will be forwarded

A

Blind Ads

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46
Q
  • a possible source of outstanding employees
  • most often the application letters or resume are put in the waste basket or at times put in file
A

Walk Ins and Unsolicited Applicants

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47
Q

many organization send recruiters to college to answer questions about themselves and interview students for available positions

A

Campus or University Recruitment

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48
Q

organizational representatives of the company gather and interview several applicants over a period of one or two days in some specified fields

A

Job Fair and Open House

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49
Q

an employment service operated by a state or local government, designed to match applicants with job openings

A

Government Agencies

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50
Q

better known as “Head hunters” that specialize in placing applicants in high paying jobs

A

Executive search firms

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51
Q
  • used as mediums for man power recruitment
  • the coverage of advertisement is of great magnitude, more qualified applicants can be reached
A

Radio and Television

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52
Q
  • company profiles and job placements could eventually come into the internet
  • situation wanted ads
A

Internet

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53
Q

defined as the process of determining from among the applicants who can meet the job requirements and can be offered the vacant position in the organization

A

Selection

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54
Q

the final decision to hire usually is left up to the:

A

operating department executives

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55
Q

its functional authority is to screen the applicants and to submit the names of those who passed the initial screening to the operating department for its final decision on whom to select and finally hire for the job

A

HRD

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56
Q

the first step in the assessment of an applicant for the jobs

A

Preliminary Screening

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57
Q

deals with obvious factors such as voice, dress, physical appearance, personal grooming, educational background, professional training, and experience

A

Preliminary Screening

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58
Q
  • follow a set of procedures and the interviewer set the lead
  • job related questions
  • all applicants are asked the same questions
  • there is a standardized scoring key to evaluate each answer
A

Structured Interview

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59
Q

provides no specific reference and the applicant is given a free hand in talking about himself and the interviewer makes an assessment

A

Unstructured interview

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60
Q

involve one interviewer interviewing one applicant

A

One on one interview

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61
Q

involves series of single interview

A

Serial interview

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62
Q

usually done for managerial and supervisory interview, have multiple interviewers asking questions and evaluating answers

A

Panel or Round table interview

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63
Q

multiple applicants answering questions during the same interview

A

Group interviews

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64
Q

problems with unstructured interview

A
  • poor intuitive ability
  • lack of job relatedness
  • primacy effects
  • contrast effect
  • interviewer-applicants similarities
  • interviewee appearance
  • non verbal communication
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65
Q

or “first impression” information presented early in an interview carries more weight than information presented later

A

Primacy Effects

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66
Q

the performance of one applicant affects the perception of the next applicant

A

Contrast Effect

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67
Q

applicants will receive a higher score if she or he is similar to the interviewer in terms of personality, attitude, race

A

Interviewer-Applicants similarities

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68
Q

attractiveness bias occurred for men and women

A

Interviewee Appearance

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69
Q

appropriate non verbal communication is highly correlated with interview scores

A

Non verbal communication

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70
Q

Types of Interview questions

A
  1. Clarifier
  2. Disqualifiers
  3. Past focus (behavioral description)
  4. Skill or knowledge focus
  5. Future Focus (situational questions)
  6. Organizational fit focus
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71
Q

allow the interviewer to clarify information in the resume, cover letter and application, fill in gaps and obtain other necessary information

A

Clarifier

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72
Q

questions in which a wrong answer will disqualify a person from further consideration

A

Disqualifiers

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73
Q

focus on what the applicant has done rather than what they can do

A

Past focus (behavioral description)

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74
Q

a type of structured interview question designed to tap an applicant’s knowledge or skill

A

Skill-level determiner

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75
Q

a type of structured interview question in which applicant are given a situation and asked how they would handle it

A

Future focused question

76
Q

a type of structured interview questions that taps how well an applicant’s personality and values will fit with the organization culture

A

Organizational-fit questions

77
Q
  • most difficult types of questions
  • care must be taken so that characteristics such as age, sex, or race are not considered
A

Organizational-fit questions

78
Q

the art and science of the analysis of the individuals traits through his handwriting. It can reveal the level of intelligence, emotional stability, imagination and ability to work with others as well as discover talents and capabilities

A

Graphology

79
Q

most commonly associated with the prediction and selection of subsequent performance on the job

A

Testing

80
Q

are still the commonly used instruments for determining the qualifications and talents of the applicant for a particular job

A

Test

81
Q

measure the traits exhibited by normal individuals in everyday life

A

Test of Normal personality

82
Q

Determination of the number and type of personality dimensions measured by an inventory can usually be

A

a. Based on a theory
b. Statistically based
c. Empirically based

83
Q

determine whether individuals have serious psychological problems such as depression, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia

A

Test of Psychopathology

84
Q

provide the respondents with unstructured tasks such as describing ink blots and drawing pictures

A

Projective test

85
Q

the theory behind these test is that an individual with interest similar to those of people in a particular field will more likely be satisfied in that field than in a field composed of people whose interests are dissimilar

A

Interest Inventories

86
Q

a measuring device, a yardstick applied in consistent and systematic fashion to measure a sample of behavior

A

Psychological Test

87
Q

Two purpose of Psychological Test

A
  1. Selection
  2. Placement
88
Q

emphasis is on finding a person with the right qualification for a particular job

A

Selection

89
Q

emphasis on the individual. To find the right kind of job for a particular person

A

Placement

90
Q

Characteristics of a Psychological Test

A
  • Standardization
  • Objectivity
  • Norms
  • Reliability
  • Validity
91
Q

the consistency or uniformity of the conditions and procedures for administering a test

A

Standardization

92
Q

refers primarily to the scoring of the test results

A

Objectivity

93
Q

frame of reference

A

Norms

94
Q

the consistency of response on a test

A

Reliability

95
Q

it measure what its purports to measure

A

Validity

96
Q

Four characteristics of effective selection techniques

A
  1. Reliable
  2. Valid
  3. Cost Efficient
  4. Fair and Legally defensible
97
Q

the extent to which a score from a selection measure is stable and free from error

A

Reliability

98
Q

Test reliability is determined in four ways:

A

a. Test-Retest Reliability
b. Alternate-Forms Reliability
c. Internal Reliability
d. Scorer Reliability

99
Q

the extent which repeated administration of the same test will achieve similar results

A

a. Test-Retest Reliability

100
Q

the extent to which two forms of the same test are similar

A

b. Alternate-Forms Reliability

101
Q

the extent to which similar items are answered in similar ways

A

internal consistency

102
Q

one factor that affect the internal reliability of a test. The more homogenous the items, the higher the internal consistency

A

Item Homogeneity

103
Q

Methods used to determine internal consistency

A
  1. Split half Method
  2. Cronbach’s Coefficient Alpha
  3. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (K-R 20)
104
Q

a form of internal reliability in which the consistency of item responses is determined by comparing scores on half of the items with scores on the other half of the items

A

Split half Method

105
Q

a statistics used to determine internal reliability of test that use interval or ratio scales

A

Cronbach’s Coefficient Alpha

106
Q

a statistic used to determine internal reliability of test that use items with dichotomous answer (yes/no, true/false)

A

Kuder-Richardson Formular 20 (K-R 20)

107
Q

the extent to which two people scoring a test agree on the test score, or the extent to which a test is scored correctly

A

Scorer Reliability

108
Q

the degree to which inferences from scores on tests or assessments are justified by the evidence

A

Validity

109
Q

Five common strategies to investigate the validity of scores on a test:

A

a. Content validity
b. Criterion validity
c. Construct validity
d. Face validity
e. Known Group

110
Q

the extent to which test items sample the content that they are supposed to measure

A

Content validity

111
Q

the extent to which a test score is related to some measure of job performance

A

Criterion validity

112
Q

the extent to which a test actually measures the construct that it purports to measure

A

Construct validity

113
Q

the extent to which a test appear to be job related

A

Face validity

114
Q

statements so general that they can be true of almost everyone

A

Barnum statements

115
Q

Test scores from two contrasting groups known to differ on a construct are compared

A

Known Group

116
Q

refers to the job of determining a proposed mode of action based upon a full understanding of the factors involved, and directed at specific objectives which take into consideration the priorities desired by management

A

Planning

117
Q

the process of guiding and directing the behavior of people in the organization in order to achieve certain objectives.

A

Leadership

118
Q
  • also spells the difference between success and failure in terms in competitive situation.
  • it is the element that convinces member of an organization to behave in such a manner that will facilitate the accomplishment of the goal of an organization.
A

Leadership

119
Q

Difference between Leadership and Management

A
  1. Managers are rational problem solvers, while leaders are intuitive and more visionary.
  2. Managers perform other administrative function such as planning, organizing, decision-making, and communicating.
  3. Leaders are primarily concerned with results, while managers are concerned with the efficiency of result.
  4. And last, leaders obtain their power from below, managers obtain theirs from above.
120
Q

The primary role of the leader is to ____

A

influence others to seek defined objectives enthusiastically.

121
Q

The absence of leaders is

A

commensurate to chaos.

122
Q

Strong Leaders maybe weak managers if ______

A

their poor planning causes their group to move into wrong directions.

123
Q

Weak leaders and still relatively become effective managers if

A

the subordinates have strong drive to work.

124
Q

is the idea that people who become leader possess traits or characteristics different from people who do not become leaders.

A

Leader Emergence

125
Q

People ____ are more likely to emerge as leaders that their counterparts

A

high in openness, conscientiousness and extraversion and low in neurotism.

126
Q

Research on the relationship between personal characteristics and leader performance has concentrated on three areas:

A
  1. Traits,
  2. Needs and
  3. Orientation.
127
Q

a personality trait characterized by the tendency to adapt one’s behavior to fit a particular social situation

A

Self-Monitoring

128
Q

is most important when the leader is not distracted by stressful situations and when the leader uses a more directive leadership style

A

cognitive ability

129
Q

the extent to which a person desires to be in control of other people

A

need for power

130
Q

the extent to which a person desires to be successful

A

need for achievement

131
Q

the extent to which a person desires to be around other people

A

need for affiliation

132
Q

a high need for power and a low need for affiliation

A

leadership motive pattern

133
Q
  • a projective test in which a person is shown a series of pictures and asked to tell a story about what is happening in each
A

Thematic Apperception Test

134
Q

a person reads descriptions of jobs involving varying degrees of power, achievement, and affiliation needs and rates how desirable he finds each particular job

A

Job Choice Exercise (JCE)

135
Q

the process of improving organization performance by making organization-wide rather than individual changes

A

organization development

136
Q

when the leader identifies an undesirable situation and seeks to change it

A

start point

137
Q

making organizations function better (total system change)

A

focus

138
Q

action (achieving results through planned activities)

A

orientation

139
Q

the first step in the organization change, in which employees look for practices and policies that waste time and are unproductive

A

sacred cow hunt

140
Q

unnecessary paperwork, usual forms and reports that cost organization money to prepare, distribute and read

A

paper cow

141
Q

how much meeting time was spent doing business as opposed to socializing?

A

meeting cow

142
Q

unnecessary deadlines, requiring work to be done by tomorrow is sometimes unnecessary

A

speed cow

143
Q

organizations must convince employees and other stake holders that the current state of affairs is unacceptable and that change is necessary

A

unfreezing

144
Q

the organization take steps (training new work processes) to move the organization to the desired state

A

moving

145
Q

the organization develops ways to keep the new change in place, such as formalizing new policy & rewarding employees for behaving in a manner consistent with the new change

A

refreezing

146
Q

continual process of upgrading or improving

A

evolutionary

147
Q

“real jolt to the system” that drastically changes the way things are done

A

process

148
Q
  • are people who enjoy change and often make changes of the sake of it
  • “if ain’t broke, break it”
A

change agents

149
Q
  • are not afraid to change or make changes but want to make changes only if the changes will improve the organization
  • “if it aint broke, leave it alone; if it is broke, fix it”
A

change analyst

150
Q
  • people who will probably will not instigate change but willing to change
  • “if its broke, i’ll help fix it”
A

receptive changers

151
Q
  • certainly not instigate or welcome change, but they will change if necessary
  • “are you sure its broken?”
A

reluctant changers

152
Q
  • hate change, are scared of it and will do anything they can to keep change from occurring
  • “it may be broken, but its still better than the unknown”
A

change resisters

153
Q

the process whereby new employees learn the behavior and attitudes they need to be success in an organization

A

organizational socialization

154
Q

these are procedures employees participates to become “one of the gang”

A

rituals

155
Q

in making a decision whether one decision will be better than the other

A

importance of decision quality

156
Q

it involves the extent to which leaders have sufficient information to make the decision alone. if the leader lack sufficient knowledge to make a decision, consultation is essential

A

technical knowledge of the leader

157
Q

the leader must know what information is needed and how can it be obtained - that is the problem structure

A

structure of the problem

158
Q

this factor involves the degree to which it is important that the decision be accepted by others

A

importance of decision acceptance

159
Q

if the leader is not competent to make the decision, he will probably ask help from his subordinate and colleagues in making the decisions

A

probability of decision acceptance

160
Q

subordinates are motivated to achieve the organizational goals and thus can be trusted to make decisions that will help the organization

A

subordinate trust and motivation

161
Q

if there are many possible solutions to the problem and the employees are likely to disagree about which is best, the leader will be served by gathering information from employees and then in the process, making the decision herself

A

probability of subordinate conflict

162
Q
  • leader use the available information to make the decision without consulting their subordinates
  • effective strategy when the leader has the necessary information and trust the subordinates
A

autocratic I strategy

163
Q
  • leaders obtain the necessary information from their subordinates and then make their own decisions
  • leaders may or may not tell the subordinates the nature of the problem
A

autocratic II strategy

164
Q
  • leader share their problem on an individual basis with some or all of their subordinates
  • after receiving their input, the leader makes the decision that may or may not be consistent with the thinking of the group
  • only selected few employees were asked to provide feedback or input
A

consultative I strategy

165
Q
  • leaders share the problem with their subordinates as a group
  • after receiving the group’s input, the leader makes a decision that may or may not be acceptable to the group
  • entire group is involved in the consultation
A

consultative strategy II

166
Q

an alternative arrangement whereby the normal workweek is reduced to less than six days but the total number of work hours per week shall remain 48 hours

A

compressed work sheet scheme policy (CWWS)

167
Q

is an economic ground to reduce the number of employees for the purpose of cutting down on costs of operations in terms of salaries and wages

A

retrenchment

168
Q

in case of retrenchment, this shall be equivalent to one month pay or at least one-half month pay for every year of service, whichever is higher

A

separation pay

169
Q

exists where the services of an employee are in excess of what is reasonably demanded by the actual requirements of the enterprise

A

redundancy

170
Q

is reducing the number of employees on the operating payroll intended to be a permanent downscaling

A

downsizing

171
Q

is downsizing in the belief that an enterprise really should operate with fewer people

A

rightsizing

172
Q

can be defined as a field of inquiry dedicated to the advancing knowledge about the nature of groups, the laws of their development and their interrelations with individuals, other groups and larger institutions

A

group dynamics

173
Q

the interactive psychological relationship in which members of a group form this common perception

A

group dynamics

174
Q

a social psychologist, coined the term to describe the way groups and individuals act and react to changing circumstances

A

kurt lewin

175
Q

a social unit of two or more individuals who have in common a set of beliefs and values, follow the same norm and work for an established common aim

A

group

176
Q

the flow of coherent activities which as envisaged, may lead the group towards the establishment of set goals

A

dynamics

177
Q

starts with psychological bond between individuals

A

group formation

178
Q

individuals perceive that they share some social category

A

social identity approach

179
Q
A
180
Q

arise from a relatively spontaneous process of group formation

A

emergent groups

181
Q

suggests that individuals have a desire to be similar to others, but also a desire to differentiate themselves, ultimately seeking some balance on these two desires

A

optimal distinctiveness theory

182
Q

based on how individuals in the group see their other members

A

black sheep effect

183
Q

individuals work harder and faster when the others are present

A

group influence on individual behavior

184
Q

is the internal framework that defines members’ relations to one another overtime

A

group structure

185
Q

a job analysis method in which a Group of job experts identifies the objectives and standards to be met by the ideal worker

A

ammerman technique

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