Hyperaldosteronism (inc Conn's) Flashcards

1
Q

Primary Hyperaldosteronism

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism was previously thought to be most commonly caused by an adrenal adenoma, termed Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. Differentiating between the two is important as this determines treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Primary Hyperaldosteronism - Features

A

Features

  • hypertension
  • hypokalaemia (e.g. muscle weakness)
  • alkalosis
  • polyuria and polydipsia can result from the kidneys inability to concentrate urine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Primary Hyperaldosteronism - Ix

A

Investigations

  • high serum aldosterone
  • low serum renin
  • high-resolution CT abdomen
  • adrenal vein sampling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary Hyperaldosteronism - Mx

A

Management
adrenal adenoma: surgery
bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia: aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironolactone

NB: Treatment of adrenal adenoma involves removal of the aldosterone secreting tumour. However, those pursuing adrenalectomy must undergo adrenal vein sampling first. CT imaging alone is not diagnostic of the symptomatic side responsible for aldosterone secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Conn’s syndrome - Diagnosis: Example Question

A

A 28-year-old woman is referred by her GP with refractory hypertension. Despite combination therapy with ramipril, amlodipine, bendroflumethiazide and atenolol, her blood pressure in clinic today is 181/105 mmHg. Some of her bloods are shown below. On direct questioning she also admits passing urine more than 10 times per day. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Na+ 145 mmol/l
K+ 3.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 71 µmol/l

What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Phaeochromocytoma
	Coarctation of the aorta
	Renal artery stenosis
	21-hydroxylase deficiency
	Conn's syndrome

All of the answers above are causes of secondary hypertension, except for 21-hydroxylase deficiency which accounts for over 90% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

The high sodium and low potassium in the bloods reflects the increased levels of aldosterone produced in Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone stimulates the Na+/K+-ATPase membrane transporter in the distal convoluted tubule resulting in increased sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion. Polyuria and polydipsia can result from the kidneys inability to concentrate urine.

The diagnosis is usually confirmed using plasma aldosterone:renin ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Primary Hyperaldosteronism: Mx - Example Question

A

45 year old female presents with a 2 year history of headache and visual blurring. When initially presenting to her GP 2 years ago, her blood pressure was found to be 235/160mmHg. Subsequently, despite maximal doses of four anti-hypertensives, including 50mg spironolactone, her blood pressure remains poorly controlled. Her latest blood tests demonstrate the following:

Na+ 140 mmol/l 
K+ 2.9 mmol/l 
Urea 5.8 mmol/l 
Creatinine 78 µmol/l 
CRP 2 mg/l 

Serum ambulatory renin activity 0.34 pmol/L @ 3-4 hours (normal range 0.8-3.5 pmol/ml/hr)
Serum ambulatory aldosterone 2052 pmol/L@ 3-4 hours (normal range 100-800)

A CT adrenal reveal a right adrenal mass of 2.5cm diameter. The patient is keen to take away the underlying problem. What is the most appropriate next management step?

 Add amiloride 
 Add eplenerone 
 Increase spirnolactone to 100mg OD 
 > Adrenal vein sampling 
 Right adrenalectomy 

The patient presents with poorly controlled hypertension, is hypokalaemic, hypertensive, metabolically alkalotic, has increased aldosterone and reduced renin. The underlying diagnosis is Conns disease. The treatment involves removal of the aldosterone secreting tumour. However, those pursuing adrenalectomy must undergo adrenal vein sampling first, CT imaging alone is not diagnostic of the symptomatic side responsible for aldosterone secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hypertension - Secondary Causes

A

Hypertension: secondary causes

It is thought that between 5-10% of patients diagnosed with hypertension have primary hyperaldosteronism, including Conn’s syndrome. This makes it the single most common cause of secondary hypertension.

Renal disease accounts for a large percentage of the other cases of secondary hypertension. Conditions which may increase the blood pressure include:
glomerulonephritis
pyelonephritis
adult polycystic kidney disease
renal artery stenosis

Endocrine disorders (other than primary hyperaldosteronism) may also result in increased blood pressure:
phaeochromocytoma
Cushing’s syndrome
Liddle’s syndrome
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (11-beta hydroxylase deficiency)
acromegaly

Other causes include:
NSAIDs
pregnancy
coarctation of the aorta
the combined oral contraceptive pill
steroids
MAOI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secondary Causes of HTN - Example Question

A

A 57-year-old man with a 2 year history of hypertension is referred for further evaluation due to his blood pressure being difficult to control. The following results were obtained prior to commencing medications:

Na+	148 mmol/l
K+	3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine	130 µmol/l
Renin	102 (7-50 IU/mL ambulatory)
Aldosterone	1105 (N: 80-800 ng/dL ambulatory)
Renin:Aldosterone Ratio	10.8 (< 500)
Plasma Metanephrines	0.35 (<0.50 nmol/L)

These results are most consistent with which of the following:

	Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
	Phaeochromocytoma
	Cushing's disease
	> Renovascular disease
	Primary hyperaldosteronism

The key underlying diagnosis is renal artery stenosis. The key is that the renin-aldosterone ratio is normal. If it was Conn’s disease, or primary hyperaldosteronism the renin would be suppressed. The plasma metanephrines indicate that no pheochromocytoma is present as the sensitivity of plasma metanephrines for a pheochromocytoma approaches 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Liddle’s Syndrome - Example Question

A

A 16 year old male presents with 3 months of chronic headache and visual blurring. He has no past medical history and no known family history. On examination, his heart sounds are normal with no added sounds, respiratory examination is unremarkable. He has no focal neurological signs. Fundoscopy reveals papilloedema, hard exudates and flame haemorrhage. His blood pressure is 226/160mmHg. His blood tests and arterial blood gas are as follows:

Na+ 145 mmol/l
K+ 2.9 mmol/l
Urea 5.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 72 µmol/l

pH 7.49
PaO2 13kPa
PaCO2 3.4 kPa
Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L

Serum ambulatory renin activity 0.2 pmol/L @ 3-4 hours (normal range 0.8-3.5 pmol/ml/hr)
Serum ambulatory aldosterone 24 pmol/L@ 3-4 hours (normal range 100-800)

What is the optimal long-term treatment?

	Amlodipine
	Ramipril
	Atenolol
	Doxazosin
	> Amiloride

The patient is young and presents with grade 4 hypertensive retinopathic changes associated with a systolic of over 200mmHg, associated with hypopkaelamia and a metabolic alkalosis. Importantly, both renin and aldosterone are decreased, ruling out primary hyperaldosteronism. The diagnosis is thus likely to be Liddles syndrome, a genetic disorder of ENaC channels in the collecting duct, leading to increased sodium reabsorption and increased potassium excretion. The treatment is with amiloride, a potassium sparing diuretic that directly blocks collecting tubule sodium channels and resolves hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Conn’s Syndrome - Example Question

A

A 38-year-old man is referred to the pharmacology clinic for review. He is currently managed for hypertension with three anti-hypertensive agents, (ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide). His GP is concerned as he has still not achieved blood pressure target. On examination his blood pressure is 155/95 mmHg, pulse is 78 beats per minute and regular. There are no heart murmurs or bruits. Abdomen is soft and non tender with no masses and his body mass index is 24 kg/m².

Investigations:

Na+	142 mmol/l
K+	3.1 mmol/l
HCO3-	30 mmol/l
Urea	7.0 mmol/l
Creatinine	90 µmol/l

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

	Bartter's syndrome
	> Conn's syndrome
	Cushing's syndrome
	Licorice overdose
	Renal artery stenosis

This patient has resistant hypertension in the presence of hypokalaemia and high bicarbonate, despite initiation of three different anti-hypertensive medications. Although the lack of symptoms or signs of cardiovascular disease doesn’t rule out renal artery stenosis completely, it makes it less likely versus Conn’s or licorice overdose as a cause of hypertension with hypokalaemia. Licorice overdose is made less likely by the fact that most licorice sold in shops in the UK now has glycyrrhizic acid removed, and this is the active agent which leads to hypokalaemia and hypertension. Conn’s is the single most common cause of secondary hypertension, making up between 5 and 10% of cases of hypertension overall.

Bartter’s syndrome leads to hypokalaemia with hypotension and is therefore not an appropriate answer here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adrenal Hyperplasia - Example Question

A

You are seeing a 58-year-old man in clinic who has been referred by his GP with resistant hypertension despite treatment with ramipril, amlodipine, indapamide and bisoprolol. He looks comfortable at rest.

Observations are as follows: temperature 36.5ºC, blood pressure 182/125 mmHg, heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 16/min, saturations 97% on air

Investigations are as follows:

Na+ 148 mmol/l
K+ 2.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l

Renin Low
Aldosterone (supine) High
Aldosterone (prolonged standing) Increase from supine levels

Blood gases:

PaO2	11.2kPa
PaCO2	5.2kPa
pH	7.49
HC03-	32 mmol/l
BE	+4

What is the single most likely diagnosis?

	> Adrenal hyperplasia
	Conn's adenoma
	Malignant hypertension
	Phaeochromocytoma
	Renal artery stenosis

All of the above diagnoses could cause hypertension. This patient has a hypokalaemic alkalosis and low renin. The differentials are therefore Conn’s adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia. To differentiate between the two look at the aldosterone on standing. In this case, the aldosterone increases on prolonged standing, therefore, the diagnosis is adrenal hyperplasia. In Conn’s adenoma, the aldosterone would stay the same or drop on standing.

In malignant hypertension and renal artery stenosis, the renin would be high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AME - Apparent Mineralocorticoid Excess

A

= autosomal mutation of 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2 (usually autosomal recessive)

  • Can result in findings similar to PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM:
  • HTN
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Low plasma renin activity

However actually plasma aldosterone levels are LOW in these disorders, not elevated

  • Excess liquorice ingestion can result in similar (chronic) findings due to inhibitor of 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase type 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differentiating between Conn’s Adenoma and Adrenal Hyperplasia (without CT)

A

Conn’s adenoma vs adrenal hyperplasia.

To differentiate between the two look at the aldosterone on standing.

If aldosterone increases on prolonged standing the diagnosis is adrenal hyperplasia.
In Conn’s adenoma, the aldosterone would stay the same or drop on standing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hypokalaemia + HTN

A

For exams it is useful to be able to classify the causes of hypokalaemia in to those associated with hypertension, and those which are not

Hypokalaemia with hypertension
Cushing’s syndrome (Low Renin, High Aldosterone)
Conn’s syndrome (Low Renin, High Aldosterone)
Liddle’s syndrome (Low Renin, Low Aldosterone)
11-beta hydroxylase deficiency*
Renal artery stenosis (High Renin, High Aldosterone)

Ix to differentiate = Plasma Renin and Aldosterone

Carbenoxolone, an anti-ulcer drug, and liquorice excess can potentially cause hypokalaemia associated with hypertension

*21-hydroxylase deficiency, which accounts for 90% of congenital adrenal hyperplasia cases, is not associated with hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Liddle’s Syndrome

A

Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition that causes hypertension and hypokalaemic alkalosis. It is thought to be caused by disordered sodium channels in the distal tubules leading to increased reabsorption of sodium.

Treatment is with either amiloride or triamterene

Example Question:

A 32 year-old man is referred by his GP after collapsing while at work. He does not remember the episode but witnesses say that there was no incontinence or fitting and the patient does not have a sore mouth or tongue. This is the first time this has happened and the patient does not have any other past medical history of note and takes no regular medication.

Examination reveals a blood pressure of 162/95 mmHg, a pulse of 74 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 and a temperature of 37.4ºC. Heart sounds 1 and 2 are present with no added sounds, the lung fields are clear and his abdomen is soft and non-tender.

Blood tests performed and reveal:

Na+ 143 mmol/l 
K+ 3.0 mmol/l 
Urea 5.6 mmol/l 
Creatinine 76 µmol/l 
Bicarbonate 31 mmol/l 
Renin low 
Aldosterone low 

Which of the following is the best treatment?

 > Amiloride 
 Bumetanide 
 Spironolactone 
 ACE inhibitor 
 Angiotensin II receptor blocker 

This man has Liddle’s syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder characterised by hypertension associated with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, low plasma renin activity, and suppressed aldosterone secretion. Amiloride is the best treatment for the hypertension and hypokalaemia as it acts on the sodium channels directly, as opposed to spironolactone, which acts on mineralocorticoid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lidless Syndrome - Example Question

A

A 24 year-old woman presents to hospital after collapsing while out shopping. On taking her observations, she has a temperature 37.2°C, a pulse rate of 78 per minute which is regular and normal in character and a blood pressure of 164/92 mmHg. Heart sounds 1 and 2 were present with no added sounds and his chest was clear on auscultation. His abdomen was soft and non-tender with no organomegaly. Neurological examination was unremarkable. She has no past medical history of note and is on no regular medications.

Further blood tests reveal low renin and aldosterone levels, hypokalaemia and a serum bicarbonate of 30 mmol/l.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

	Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
	Bumetanide
	Potassium replacement
	Spironolactone
	> Amiloride

This woman has presented with the combination of hypokalaemic alkalosis, suppressed renin and aldosterone levels in the presence of hypertension indicates a diagnosis of Liddle syndrome. Hypertension and hypokalaemia respond well to amiloride. Spironolactone is not as effective as this medication acts on the mineralocorticoid receptor, as opposed to amiloride, which acts directly on the sodium channel