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PRAXIS EXAM > I: Foundational Knowledge > Flashcards

I: Foundational Knowledge Flashcards

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1
Q

anaphys

planes of section (3)

A

frontal:coronal, sagittal:median, horizontal:axial

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2
Q

anaphys

directional nomenclature (5)

A

cranial:caudal, ventral:dorsal, medial:lateral, proximal:distal, flexion:extension

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3
Q

anaphys

major body cavities (2)*

A

dorsal, ventral (includes subcavities: thoracic and abdominal)

*separated by diaphragm

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4
Q

anaphys

tissue types (4)

A

epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous

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5
Q

anaphys

relationship between input and output of neurons

A

dendrites:input :: axons:output

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6
Q

anaphys

relationship between myelination in the CNS and PNS

A

oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the CNS :: Schwann cells myelinate axons in the PNS

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7
Q

anaphys

action potentials (APs) (6)

A

specialized by axons, originate at the trigger zone, insulated by myelin sheath, all-or-nothing (threshold is reached or is not reached), terminate at boutons, resting potential restored by Na+/K+ pump

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8
Q

anayphys

major divisions of the PNS (2)*

A

somatic: action and awareness :: autonomic/visceral:detects and acts on body’s internal environment
* autonomic/visceral subdivided into parasympathetic (homeostasis) and sympathetic (fight or flight)

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9
Q

anaphys

cranial nerves V and VII through XII

A

V:trigeminal, VII:facial, VIII:vestibulocochlear, IX:glossopharyngeal, X:vagus, XI:spinal accessory, XII:hypoglossal

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10
Q

anaphys

trigeminal nerve (5)*

A

CN V, three major branches (ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular), face sensation, muscles of mastication and tensor tympani

*oral stage of swallowing

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11
Q

anaphys

facial nerve (4)*

A

CN VII, taste anterior 2/3 tongue, facial expression, salivation

*oral stage of swallowing AND speech articulation

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12
Q

anaphys

glossopharyngeal nerve (5)*

A

CN IX, taste posterior 1/3 tongue, sensation of middle ear and upper pharynx, motor innervation of stylopharyngeus, gag reflex

*oral and pharyngeal stages of swallowing

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13
Q

anaphys

vagus nerve (7)

A

CN X, sensation of lower pharynx, motor innervation of pharyngeal-laryngeal muscles of soft palate, velum elevation, gag reflex, VF tension, add-abduction

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14
Q

anaphys

spinal accessory nerve (2)

A

CN XI, motor innervation of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles (for head turning and shoulder elevation)

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15
Q

anaphys

hypoglossal nerve (3)

A

CN XII, motor innervation of intrinsic tongue muscles, oral stage of swallowing (bolus formation and propulsion)

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16
Q

anaphys

CNS meninges layers (3)

A

meninges cover CNS in three protective layers (pia, arachnoid, dura matter** – think PAD)

**listed from deep to superficial

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17
Q

anaphys

CSF (3)

A

cerebrospinal fluid, flows between pia and arachnoid layers of meninges, brain floats in CSF for protection from mechanical injury

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18
Q

anaphys

dura mater (2)

A

encapsulates brain and spinal cord, physically separates major regions of the brain

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19
Q

anaphys

in reference to separation between the brainstem and the spinal cord, ‘There is continuity in much of the neuroanatomy, but one identifying feature is that…’

A

‘…the corticospinal fibers in the pyramidal tracts cross the midline (decussate) in the medulla and the travel in the lateral corticospinal tracts within the spinal cord.’

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20
Q

anaphys

brainstem (3)

A

region of the brain spanning between forebrain and spinal cord, the route through which nearly all neural information travels between the body and the brain, three segments (medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain)

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21
Q

anaphys

medulla oblongata of the brainstem and CN involvement (2)

A

X:larynx, pharynx and upper esophagus, XII:tongue

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22
Q

anaphys

pons of the brainstem and CN involvement (2)

A

V:mastication and sensory nuclei for the head, VII:facial expressions

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23
Q

anaphys

cerebellum (2)

A

important role in motor control, lesions do not cause paralysis but may cause ataxia

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24
Q

anaphys

reticular formation (3)

A

centered primarily in the pons, coordinate muscle functions of the body and head, guide attention and arousal

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25
Q

anaphys

CNS lobe anatomy (4)*

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

*marked by/at central sulcus

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26
Q

anaphys

frontal lobe (5)

A

anterior to central sulcus and superior to lateral fissure

executive function (prefrontal cortex), language production (L inferior frontal gyrus of the prefrontal cortex), skilled movements (premotor cortex), motor strip which sources majority of body motor control signals (precentral gyrus – site of primary motor cortex)

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27
Q

anaphys

parietal lobe (2)

A

posterior to central sulcus and superior to lateral fissure

body sensation including hearing and vision

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28
Q

anaphys

temporal lobe (3)

A

inferior to lateral sulcus and anterior to occipital lobe

primary auditory cortex (Heschl’s gyrus), language comprehension (Wernicke’s area)

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29
Q

anaphys

occipital lobe (2)

A

most posterior lobe of the brain (no distinct separation from neighboring lobes)

higher-order processing of visual information (primary visual cortex)

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30
Q

anaphys

limbic cortex (4)

A

memory, emotion, drive-related behavior, primitive behavior

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31
Q

anaphys

basal ganglia (4)

A

aka basal nuclei, guide behavior via inhibition, four subdivisions (striatum, globes pallidus, substantia nigra, subthalamic nucleus, dopamine production

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32
Q

anaphys

diencephalon (1)*

A

four regions (epithalamus, thalamus, subthalamus, hypothalamus)

*thalamus relays majority of sensory information, motor pathways of basal ganglia and cerebellum travel through thalamus en route to motor cortex – the gatekeeper!

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33
Q

anaphys

pyramidal system (4)

A

aka direct motor pathway, responsible for skilled-voluntary movements of extremities, two major pathways (corticospinal tract, corticobulbar tract), houses axons which descend from UMNs in the cerebrum to LMNs in the spinal cord and brainstem

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34
Q

anaphys

corticospinal tract of the pyramidal system (3)

A

houses descending fibers that decussate from lateral corticospinal tract, main function is contralateral-fine-rapid limb control

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35
Q

anaphys

corticobulbar tract of the pyramidal system (2)

A

UMNs in the cerebrum descend to LMNs in the brainstem, main function is to control muscles of the face-head-neck

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36
Q

anaphys

extrapyramidal system (5)

A

aka indirect motor pathways, involved in reflexes and coordination of muscle groups, involved in regulation of posture-balance-tone, three tracts (rubrospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal), two control circuits (cerebellar, basal ganglia)

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37
Q

anaphys

basal ganglia of the extrapyramidal system (3)*

A

indirectly regulates motor activity, refines movement by increasing precision and form, two predominant pathways (direct:output, indirect:input)

*interruptions to these pathways leads to movement disorders of initiation or muscle tone!

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38
Q

anaphys

ascending pathways (1)*

A

contain sensory signals called afferent signals (Afferent:Arrive) because information propagates from the body’s periphery to the brain

*remember, descending nerve impulses aka efferents exit the brain (Efferent:Exit)

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39
Q

anaphys

veins vs arteries

A

veins:carry deoxygenated blood and waste from body back to heart and lungs :: arteries:deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood to the body

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40
Q

anaphys

carotid arteries (1)*

A

two carotid artery branches (internal*, external)

*internal carotid arteries subdivided into anterior cerebral arteries and middle cerebral arteries and supply blood to the brain

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41
Q

anaphys

middle cerebral arteries of the internal carotid arteries (1)

A

supply blood to the brain (lateral frontal lobes, lateral temporal lobes, portions of parietal lobe, basal ganglia)

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42
Q

anaphys

subclavian arteries (1)

A

supply blood to spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, occipital lobe, thalamus

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43
Q

anaphys

respiratory anatomy (4)*

A

L lung:two lobes :: R lung:three lobes, trachea (average 10-16 cm long), major muscles of respiration (diaphragm, abdominals, external intercostals, internal intercostals), accessory muscles (sternocleidomastoid, scalene)

*aspiration is more common in the R lung!

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44
Q

anaphys

inspiration during quiet breathing (3 steps)*

A

contraction lowers-flattens diaphragm -> lungs expand and create negative pressure -> negative pressure draws air inward (inhalation)

*during quiet breathing, inspiration:40% :: exhalation:60%, changes to I:10% :: E:90% during speech breathing

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45
Q

anaphys

respiratory volumes/capacities (4)

A

four discreet and non-overlapping volumes aka capacities (tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve, residual)

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46
Q

anaphys

tidal vs residual volume

A

TV:average volume air exchanged per cycle of passive breathing :: RV:volume air remaining in lungs after maximum exhalation

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47
Q

anaphys

inspiratory reserve vs expiratory reserve volume

A

IRV:max volume air that can be inspired above the level of tidal inspiration :: ERV:max volume air that can be expired below relaxation volume

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48
Q

anaphys

respiratory capacities/combined volumes (4)*

A

vital capacity (IRV+TV+ERV), functional residual capacity (ERV+RV), inspiratory capacity (TV+IRV), total lung capacity (IRV+TV+ERV+RV)

*VC is approximately 4 L:women and 5 L:men

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49
Q

anaphys

larynx (5)

A

organ important for airway protection and phonation, located C3-C6, connects oropharynx and laryngopharynx to trachea, single-midline cartilages (thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis), paired carriages (arytenoids, corniculates, cuneiforms)

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50
Q

anaphys

functions of intrinsic muscles of the larynx (3 groups)*

A

pitch (vocalis, cricothyroid, thyroarytenoid), adduction (transverse interarytenoids, oblique arytenoids, lateral cricothyroids), abduction (posterior crivoarytenoids)

*innervated by CN X

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51
Q

anaphys

extrinsic suprahyoid muscles of the larynx

A

hyoid elevation (mylohyoid, geniohyoid, stylohyoid, diagastric muscle)

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52
Q

anaphys

extrinsic infrahyoid muscles of the larynx

A

hyoid/thyroid depression (sternohyoid, omohyoid, thyrohyoid, sternothyroid)

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53
Q

anaphys

layers of the vocal folds (5)*

A

body (thyroarytenoid, deep lamina propria, intermediate lamina propria) and cover (superficial lamina propria and epithelium)

*body is stiffer than cover

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54
Q

anaphys

myoelastic aerodynamic theory (5 steps)

A

VFs adduct and close the glottis -> subglottic pressure builds and blows open VFs (this is where you see mucosal wave via sheathing motion) -> Bernoulli effect -> decrease in air pressure and pliability of VFs closes VFs -> subglottic pressure builds for next cycle

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55
Q

anaphys

muscles of mastication (4)*

A

all muscles of mastication are paired and are innervated by trigeminal CN V (masseters, temporals, medial pterygoids, lateral pterygoids)

*temporomandibular joint aka TMJ allows three planes of direction

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56
Q

anaphys

muscles of the tongue (8)*

A

intrinsic (superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, transverse, vertical), extrinsic (genioglossus, hyoglossus, styloglossus, palatoglossus)

*almost all innervated by hypoglossal CN XII

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57
Q

anaphys

three major systems of speech production (3)

A

respiratory:driving force of voice production and articulation :: laryngeal:valving for airway protection and VF vibration :: supralaryngeal:filter and shape phonation via resonances

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58
Q

acoustics

frequency (2)*

A

(f) is a count of the number of repetitions of a cyclic pattern in 1 second, measured in Hertz (Hz) or kilohertz (kHz)
* (f) is perceived as pitch, equal changes in (f) DO NOT correspond to equal changes in pitch

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59
Q

acoustics

semitones vs octaves*

A

semitones: intervals between sounds (1 semitone change is always perceptually equal), octaves:doubling of (f)
* 12 semitones=1 octave

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60
Q

acoustics

period (2)

A

(T) is the duration of one cycle, (f) and (T) have an inverse relationship*

*T=1/f and f=1/T – if (f)=100 Hz then (T)=0.01 seconds

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61
Q

acoustics

amplitude (4)

A

(A) is the physical measure of extent of vibrational change from resting position, measured in decibels, two measurements (peak amplitude:max pressure reached by pressure wave, root mean square amplitude:average amplitude of a sound over some period of time), perceived as loudness

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62
Q

acoustics

intensity (3)*

A

(I) is the power of a sound over a particular area, measured in decibels, perceived as loudness

*intensity=amplitude squared

63
Q

acoustics

decibels (2)*

A

a ratio of a sounds amplitude or intensity relative to a reference, amplitude:measured in dB-SPL :: intensity:measured in dB-IL

*0 dB is the quietest sound that can be heard

64
Q

acoustics

wavelength (2)*

A

distance travelled by a sound during a single cycle, wavelength is influenced by the medium through which a sound is traveling

*wavelength=velocity/frequency

65
Q

acoustics

phase (2)

A

location of a particular point in a waveform cycle relative to the zero line, if you add two sine waves with the same phase then you have the same (f) and higher (A) :: if you add two sine waves 180 degrees out of phase then you have the same (f) and a lower (A)

66
Q

acoustics

waveforms (1)*

A

graphical representation showing variations in amplitude, pressure or intensity of a sound over time where X-axis is time and Y-axis is amplitude, pressure or intensity

*use waveforms to find the exact fundamental frequency (F0), voice onset time (VOT), signal periodicity, pitch contours

67
Q

acoustics

spectrograms (3)*

A

graphical representation showing regions of high-amplitude energy and changes over time, level of detail can be adjusted by changing analysis bandwidth (broadband vs narrowband), dark areas show amplitude or intensity at different frequencies

*use spectrograms to analyze speech

68
Q

acoustics

broadband spectrogram use (3)

A

to find sounds by manner of articulation and voicing, to measure time-related cues aka VOT, to measure frequency-related cues aka formant frequency

69
Q

acoustics

narrowband spectrogram use (2)

A

to check pitch contour accuracy by comparing to harmonic contours, to estimate periodicity by examining number of harmonics that are clearly visible

70
Q

acoustics

sinusoids (2)*

A

aka simple sounds or pure tones, a single frequency

*adding sinusoids of the same frequency gives another sinusoid with the same frequency :: adding sinusoids of different frequencies gives a complex sound

71
Q

acoustics

aperiodic complex sounds (2)

A

aka noises [since waveforms of aperiodic complex sounds don’t have a pattern then they don’t have a cycle nor do they have a (F0)]

72
Q

acoustics

glottal source (3)

A

complex periodic sound produced by VF vibration aka phonation or voicing, source of sound energy for vowels and resonant consonants, determines vocal pitch and vocal quality

73
Q

acoustics

source-filter theory of speech production (3)*

A

aka acoustic theory of speech production, states speech is produced by passing a sound source through a sound filter, supralaryngeal vocal tract filters human sounds

*resonant frequencies=formants

74
Q

acoustics

supralaryngeal vocal tract (1)

A

SLVT filters sounds based on its shape (infinite since shape can be changed), ex:approximates shape for the vowel schwa in neutral position

75
Q

acoustics

resonant sounds (5)

A

includes vowels and resonant consonants, vowels=most open vocal tract shape, NO aperiodicity for resonant sounds, default sound source=VF vibration, perceived and identified via F1-F2-F3

76
Q

acoustics

formant F1 (2)

A

most associated with pharynx size which may be manipulated via tongue height, high vowels and glides have low F1 frequency :: low vowels have high F1 frequency

77
Q

acoustics

formant F2 (2)

A

most associated with oral cavity size which may be manipulated via tongue advancement, front vowels=high F2 frequency :: back vowels=low F2 frequency

78
Q

acoustics

formant F3 (1)

A

important for distinguishing rhotic vowels and consonant /r/ in English

79
Q

acoustics

nasal consonants (3)

A

have complete closure at some location in the oral cavity, air flows through the nose and resonates in the nasal cavity at a low frequency (aka nasal formant), will show up with zeros in the output

80
Q

acoustics

liquids and glides (1)

A

resemble vowels acoustically (aka semivowels) BUT has a lower amplitude than vowels d/t vocal tract constriction

81
Q

acoustics

obstruent fricatives (2)

A

narrow constriction results in turbulent airflow (aka aperiodic noise), airflow is continuous (aka friction noise)

82
Q

acoustics

obstruent stops (3)*

A

airflow is completely blocked for a brief period (aka noncontinuant), silent during the blockage then burst of energy when the blockage is released, sound source=aperiodic noise

*VOT:period of time from the beginning of the burst until the onset of voicing

83
Q

acoustics

obstruent affricates (2)

A

combine the features of stops and fricatives (aka silent blockage -> blockage released to narrow constriction -> airflow through constriction produces frication noise), sound source=aperiodic noise

84
Q

acoustics

voiced and voiceless obstruent cognates (3)

A

aperiodic noise is the primary sound source (aka no VF vibration required), voiced obstruents have shorter duration than voiceless obstruents, sound is filtered by portion of vocal tract in front of the noise source

85
Q

acoustics

stability (2)*

A

measured as jitter (cycle-to-cycle variability in frequency) or shimmer (cycle-to-cycle variability in amplitude)

*measured using sustained ‘ahh’

86
Q

acoustics

voice quality (1)*

A

three types (modal, creaky, breathy) where modal=healthy

*noise-to-harmonics/harmonics-to-noise ratio measures the amount of aperiodic versus periodic energy in a voice (healthy=99%periodic aka 20 dB HNR ratio)

87
Q

preverbal early lang

language domains (3)

A

form (phonology, morphology, syntax), content (semantics), use (pragmatics)

88
Q

preverbal early lang

stages of pragmatics (3)

A

perlocutionary stage (adults infer intent from child’s unintentional behaviors), illocutionary stage (preverbal - gestures and vocalizations), locutionary stage (word use integrated with nonverbal behaviors by 2 years of age)

89
Q

preverbal early lang

theory of mind (1)

A

the ability to take the listener’s POV including what they may believe, know or feel

90
Q

preverbal early lang

phonological rules for vowels (3)*

A

characterized by tongue height (high, mid, low) or anterior-posterior lingual posture (front, central, back), vowels are also characterized by tension and rounding

*vowels are always voiced

91
Q

preverbal early lang

word learning (1)

A

begins with fast mapping a sketch of the word and subsequently slow mapping the details of the word, nouns are most easily learned

92
Q

preverbal early lang

phonological loop for word learning (3)*

A

loop includes (encode -> maintain -> manipulate) for learning phonological information, predicated by working memory, gold standard measure is nonword repetition

*children who are better at repeating nonword tend to have larger vocabularies

93
Q

preverbal early lang

word retrieval errors (2)

A

children make the same types and patterns of word retrieval errors but children with language impairments make many more errors overall, the most common errors are semantic (“key” for “door”) and indeterminate (saying “thing,” “I don’t know,” or providing no response) errors

94
Q

preverbal early lang

number of words at 15, 19 and 24 months (3)

A

10, 50, 100-300

95
Q

preverbal early lang

referential vs expressive children

A

referential:more words, reach morphosyntactic milestones sooner :: expressive:slow and steady pace in word learning with no spurt, produce and use function words later than referential children

96
Q

preverbal early lang

motherese (1)

A

modifications made in an adult’s speech when it is directed toward young children

97
Q

preverbal early lang

bootstrapping (1)

A

use of language to infer the meaning of unknown words, for example, syntactic bootstrapping to infer that “gorp” is the noun of the verb “gorping”

98
Q

preverbal early lang

principle of reference (1)

A

the belief that words but no other sounds label objects, actions and events

99
Q

preverbal early lang

novel-name-nameless category principle (N3C) (1)

A

the belief that a novel word will be taken as the name for a previously named object

100
Q

preverbal early lang

principle of mutual exclusivity (1)

A

the belief that a referent cannot have more than one label

101
Q

preverbal early lang

whole-object bias (1)

A

the belief that words refer to an entire object and not just a part, an attribute or its motion

102
Q

preverbal early lang

principle of extendability (1)

A

the belief that a word refers to a category of objects, events or actions if they share similar properties, namely shape or function

103
Q

preverbal early lang

shape bias (1)

A

the belief that a word refers to a category of objects that are defined by sharing the same shape

104
Q

preverbal early lang

mean length of utterance (MLU) (4)*

A

the average length of utterance based on free and bound morphemes (not words), good indicator of grammatical development before 6 years of age, sample is taken from the middle 50-100 utterances of spontaneous language elicited in a natural environment, MLU=total # of free and bound morphemes/total # utterances

*the morpheme is the smallest unit of language that carries meaning

105
Q

preverbal early lang

brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes stage I (1)

A

combine basic words

*12-30 mo, 1.5-2.0 MLU range

106
Q

preverbal early lang

brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes stage II (2)

A

present progressive -ing, prepositions (“in,” “on”), -s regular plurals

*28-36 mo, 2.0-2.5 MLU range

107
Q

preverbal early lang

brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes stage III (3)

A

irregular past tense (“ate”), -s possessives, uncontractible copula (“this is cold”)

*36-42 mo, 2.5-3.0 MLU range

108
Q

preverbal early lang

brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes stage IV (3)

A

articles, regular past tense -ed, third person regular present tense (“she dances”)

*40-46 mo, 3.0-3.7 MLU range

109
Q

preverbal early lang

brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes stage V (4)

A

third person irregular, uncontractible auxiliary (“Kayla is dancing”), contractible copula (“she’s nice”), contractible auxiliary (“she’s dancing”)

*42-52+ mo, 3.7-4.5 MLU range

110
Q

preverbal early lang

mastery of brown’s 14 grammatical morphemes (1)

A

whether or not children have mastery over each phoneme (90% in all obligatory contexts in a spontaneous sample)

111
Q

preverbal early lang

morpheme mastery for children with SLI (2)

A

particular difficulty with mastery of verb inflections that indicate tense and agreement, difficulty with verb inflections is a clinical marker of SLI

112
Q

preverbal early lang

theory of universal grammar and the government and binding theory by Noam Chomsky (2)

A

describe the learning and use of syntax, two levels of representation (deep structures:what is conceptualized :: surface structures:what is said)

113
Q

preverbal early lang

syntactic construction and combination (2)

A

sentences are constructed of content words (open-class words aka nouns and verbs) and function words (closed-class words aka prepositions, articles, conjunctions and pronouns)

114
Q

EBP

guiding research principles (3)

A

testability (ask specific research questions that can be evaluated and answered), replication (reproducing findings is valuable) and objectivity (interpreted without bias and able to consider alternative interpretations)

115
Q

EBP

ASHA code of ethics principles (4)

A

the welfare of persons, professional competence and performance, responsibilities to the public, responsibilities to the profession

116
Q

EBP

independent vs dependent variable

A

independent:condition that can change behavior :: dependent:behavior that may change

117
Q

EBP

measures of reliability (3)

A

stability (using test-retest method), equivalence (comparing performance on alternate of parallel forms of test), and internal consistency (split-half method aka compare halves of one test to each other)

118
Q

EBP

sources of error (4)

A

systematic, unsystematic, day-to-day changes, behavior of the researcher

119
Q

EBP

standard error of measurement (1)*

A

indicates the expected variability of a subject’s score if the measurement were repeated several times

*small standard error suggests higher reliability

120
Q

EBP

interobserver vs intraobserver agreement

A

interobserver:consistency of 2+ researchers in a particular measurement :: intraobserver:consistency of a single researcher in making a particular measure more than once

121
Q

EBP

measures of validity

A

content (how well test items measure characteristics/behaviors of interest), criterion (how well the measure correlates with a good outside criterion indicator of the characteristic/behavior of interest) and construct (how well measure reflects a theoretical construct of the characteristic/behavior of interest)

122
Q

EBP

threats to internal::external validity (4::3)

A

internal:subject selection, bias, test environment, subject performance :: external:subjects do not represent population, setting, number of treatments observed

123
Q

EBP

research designs (2)

A

quantitative (experimental:manipulate independent variable :: descriptive:unable to manipulate independent variable), qualitative (focuses on factors of behavior)

124
Q

EBP

research subject types aka group or subject (4)

A

group (between-subject, within-subject) or single subject (withdrawal design, multiple-baseline design)

125
Q

EBP

terms of interval or ratio measurement (4)

A

central tendency aka average score of group (mean, median, mode), variability (range, variance, standard deviation), skewness (symmetry), kurtosis (shape)

126
Q

EBP

parametric::nonparametric statistics criteria (2)*

A

parametric if and only if – data has a normal distribution, large sample size at least 30+

*if not, use nonparametric statistical measures

127
Q

EBP

statistical significance error types (2)

A

accept or reject the null hypothesis, two error types (true null hypothesis is rejected aka Type I, false null hypothesis is accepted aka Type II)

128
Q

EBP

level of significance (2)

A

the probability of making a Type I error (null rejected), when the level of significance is small then the researcher usually rejects the null hypothesis

129
Q

EBP

one-tailed vs two-tailed tests (2)

A

one-tailed:hypothesis is directional (X > Y) :: two-tailed:hypothesis is nondirectional (X and Y are different)

130
Q

EBP

correlational statistics (3)*

A

evaluates relationships among data and often described using correlation coefficients, Pearson product-moment correlation (r) coefficient (parametric) – used with interval or ratio level data, Spearman rank-order (p) coefficient (nonparametric) – used with ordinal level data

*perfect positive relationship:1.0 :: perfect negative relationship -1.0 where a small number either direction is a WEAK relationship

131
Q

EBP

chi-square and the contingency coefficient (2)*

A

used to present results of correlational statistics via nominal level data, “the level of significance of any relationship among the nominal variables can be examined using chi-square or the contingency coefficient”

*they do not measure strength of the relationship

132
Q

EBP

inferential statistics (2)

A

evaluates differences among data either between-subjects or within-subjects, usually parametric (z ratio when sample >30 and t-test when sample <30)

133
Q

EBP

ANOVA (2)

A

analysis of variance which allows simultaneous comparisons of several means (yields an F ratio), used when there is a single dependent variable but more than two sets of data being compared between-groups or within-groups

134
Q

EBP

chi-square test for independent variables (1)

A

used for nominal level data

135
Q

EBP

effect size (2)

A

helps to understand the practical significance of data in a research study, estimates the degree to which the null hypothesis is false

136
Q

EBP

NOMS (2)

A

national outcome measurement system, developed by ASHA to collect data on clinical outcomes in the field

137
Q

EBP

meta-analyses vs systematic reviews

A

meta-analyses:accumulated evidence from multiple studies is analyzed statistically to evaluate consistency of results and effect sizes across studies :: systematic reviews:objective-comprehensive overviews of research focusing on a single clinical issue

138
Q

EBP

sensitive vs specificity

A

sensitivity:refers to how well a test detects that a condition is present when the condition is actually present :: specificity:how well the test detects that a condition isn to present when the condition is actually is not present

139
Q

best practices

CCC (2)*

A

certificate of clinical competence (ASHA-accredited degree, CF placement, pass PRAXIS, 3 CEUs for every 3-year period), gold standard credential

*makes the holder eligible for state licensure

140
Q

best practices

the big 9

A

articulation, fluency, voice and resonance, receptive and expressive language, hearing, swallowing, cognitive aspects of communication, social aspects of communication, communication modalities

141
Q

best practices

four speciality recognition credentials

A

child language, fluency disorders, swallowing and swallowing disorders, intraoperative monitoring

142
Q

best practices

ASHA vision and mission

A

vision:”Making effective communication a human right, accessible and achievable for all” :: mission:”Empowering and supporting SLPs, audiologists and speech, language and hearing scientists”

143
Q

best practices

five philosophical concepts underlying ethical standards

A

five approaches – utilitarian (most good, least harm), rights (respects rights of all stakeholders), fairness/justice (treat people equally), common good (to best serve community and not just one or few members), virtue (act as who you want to be as a person)

144
Q

best practices

service delivery models (3)

A

multidisciplinary (little communication and little cooperative service delivery), interdisciplinary (seen by multiple professionals who communicate regarding treatment), transdisciplinary (professionals cooperate in service delivery and are all involved in assessments and treatments)

145
Q

best practices

social security act amendments, 1965-1996 (5)

A

title XVIII of the social security act (medicare), title XIX of the social security act (medicaid), social security act of amendments of 1982-3, technology-related assistance for individuals with disabilities act of 1988, health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) of 1996

146
Q

best practices

social security act amendments of 1993 (2)

A

defined SLP and SLP services for the first time, standardized health care coding (billing using ICD-9 and CPT codes)

147
Q

best practices

balanced budget act of 1997 (1)

A

annual cap on SLP services to outpatients of $1500

148
Q

best practices

patient protection and affordable care act of 2010 (1)

A

provided coverage for habilitation care (issues associated with developmental delay) in addition to rehabilitative care (acquired issues)

149
Q

best practices

IEP (2)

A

individualized education program aka the written record of the commitment to meet a student’s goals as determined by school personnel and the child’s parents, supported by PL 94-142 – the education for all handicapped children act of 1975

150
Q

best practices

IDEA

A

individuals with disabilities education act aka PL 101-476 of 1990

151
Q

best practices

NCLB

A

no child left behind aka PL 107-110 of 2001

152
Q

best practices

RTI

A

response to intervention, essentially trail therapy or classroom support to determine if difficulties can be overcome without resorting to special education services

153
Q

best practices

early intervention and IFSP (2)

A

supported by IDEA part C (provides services to children age 3 years and younger with special needs), individualized family service plan (goals, plan, outcome of services)

PRAXIS EXAM (5 decks)

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