HW path notes Flashcards

1
Q

POLYCYTHAEMIA VERA is

A

A myeloproliferative neoplasm that results in an excess of red blood cells

Typically presents in older patients, with slight male predilection

Varied presentation, most serious being venous and arterial thrombosis and transformation into acute myeloid leukaemia

Features:
Hypertension
Unbearable pruritis
Venous thrombosis
Arterial thrombosis
Conjunctival injection
Facial plethora
Gout

JAK2 mutation, found in >95% of people

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2
Q

MULTIPLE MYELOMA is

A

monoclonal gammopathy, the most common primary malignant bone neoplasm

Arises from red marrow due to the monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells

Four main patterns are recognised:
- Disseminated - multiple well defined, punched out lytic lesions
- Disseminated - diffuse skeletal osteopenia
- Solitary plasmacytoma - single large lesion
- Osteosclerosing myeloma

A common malignancy in patients >40yo

Clinical presentation
Bone pain - intermittent and then constant
Anaemia - normochromic, normocytic
Renal failure
Proteinuria
Hypercalcaemia

Complications :
Pathological fracture
Amyloidosis
Recurrent infection
Plasmacytomas typically progress to multiple myeloma

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3
Q

MULTIPLE MYELOMA path

A

Monoclonal proliferation of malignant plasma cells which produce immunoglobulins (commonly IgG) and infiltrate haemopoietic locations (red marrow)

Renal involvement is common and renal failure is multifactorial :
- Obstructive casts in the renal tubules
- Direct nephrotoxicity of Bence Jones proteins on the epithelial cells of the renal tubules
- Hypercalcaemia and dehydration
- Amyloidosis
- Increased risk of renal infection

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4
Q

PLASMACYTOMA is

A

Discrete, solitary tumours of neoplastic monoclonal plasma cells in either bone or soft tissue (extramedullary)

No/minimal systemic bone marrow involvement

Two groups:
Solitary bone - 70%
Extramedullary plasmacytoma - 30%

Usually in adults age 40-80yo

Can arise in any part of the body

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5
Q

LYMPHOMA is

A

A malignancy arising from lymphocytes or lymphoblasts

Can present as nodal or extranodal disease

Nodal: Hodgkin and low-grade NHL

High grade NHL: SVC, cauda equina

Often present with B symptoms: fever, night sweats and weight loss

Unknown aetiology, but potential lymphomatogenic risk factors:
- Viral infection - EBV, HIV, HCV
- Bacterial infection - Helicobacter pylori
- Chronic immunosuppression - post transplant
- Prior chemotherapy and drug therapy e.g. digoxin

Classification
Hodgkin lymphoma 40%
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma 60%
- Mature B-cell lymphoma - 85%, the remainder are T-cell
- Mature T-cell and NK-cell lymphoma
- Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders

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6
Q

HODGKIN LYMPHOMA is/path

A

Spreads contiguously along lymphatic pathways

Curable in ~90% of cases

Bimodal distribution, young 15-34, and older >55

Typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy

Pathology:
- Characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (a type of B cell)
- These occupy a very small proportion of the overall cell population of the affected lymph node

Contiguous spread is another feature

EBV infection is present in 40-80%

5 subtypes, divided into two groups - classical and non-classical

Classical
- Positive for CD15/CD30 and negative for CD20/45/EMA
- Nodular sclerosing - 70%
- Mixed cellularity - 25%
- Lymphocyte rich - 5%
- Lymphocyte depleted - <5%
Worst prognosis

Non-classical
- Positive for CD 19, 20, 22, 79a/EMA and negative for CD15/CD30
- Nodular lymphocyte predominant - best proggy

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7
Q

HODGKIN LYMPHOMA location

A

Typically entirely confined to the lymph nodes, and starts in the upper body

Extranodal manifestations are uncommon, but can be found in any organ system

Spine

  • Erosion of the anterior/anterolacteral aspect of the vertebral body - from enlarged lymph nodes
  • Nodular sclerosing - diffusely increased density with or without anterior erosion, vertebral body heigh is unaffected
  • Single, dense vertebra is suggestive in adults

Long bones - frequently lytic

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8
Q

NON-HODGKIN LYMPHOMA is

A

Catch all phase for any non-hodgkin lymphoma
- burkitt
- marginal zone
- follicular
- waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia

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9
Q

BURKITT LYMPHOMA is

A

An aggressive B-cell lymphoma predominantly affecting children

The most common NHL in children, ~40%

Median age is 8yo

Risk factors:
HIV/AIDs
Post transplant immunosuppression

Presentation:
- Extranodal involvement is common ~30%, most often as an abdominal or pelvic mass
- Most patients present with widespread disease

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10
Q

BURKITT LYMPHOMA pathology

A

Three forms are described:
- Endemic - linked to EBV and malaria
- Sporadic - aetiology unknown
- Immunodeficiency associated - occur in patients with HIV, post transplant or congenital immunosuppression

An aggressive tumour with a doubling time of 24hrs

Can present in a wide variety of locations:
- Head and neck
- Pleural space ~70%
- GIT, esp ileocaecal
- Mesentery, peritoneum, retroperitoneum
- Kidneys
- Gonads ~75%

Nodal involvement is more common in adults than children

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11
Q

MARGINAL ZONE LYMPHOMA is

A

A group of NHL

Three types, depending on the site of origin

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), splenic and extranodal marginal lymphoma

The marginal zone in the germinal follicles undergoes hyperplasia in response to infection or antigen

The most common type of NHL, often in the stomach (associated with H-pylori infection) and thyroid

Genetic abnormalities: t(11, 18) and trisomy 3 are reported

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12
Q

FOLLICULAR LYMPHOMA is

A

subtype of NHL

Accounts for ~45% of all NHL

Markers:
CD10 positive
CD5 negative
CD20 positive

Translocation t(14;18) is found in majority of patients with follicular lymphoma

Can transform into a more aggressive type

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13
Q

WALDENSTROM MACROGLOBULINAEMIA

A

A lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

rare

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14
Q

SICKLE CELL DISEASE is

A

A hereditary autosomal recessive condition resulting in the formation of abnormal haemoglobin, which manifests as multisystem ischemia and infarction, as well as haemolytic anaemia

No gender predilection

The highest incidence is in individuals of african descent > eastern mediterranean

Close relationship with malaria

Early manifestation in early childhood, commonly with a painful vaso-occlusive crisis - sudden onset bone or visceral pain due to microvascular occlusion and ischaemia, often in the setting of sepsis or dehydration

Presentation:
Bone pain - infarction, osteomyelitis

Pulmonary - acute chest syndrome, recurrent pneumonia, chronic lung disease

Abdominal - vaso-occlusive crises, sequestration syndrome (rapid pooling of blood in the spleen, leading to intravascular volume depletion)

Haemolytic anaemia and extra-medullary haematopoiesis

Impaired immunity from autosplenectomy

Multiple renal manifestations resulting in renal failure

Cerebral - stroke, cognitive impairment

Ocular and orbital complications - central retinal artery occlusion

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15
Q

SPLENIC SIDEROTIC NODULES

A

Splenic siderotic nodules - Gamna-gandy bodies of the spleen, most commonly encountered in portal hypertension. The pathological process is the result of microhaemorrhage resulting in haemosiderin and calcium deposition followed by fibroblastic reaction

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16
Q

SPLENOMEGALY

A

Massive splenomegaly: longer than 18cm, or extending into the pelvis or across the midline

Pathology:

Haematological disease
Haemodynamic
Infectious
Storage Diseases/metabolic/infiltrative disorders
Neoplastic - non haemorrhagic
Traumatic
Connective tissue disordERS

Massive: Chronic myeloid leukaemia, myelofibrosis, gaucher disease, lymphoma, Kala-azar, malaria, beta-thalassemia major, AIDs with mycobacterium, Sarcoidosis

Moderate :Rickets, hepatities, hepatic cirrhosis, lymphoma/leukaemia, EBV, pernicious anaemia, amyloidosis, abscess

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17
Q

LEUKAEMIA is

A

A haematological neoplasm characterised by the overproduction of immature (blasts) or abnormally differentiated cells of the haematopoietic system in bone marrow that often, but not always, extends into peripheral blood

Divided according to the percentage of blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood

Acute - when there is proliferation of mostly immature/poorly differentiated cells (blasts) in the bone marrow
- >20%
- Clonal cells build-up crowds out of the marrow in detriment of healthy blood lineage cells
- Disease becomes symptomatic early

Chronic - proliferation of mostly mature but abnormal leukocytes with or without cytopenia

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18
Q

LEUKAEMIA classification

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
- Commonly affecting children - ~80%
- Usually severely symptomatic

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- Commonly affecting elderly patients >75yo

Acute myeloid leukaemia
- Commonly seen in adults, but also the second most common form in children
- Male predominance

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
- Male adults
- Philadelphia chromosome is present in 90%

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19
Q

CML is

A

Overproduction of granulocytes with fairly normal differentiation

Typically age 50-60

Risk factors - high-dose radiation exposure

Bloods: leucocytosis with a predominance of the neutrophil lineage

Genetics:
Chromosomal abnormality of the haematopoietic stem cell: where translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 creates the fusion gene BCR-ABL1

The shortened chromosome 22 contains the fusion gene Philadelphia chromosome

Imaging:
Splenomegaly and diffuse marrow infiltration

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20
Q

VITAMIN K DEFICIENCY

A

A clotting dyscrasia, vital as a cofactor for the enzymatic activation of several key components of the clotting pathway, including the prothrombogenic proteins, prothrombin, factors VII, IV and X, and the anticoagulant molecules: proteins C, S and Z

Presents with bleeding tendency:
Spontaneous haematomas
Mucosal bleeding
Haematochezia and melena
Haematuria
Menorrhagia
Anaemia

Aetiology:
Fat malabsorption
Chronic broad spectrum antibiotics
Dietary fat insufficiency

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21
Q

EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS

A

Exposure is widespread, 90% of adults are seropositive

When acquired in childhood it remains subclinical. If acquired as a young adults, 25% are symptomatic

In 5%, CMV is the causative pathogen

Clinical presentation
Fever/tonsillitis
Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly - occasionally hepatosplenomegaly
Fatigue
Rash

Complications:
Splenic rupture - may be spontaneous
Splenic infarction

Pathology:
A herpesvirus - herpesvirus 4
Thought to be person-to-person spread, through salivary secretions
Infects B-cells in the lymphoid tissue
Becomes a chronic infection with periodic shedding of virus
May have elevated transaminases

Imaging
Splenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
Tonsillar enlargement
Possible hepatomegaly

Complications
Myocarditis rarely seen
CNS infection, rarely seen

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22
Q

INVASIVE LOBULAR CARCINOMA general

A

The most common type of invasive breast cancer after invasive breast carcinoma of no special type

They represent 5-10% of all breast cancer

Association:
- Greater likelihood of contralateral breast cancer in invasive lobular carcinoma, with a 5yr rate of bilateral cancer of 8%
- 4% synchronous and 4% metachronous

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23
Q

INVASIVE LOBULAR CARCINOMA pathology/markers

A

Pathology:
Characterised by malignant monomorphic cells that form loosely dispersed linear columns that invade the normal tissues and encircle ducts.

Invasive carcinoma of no specific type more commonly presents as a mass with vigorous desmoplastic response

The cells often preserve the architecture of the ducts, which limits the sensitivity of detection using mammography

Markers:
- Loss of E-cadherin is a specific biomarker for invasive lobular carcinoma as opposed to invasive breast carcinoma of no special type
- Although 15% of ILC are positive for E-cadherin
- The majority of invasive lobular carcinomas have the following receptor profile:
- Oestrogen receptor +
- Progesterone receptor +
- HER2 amplification -

Variants:
Tubulolobular
Solid
Alveolar
Pleomorphic
Mixed

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24
Q

INVASIVE LOBULAR CARCINOMA imaging

A

Imaging
Often multicentric and bilateral 10-15%

Imaging of the contralateral breast is crucial

Can be subtle changes e.g. progressive shrinkage/enlargement or reduced compressibility of the involved breast

Mammography:
Sensitivity 57-81%
Spiculated mass lesion - most common
Asymmetrical densities 3-25%
Opacities or architectural distortion 10-25%
Microcalcifications <10%
16% are occult or benign

Ultrasound
Heterogenous, hypoechoic mass with angular or ill-defined margins and posterior acoustic shadowing

Characteristic: heterogenous infiltrating area of low echogenicity with disproportionate posterior shadowing

MRI is recommended due to propensity for multicentricity

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25
Q

ATYPICAL LOBULAR HYPERPLASIA

A

A premalignant lesion of the breast which falls at the milder end of the spectrum of lobular neoplasia

Considered borderline breast disease

Pathology:

Proliferation of monomorphic cells which are morphologically identical to lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

The distinction is that ALH occurs in a non-distended lobule or small lobular duct, whereas LCIS is characterised by distension

Treatment is controversial. Some centres surgically excise, others do not.

The risk of subsequent breast cancer is 4-6x higher after diagnosis (11x after LCIS)

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26
Q

LOBULAR CARCINOMA IN SITU

A

Represents the next step up from atypical lobular hyperplasia along the malignant spectrum of lobular breast carcinoma

Predominately occurs in pre-menopausal women, average age ~45yo. 10-15yrs younger than the mean age when invasive breast carcinoma occurs

Pathology;

Like most other lobular breast pathology, LCIS originates in the terminal ductal lobular unit

Unlike ALH, the malignant cells fill and distend the lobular acini in LCIS

Unlike invasive, they leave the basement membrane intact

Do not express E-cadherin

Usually incidentally identified

The exception may be pleomorphic LCIS which is a more aggressive subtype

A high risk marker for future development of invasive 15-30% chance of developing an infiltrating ductal or lobular carcinoma in the breast in which LCIS is discovered or in the contralateral breast

Usually diagnosed with a core needle biopsy > excisional biopsy should be performed

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27
Q

MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THE BREAST

A

An uncommon subtype of breast cancer

Accounts for ~5% of all breast cancers

Tend to occur in younger women, more than other breast cancer types

Mean age of presentation varies 46-54yo, but in 10% under 35yo

Pathology:
- Typically arises from supporting stromal cells of the breast
- A well-circumscribed carcinoma composed of poorly differentiated cells with scant stroma and prominent lymphoid infiltration
- Large pleomorphic nuclei, prominent nucleoli and high mitotic activity may be seen
- The histological appearance can mimic poorly differentiated intraductal carcinoma no
- Areas of necrosis may be present
- More common in the BRCA 1 gene mutation setting

Two types:
Typical
Atypica

Better prognosis than for intraductal carcinoma. 89-95% 5yr survival

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28
Q

MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THE BREAST imaging

A

Mammography:

Typically seen as a circular/oval type mass lesion with ill-defined or circumscribed margins at mammography

There can be varying degrees of lobulation

Calcification isn’t usually a feature

Ultrasound:
Either homogenously hyperechoic, or hypoechoic with mild heterogeneity

Enhanced through transmission may be present

The level of hypoechogenicity can sometimes be marked

MRI :
May show diffuse enhancement post contrast

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29
Q

PAGET DISEASE OF THE BREAST/NIPPLE is

A

A form of breast malignancy characterised by infiltration of the nipple epidermis by malignant cells

Most cases have an underlying focus or foci of in situ or invasive carcinomas, some are confined to the skin of the nipple-areola without underlying neoplastic foci

Can represent 1-5% of breast malignancies

The average age at diagnosis is ~6th decade 53-59yo

Eczematous appearing changes of the nipple include reddening, scaling, hyperkeratosis and crusting of the nipple surface

Can be classified into 4 clinical stages:

0: lesion is confined to the epidermis, without underlying ductal carcinoma in situ of the breast
1: associated with DCIS just beneath the nipple
2: associated with extensive DCIS
3: associated with invasive ductal carcinoma

Treatment: traditionally a mastectomy with nodal dissection

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30
Q

PAGET DISEASE OF THE BREAST/NIPPLE path

A

In most cases there are malignant ductal cells that extend to the nipple surface through the terminal lactiferous ducts

Malignant epithelial cells infiltrate and proliferate in the epidermis, causing an eczema-like rash of the nipple and areolar skin

There are several histological variants:
Adenocarcinoma-like cell
Spindle cell
Anaplastic cell
Acantholytic cell
Pigmented cell

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31
Q

PAGET DISEASE OF THE BREAST/NIPPLE imaging

A

Undetectable in ~50% of cases on mammo

Apparent features:

Skin thickening, nipple retraction, subareolar or more diffuse malignant microcalcifications, and discrete subareolar masses

MRI:

Abnormal nipple enhancement and linear clumped enhancement indicative of DCIS in association with Paget disease

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32
Q

GYNAECOMASTIA is/path./causes

A

Benign excess of male breast tissue, usually reversible

Not a risk factor for male breast cancer

Greater prevalence in two groups:

Adolescent boys 50-60%

Older men 70%

Symptomatic cases are much lower

Pathology:
- Enlargement of the male breast due to benign ductal and stromal proliferation
- A hallmark is its central symmetrical location under the nipple
- Tends to be unilateral and/or asymmetrical
- Key is the imbalance between oestrogen action relative to androgen action at the breast tissue level

Aetiology:
Hormonal
Neonate – maternal oestrogen
Puberty – high oestradiol levels
Elderly – decline in testosterone levels
Hypogonadism/androgen deficiency states:
- Klinefelter syndrome
- Anorchism
- Testicular failure e.g. testicular cancer

Drugs

Systemic disorders
- Advanced alcoholic cirrhosis
- Chrnic pulmonary disease e.g. emphysema, - TB
- Haemodialysis in chronic renal failure
- Hyperthyroidism
- Malnutrition

Tumours – particularly oestrogenic tumours
- Adrenal carcinoma
- Hepatoma
- Lungcancer
- Pituitary adenoma
- Testicular cancer – including sex-cord stromal, and germ cell tumours

Idiopathic

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33
Q

LYMPHOCYTIC MASTITIS is

A

A rare benign inflammatory disease of the breast that can mimic breast cancer

Diabetic mastopathy is a closely related entity, sometimes used synonymously

May present as a palpable mass, may be painful, and may be bilateral

Associated with autoimmune disease e.g. Hashimoto thyroiditis, SLE and sjogrens syndrome

Dense fibrous tissue with hard lesions that can be large – up to 6cm.

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34
Q

PLASMA CELL MASTITIS is and imaging

A

A benign breast condition that represents calcification of inspissated secretions in or immediately adjacent to ectatic benign ducts

Typically seen in non-pregnant and non-lactating females

Thought to represent aseptic inflammation with infiltration of plasma cells and lymphocytes in the breast tissue from the extravasation of intraductal sections into periductal connective tissue

Imaging:

Thick, linear, rod-like or cigar-shaped calcifications

Can be up to 10mm long

Tend to be bilateral, often symmetrical and orientated to point towards the nipple. Branching may be seen

Larger in length and calibre than DCIS, with a smoother outline

Benign entitiy. No increased risk of malignancy

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35
Q

FAT NECROSIS IS

A

Within the breast, a pathological process that occurs when there is saponification of local fat

Benign inflammatory process, increasingly more common with the greater use of breast-conserving surgery and mammoplasty procedures

Most at risk are middle aged women with pendulous breasts

Onset can be delayed 10+ years after surgery

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36
Q

FAT NECROSIS PATH

A

Disruption of fat cells, with the formation of vaculoes containing the remnants of necrotic fat cells

The vaculoes are surrounded by lipid-laden macrophages, multinucleated giant cells and acute inflammatory cells

Fibrosis develops during the reparative phase, peripherally enclosing an area of necrotic fat and cellular debris

Eventually fibrosis may replace the area of degenerative fat with a scar, or loculated and degenerated fat may persist for years within a fibrotic scar

Aetiology:
Direct trauma
Nodular panniculitis
Plasma cell mastitis

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37
Q

FAT NECROSIS IMAGING

A

Variable appearance

Initially can be an ill-defined and irregular, spiculated mass-like area

Calcification may be present
- Usually peripheral with a stippled curvilinear appearance, creating the appearance of lucent ‘bubbles’ in the breast parenchyma

Low density centre

Tumour formation is not part of fat necrosis, although it may be clinically palpable

With time, becomes more well defined and well-circumscribed, giving rise to an oil cyst
- Oil cyst – fine curvilinear calcification of the walls
- The centre becomes increasingly homogenous with fat density
- Calcifies in 5%

Ultrasound:
- Acute – increased echogenicity due to oedema of the fatty tissue
- Subacute – ill defined complex cystic lesion surrounding oedematous fat
- Late – calcified walls, posterior shadowing

Aspiration: milky, emulsified fat appearance
- Can have fat globules drifting

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38
Q

RADIAL SCAR is

A

A rosette-like proliferative breast lesion

Not related to surgical scarring

An idiopathic process with sclerosing ductal hyperplasia

A mimicker of scirrhous breast carcinoma
Diagnosis cannot be made on imaging alone

Rare in women <40yo and >60yo

Clinically – not palpable, no skin thickening or retraction

Considered a high risk breast lesion, and histological differentiation is requried

Associations
30% of cases, associated with DCIS and tubular carcinoma of the breast
- Occurrence is higher when associated atypia on histology

Other associations:
Atypical ductal hyperplasia
Atypical lobular hyperplasia

FNA and core biopsies can underestimate the underlying associated malignancy = vacuum assisted biopsy is recommended

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39
Q

RADIAL SCAR path

A

Benign hyperplastic proliferative disease of the breast

Mechanisms include localised inflammatory reaction and chronic ischaemia with subsequent slow infarction

Histopathologically:

Hyperplastic tissue cells and a central fibrous core, with a radial extension of tubular structures mimicking infiltrating carcinoma

The tubular formation has two rows of cells, epithelial and myoepithelial

The malignant potential is 2x greater than in the normal population without radial scar

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40
Q

RADIAL SCAR imaging

A

Spiculated appearance, similar to carcinoma, but the centre tends to be translucent, low-density rather than a mass

Breast tissue behind the lesion is usually as dense centrally as peripherally

No mass

Spicules running from the centre are in general longer and gracile than those of a carcinoma

Long, thin with radiating radiolucent linear structures, which against a radiolucent fat background gives a black star appearance

Microcalcifications are possible but rare

Other features of a carcinoma are rare e.g. skin thickening and retraction

No visible scirrhous reaction in the radial scar

Ultrasound:
- Often ill-defined and disturbs the architecture of surrounding breast parenchyma
- Usually round, oval or lobulated
- Variable internal echoes can be found

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41
Q

DCIS IS

A

Breast carcinoma limited to the ducts with no extension beyond the basement membrane – so the disease has not infiltrated the parenchyma of the breast and lymphatics, and therefore cannot metastasize

Associations:
Up to 11% of predetermined ductal carcinoma in situ on imaging may have an invasive component at the time of biopsy

20-25% may have an invasive component following surgical excision

Risk factors:
Increasing age
Family history of breast cancer
Nulliparity
Age 30+ at the birth of first child
Most are asymptomatic

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42
Q

DCIS path

A

Pathology:
Precursor of invasive breast carcinoma

Represents a spectrum of disease

Ductal carcinoma in situ isn’t a single entity, but a spectrum of disease

Markers:
E-cadherin may help to differentiate from lobular

Subtypes:
Largely two, based on central necrosis, grade and cell type:
- Comedo – large cell: more aggressive form “comedocarcinoma”
- Non-comedo – small cell: less aggressive, can be further divided into
- Cribiform
- Micropapillary
- Papillary
- Solid

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43
Q

DCIS imaging

A

Varied manifestation, with casting-type calcifications being more common 50-75% of cases

Other manifestations include a soft tissue opacity either with or without associated calcifications

Linear calcs are more likely to be comedo-type, while granular calcs are more often non-comedo

Occasionally can present as a simple mass or asymmetry without calcification ~8%

Calc underestimates the distribution, since not all the DCIS calcifies

US
Microlobulated mild hypoechoic mass with ductal extension and normal acousitc transmission

MRI
Non-mass enhancement, most commonly with a segmental or linear distribution and clumped or heterogenous internal enhancement pattern

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44
Q

JUVENILE PAPILLOMATOSIS is, path, imaging

A

A relatively common benign localised proliferative lesion in the breast

Mainly seen in young women ~19-23yo, unusual over 30

Present with a firm, well-defined, mobile mass often in the periphery of the breast

Usually with no nipple discharge

Pathology:
- A papillary proliferation of the ductal epithelium which partly fills up smaller ducts and distends them
- Well-circumscribed mass containing multiple small cysts (<2cm) within a dense fibrous stroma
- Can vary in size 1-8cm

US:
- Ill defined, inhomogenous hypoechoic mass with multiple small (up to 4mm) predominantely peripheral cysts

Mammo: typically negative, occasionally may show pleomorphic or amorphous `microcalcifications, asymmetric density or a prominent intraductal pattern

Galactography: multiple irregular filling defects within the breasts

Benign, but considered to be a marker for familial breast cancer

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45
Q

TUBULAR CARCINOMA is

A

A subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma

Account for ~1% of breast cancer

Peak age at presentation may be comparatively younger than other types of breast cancer

Majority are non-palpable and invariably found incidentally at screening rather than manifesting with clinical findings

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46
Q

TUBULAR CARCINOMA path

A

Pathology:
May contain other histologic elements, but an excess of 75% tubular elements is usually required for the diagnosis of tubular carcinoma

A distinguishing feature is a single layer of cells lining tubules with loss of lobular architecture and surrounding infiltration

The glands in tubular carcinomas lack myoepithelial cells

Lesions may be multifocal or multicentric in ~15%

Variants :
Tubulolobular carcinoma - an invasive lobular carcinoma with features of tubular carcinoma, but behaves as other ILCs with regard to prognosis

Associations:
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) - can be an association in more than 50-65% of tubular carcinomas

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47
Q

TUBULAR CARCINOMA imaging

A

Typically small (<1cm), spiculated and can occur without calcifications

The appearance mimics typical IDC not otherwise specified, manifesting as one or more small spiculated masses

The spicules are often longer than the central mass

Amorphous microcalcifications may be present in 10-15%

US:
Also mimic IDC not otherwise specified, manifesting as a hypoechoic solid mass with ill-defined margins and posterior acoustic shadowing

The lesions are often rounded, tall as broad

Differentials:

Radial scar/complex sclerosing lesion

The tubular carcinoma is dense centrally, where the radial scar is not

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48
Q

Diabetic mastopathy also known as

A

Sclerosing lymphocytic lobulitis

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49
Q

SCLEROSING ADENOSIS is

A

A benign proliferative condition of the terminal duct lobular units characterised by an increased number of acini and their glands

Manifests as multiple small, firm, tender nodules, fibrous tissue and variable microcysts within the breast

Can be considered a borderline breast disease

Clinical presentation:
- Recurring pain that tends to be linked to the menstrual cycle
- Usually detected during screening, with biopsy confirmation
- Can appear as a focal or diffuse lesion
- Not palpable in 80% of cases, although in some it may cause skin retraction

Not premalignant, but an independent risk factor for the development of subsequent breast cancer

1.5-2x higher risk of developing breast cancer

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50
Q

SCLEROSING ADENOSIS path

A

A type of adenosis in which enlarged acini become slightly distorted by surrounded stromal fibrosis

The normal lobular architecture of the breast is maintained but becomes exaggerated and distorted

Assoc:
Can be seen as a component of other proliferative lesions
- Intraductal and/or sclerosing papilloma
- Complex sclerosing lesion
- Fibroadenoma
- Breast cancer, both invasive and in situ

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51
Q

SCLEROSING ADENOSIS imaging

A

Mammography - has a wide range of mammographic presentations, and can be difficult to distinguish from an infiltrating carcinoma

Mass - with irregular to well defined contours

Architectural distortion

Microcalcifications
- Present in 40-55% of cases
- May be amorphous, pleomorphic or punctate
- More commonly clustered, but may be diffusely scattered

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52
Q

DIABETIC MASTOPATHY is and path

A

The presence of a benign tumour like breast mass in women with long-standing type 1 or 2 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Pathology:
- A form of lymphocytic mastitis and stromal fibrosis
- There is dense fibrosis and predominantly B-cell lymphocytic infiltrate surrounding the ducts, lobules and vessels
- The exact pathogenesis is poorly understood and likely multifactorial

US
Irregular hypoechoic masses with marked posterior acoustic shadowing

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53
Q

PSEUDOANGIOMATOUS STROMAL HYPERPLASIA is

A

A benign, relatively uncommon form of stromal (mesenchymal) overgrowth within breast tissue that derives from a possible hormonal aetiology

Typically affects women of reproductive age, rarely affects males

Clinical presentation: the tumoural form of PASH commonly manifests as a single, circumscribed, palpable mass in a premenopausal female

Can be large (5-6cm) in diameter

Often grow over time and may recur after excisional biopsy in 10% of cases

Neither associated with malignancy or considered to be premalignant

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54
Q

PSEUDOANGIOMATOUS STROMAL HYPERPLASIA path

A

Represents a clinicopathologic spectrum ranging from focal, incidental microscopic findings to clinically and mammographically evident breast masses

The development is presumed to be related to the interaction of progesterone receptions

Lesions can be microscopic or nodular (tumourous)

On gross pathology, typically a well-circumscribed, firm, rubbery mass with solid, homogenous, grey-white cut surface

Microscopic - characterised by the presence of open slit-like spaces in dense collagenous stroma which is lined by a discontinuous layer of flat, spindle-shaped myofibroblasts with bland nuclei

Can also contain complex anastomosing spaces that may be confused with angiosarcoma on histo

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55
Q

PSEUDOANGIOMATOUS STROMAL HYPERPLASIA imaging

A

Features are not specific enough for a prospective diagnosis

Mammography:
- A circumscribed or partly circumscribed mass
- Often present as an asymmetry/focal asymmetry
- Typically lack calcification

US
- Most often an oval or round circumscribed mass
- Often hypoechoic and may be slightly heterogenous - imaging appearance may be similar to that of a fibroadenoma

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56
Q

MUCINOUS BREAST CARCINOMA is

A

Tends to occur in older women, where prevalence of as much as 7% is found among women 75+ yo, whereas the prevalence is only 1% in women younger than 35

If palpable, tend to be soft masses

Purely mucinous subtype carries a good prognosis compared to other adenocarcinomas

5yr survival 95% stage 2, 75% stage 3 and 35% stage 4

Lower tendency to metastasise

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57
Q

MUCINOUS BREAST CARCINOMA path

A

The dominant feature is the presence of mucin within and surrounding cancer cells
- The mucin: cell ratio can vary from lesion to lesion

A core biopsy specimen usually gives a gelatinous appearance

Microscopically, it is formed by large mucin lakes surrounded by mucous-producing cancer cells

Histologically divided into:
- Hypocellular A - pure mucinous breast cancer
- Hypercellular B - variable area of DIC-NOS component
- Can be infiltrative and carries a worse prognosis

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58
Q

MUCINOUS BREAST CARCINOMA imaging

A

The majority of well-marginated breast masses are benign, but 10-20% of breast malignancies could be well-circumscribed, such as mucinous but also papillary, medullary, metaplastic carcinomas and a malignant phyllodes tumour

The presence of mucin results in a low-density and relatively well-defined lobular mass

Sometimes they have partly faded or obscure margins

Up to 20% can be occult on mammo

Calcifications an be rare in pure mucinous types

US
- Often display mixed echogenicity with mixed solid and cystic components
- Posterior acoustic enhancement is common
- At times, the lesion can be isoechoic to breast tissue on US
- Mixed cystic and solid components, distal enhancement and microlobulated margins are commonly found
- Homogeneity on sonography is associated with the pure type of MCB, where the margins are usually well defined, and the tumour is iso-echogenic relative to the fat surrounding the breast tissue on US

MRI
One of the few high T2 signal lesions

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59
Q

MALE BREAST CANCER is

A

Exceptionally rare, and only accounts of <0.25% of male malignancies

The diagnosis is sometimes delayed

The average age is 60-70yo, later than female breast cancer

Most commonly men present with a painless subareolar mass

Location
- Favours the subareolar area or upper outer quadrant
- Favours a slightly eccentric location relative to the nipple

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60
Q

MALE BREAST CANCER path, risk factors, imaging

A

Majority are invasive ductal carcinoma (85-90%) or ductal carcinoma in situ

Risk factors:
Exposure to ionising radiation
Cryptorchidism
Testicular injury/infectious orchitis
Increased levels of oestradiol
Klinefelter syndrome
Hepatic cirrhosis
BRCA2 gene mutation
Family history
Prostate cancer
Chest trauma

Imaging:
Subareolar mass, often round/oval/lobulated,
Calcifications tend to be fewer in number and coarser than in female breast cancer

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61
Q

ANGIOSARCOMA is

A

A rare vascular breast malignancy

Tend to occur in younger women, in their 3rd-4th decades

Secondary angiosarcoma, related to prior therapy of breast cancer occurs in older women (peak 6th decade)

The classical presentation is painless localised blue or purple colour change of the breast skin, with singular or multifocal lesions which may resemble other benign vascular lesions such as angioma or telangiectasis

Patients may present with swelling, a sensation of fullness, or rapid breast growth

Extremely aggressive with a poor prognosis

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62
Q

ANGIOSARCOMA path and imaging

A

Pathology:
Primary
Secondary
- Radiation induced
- Lymphoedema-associated cutaneous angiosarcoma

Location
- Primary: within the breast parenchyma, with secondary involvement of the skin
- Secondary: mainly involves the skin, with or without involvement of the underlying breast parenchyma

Associations:
- Prior radiation induced breast angiosarcoma tends to occur after a significant latent period post-radiation ~5yrs
- Stewart-Treves syndrome

Imaging
Can be occult
MRI

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63
Q

BREAST LYMPHOMA is

A

Involvement of the breast with lymphoma, may be primary or secondary

Both primary and secondary are rare
Secondary is the most common type
Typically 60-70yo

Presents as a palpable mass or diffuse thickening of the breast

Axillary lymph nodes are enlarged in a substantial minority

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64
Q

BREAST LYMPHOMA path

A

Primary
- Typically a B-cell type non-Hodgkin lymphoma, usually diffuse large B cell lymphoma

It must:
- Disease should be in the breast or in close proximity to breast tissue
- No previous history of extramammary lymphoma
- No evidence of widespread disease, except ipsilateral axillary LN may be involved

Secondary
- More frequently NHL than HL

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65
Q

PAPILLARY CARCINOMA breast IS AND IMAGING

A

Papillary carcinoma of the breast is a rare ductal breast malignancy

Typically present in postmenopausal patients, 63-67yo

May manifest clinically as a palpable mass or nipple discharge

Approximately 50% arise in the retro-areolar/subareolar region of the breast

Better prognosis than commoner types of malignancy

Imaging
- The most common mammographic pattern is a round, oval or lobulated mass
- The margins are usually circumscribed, but may be obscured or indistinct
- Accompanying microcalcifications or a dilated ductal pattern may be present

US
- Hypoechoic and solid mass, often with posterior acoustic enhancement
- Complex cystic and solid masses may be evident
- Relatively vascular, often colour flow components

Galactography - may be helpful for patients with nipple discharge
May demonstrate ductal obstruction, filling defects or focal/diffuse ductal wall irregularity

MRI
Usually round or oval mass with well-defined margins

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66
Q

PAPILLARY CARCINOMA breast PATH

A

May be solitary or multiple

Several subtypes:
- Papillary ductal carcinoma in situ - features of intraductal carcinoma
- Intracystic papillary carcinoma - if a cystic component is present
- Solid papillary carcinoma - if no cystic component is detected

Typically well-circumscribed, often contain haemorrhagic and cystic areas

Characterised by a frond-like growth pattern on a fibrovascular core lacking a myoepithelial layer

Four potential cellular patterns:
- Cribriform
- Compact columnar epithelial
- Stratified spindle cell
- Transitional form - similar to urothelial tumours

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67
Q

PAPILLOMA is

A

The most common mass within the milk ducts of the breast

Benign, but may contain atypia or carcinoma

Epidemiology:
Exclusively women
Classically 40-50yo

Often asymptomatic or with nipple discharge
Discharge is more common in central vs peripheral papillomas
Bloody discharge may have a higher association with atypical or malignant lesions

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68
Q

PAPILLOMA path

A

Proliferative tumours originating from the walls of the milk ducts, typically growing within the ducts and tending to cause local ductal obstruction

Composed of monotonous epithelial/myoepithelial cells encompassing a papillary fibrovascular core

Characteristically grow to form smooth well-circumscribed nodules

Typically small <10mm

Most commonly ~3.5cm from the nipple, but can be anywhere from anterior to posterior depth

The central question is whether there is any evidence of cellular atypia
- Any > surgical excision

Can occur adjacent to other significant lesions e.g. atypical ductal hyperplasia or DCIS

May be solitary or multiple
Multiple = more than 5, papillomatosis
Increased malignancy

Subtypes
Sclerosing papilloma of the breast

Location:
Central - within a major subareolar duct, often solitary
Peripheral - with the terminal duct lobular unit, may be multiple

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69
Q

PAPILLOMA imaging

A

Mammogram
Frequently normal
Solitary or multiple dilated ducts, and a circumscribed benign-appearing mass, or a cluster of calcifications

Galactography
Filling defects, may outline the number, location, extent and distance from the nipple

US
A well defined solid nodule or intraductal mass which may either fill a duct or be partially outlined by fluid - either within a duct or by forming a cyst

Colour doppler will demonstrate a vascular stalk

MRI
T2 bright
Round ~75%, irregular ~25%
Spiculated margin suggests malignancy
90% are solid

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70
Q

HEREDITARY BREAST AND OVARIAN CANCER SYNDROME

A

Caused by a mutation to either BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes

These are tumour suppressor genes that encode proteins involved in DNA repair
- Located on chromosome 17 and 13 respectively

The risk of specific cancer types varies depending on the mutation

BRCA1
Breast cancer
Male breast cancer
Ovarian
Prostate
Pancreatic
Colorectal - 5x increase if <50yo
Primary fallopian tube cancer

BRCA2
Breast cancer
Male breast cancer
Ovarian cancer
Prostate cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Colorectal cancer

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71
Q

PHYLLOIDES is and imaging

A

A rare fibroepithelial tumour of the breast, which has some resemblance to a fibroadenoma

Typically a large, fast growing mass that forms from the periductal stroma of the breast

Predominantly a tumour of adults women, age 40-60yo
- About 15yrs older than the typical age of a patient with a fibroadenom

A locally invasive tumour . Treatment is usually with surgical excision

Imaging
Can be quite large at presentation

Typically a non-specific large rounded oval or lobulated, generally well circumscribed

Calcification may be seen in a very small proportion

US
- Non-specific
- Inhomogenous solid appearing mass
- Contain single or multiple, round or cleft-like cystic spaces and demonstrate posterior acoustic enhancement which is strongly suggestive of a phyllodes
- Vascularisation is usually present in the solid component

Indistinguishable from fibroadenomas on mammo and US

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72
Q

PHYLLOIDES path

A

Leaf-like pattern of growth

May be benign, borderline or malignant depending on the histologic features including stromal cellularity, infiltration at the tumour edge and mitotic activity

Can resemble a giant fibroadenoma with both epithelial and stromal components

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73
Q

INFLAMMATORY BREAST CANCER is

A

A relatively uncommon but aggressive form of invasive breast carcinoma with a characteristic clinical presentation and unique radiographic appearances.

Inflammatory carcinomas account for 1-4% of all breast cancers, typically occurring in women between the 4th to 5th decades.

Mimics mastitis: enlarged breast, indurated, erythematous, warm and may be tender and painful

The skin is thickened and oedematous, classically with a “peau d’orange” appearance.

Systemic symptoms of infection are absent

While any subtype of primary breast carcinoma may be present, invasive ductal carcinoma tends to be the most prevalent histological type.

Dermal lymphatic invasion is pathognomonic of inflammatory breast cancer, but doesn’t necessarily need to be demonstrated to make the diagnosis

The presence of tumorous cells in dilated lymphatics may be present in ~80% of cases

Inflammatory breast cancer is a T4 tumour according to the standard TNM staging classification of breast cancer.

If no results with biopsy, a skin biopsy may be indicated

Tends to metastasise early

Chemotherapy before surgery or radiation therapy is the current standard treatment

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74
Q

INFLAMMATORY BREAST CANCER imaging

A

Mammographic findings include tumour mass and malignant microcalcifications.

More specifically, inflammatory changes such as extensive skin and trabecular thickening/coarsening, and/or diffusely increased breast density are important clues that should lead the radiologist to suggest the diagnosis.

US

Hypoechoic shadowing mass which can be obscured on mammo by diffusely increased breast density

Skin thickening, pectoral muscle invasion and axillary involvement

ddx
- Infective mastitis: painful breast with prominent erythematous changes and fevers
- Locally advanced invasive breast carcinoma
- Lymphomatous involvement of the breast
- Other causes of breast oedema
- Venous or lymphatic obstruction

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75
Q

TAKAYASU ARTERITIS general

A

“idiopathic medial aortopathy” or “pulseless disease”

A granulomatous large vessel vasculitis that predominantly affects the aorta and its major branches

May also affect the pulmonary arteries

Strong female predominant 9:1 and tends to affect the younger patient

Typical onset 15-30yo

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76
Q

TAKAYASU ARTERITIS path

A

Segmental and patchy granulomatous inflammation of the aorta which results in stenosis, thrombosis and aneurysm formation

Half present with an initial systemic illness, the other 50% with late-phase complications

Two phases of the disease:
Pre-pulseless phase – characterised by non-specific symptoms

Pulseless phase – presents with limb ischaemia or renovascular hypertension

Chronically, there is inflammatory and obliterative changes in the aorta and its branches

Cardiac complications can occur in up to 60% of cases

Pulmonary artery involvement can occur in some situations

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77
Q

TAKAYASU ARTERITIS classification

A

Type 1 – solely the aortic arch branches

Type 2
A – ascending portion and/or at the aortic arch +/- branches of the aortic arch
B – descending thoracic aorta +/- ascending or aortic arch + branches

Type 3 – thoracic and abdominal aorta distal to the arch and its major branches

Type 4 – sole involvement of the abdominal aorta and/or renal arteries

Type 5 – generalised involvement of all aortic segments

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78
Q

POLYARTERITIS NODOSA general

A

A systemic inflammatory necrotising vasculitis that involves the small to medium-sized arteries

More common in males, typically presents ~5th- 7th decade

Associations: Hepatitis B and C

Presents with systemic or focal symptoms

Renal arteries are the most commonly involved, with pulmonary circulation typically spared

Renal 80-90% - prominent site and major cause of death
Cardiac ~70%
GIT 50-70%
Hepatic 50-60%

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79
Q

POLYARTERITIS NODOSA path

A

Transmural and necrotising inflammation of medium-sized arteries – mostly involving part of the circumference which causes weakening of the wall leading to microaneurysm formation and subsequent focal rupture

Predilection for branch points

Fibrinoid necrosis of vessels promotes thrombosis of vessels followed by infarction of the tissue supplied

Fibrous thickening and mononuclear infiltration occur at a later stage

Different stages of inflammation can occur in the same vessel at different points.

PANCA – may correlate with disease activity

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80
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS general

A

A common granulomatous vasculitis, affecting medium to large-sized arteries.

Also known as temporal arteritis due to its propensity to involve the extracranial ECA branches –esp superficial temporal artery

The most common primary systemic vasculitis, typically in older individuals >50, with a peak ~70-80

Female predilection

Associations: polymyalgia rheumatica – seen in ~50%

Markers:
Serum erythrocyte sedimentation rate – markedly raised

Serum C-reactive protein (CRP) - often markedly raised

Complications:
Thoracic aortic aneurysm – commonly ascending aorta

Aortic dissection – more commonly the ascending aorta

Vision loss

Location:
Any medium – large sized vessel, affecting the aorta ~20% of cases and its major branches, particularly the extracranial branches of the carotid artery

Treatment: corticosteroid therapy and aspirin

Differentials:
Takayasu arteritis – young patients, and more proximal vessels

Atherosclerotic disease

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81
Q

GIANT CELL ARTERITIS path

A

Similar to others

Granulomatous inflammation of arteries with infiltration predominantly by histiocytes, lymphocytes and multinucleated giant cells

Characteristic multinucleated giant cells are only found in ~50% of cases

Areas of normal superficial temporal artery interspersed within inflamed sections – skip lesions in 8-28%

4 main histological patterns:

Adventitial pattern – inflammatory cells restricted to the adventitia

Adventitial invasive pattern – local invasion of the media with preservation of the intima

Concentric bilayer pattern – inflammatory infiltration of adventitia and intima with preservation of the media

Panarteritic pattern – inflammatory infiltrates in the three arterial layers

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82
Q

FIBROMUSCULAR DYSPLASIA general

A

A heterogenous group of vascular lesions is characterised by an idiopathic, non-inflammatory, non-atherosclerotic angiopathy of small and medium-sized arteries

Prevalence is unknown, typically young women 3:1

Diagnosed age 30-50yo

Presentation:
Hypertension, renal impairment – renal artery stenosis

CNS symptoms

Angina/MI/sudden death due to coronary artery

Symptoms of mesenteric ischaemia

Exact cause is unknown
Any layer of vessel wall can be affected – intima, media or adventitia
There is an absence of inflammatory cells

5 categories, according to vessel wall layer involvement:
Intima 5% Intimal fibroplasia

Media 90-95%

Medial dysplasia ~70%, most common

Perimedial (subadventitial) fibroplasia 15-20%

Medial hyperplasia 8-10%

Adventitia – rare, Adventitial fibroplasia 1%

The outcome is arterial stenoses

Typically a string of beads appearance

Weakens the vessel and predisposes to dissection

Location:
Renal arteries
Cervicoencephalic arteries
Iliac arteries
Coeliac trunk and mesenteric arteries
Subclavian and axillary arteries

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83
Q

GRANULOMATOSIS WITH POLYANGIITIS general

A

a multisystem necrotising non-caseating granulomatous c-ANCA positive vasculitis affecting small – medium sized arteries, capillaries and veins

Predilection for the respiratory system and kidneys

Slight male predilection, and onset approximately 50yo

Diagnostic criteria: at least two of the following
- Positive biopsy for granulomatous vasculitis
- Urinary sediment with red blood cells
- Abnormal chest radiograph
- Oral or nasal inflammation

An immune-mediated vascular injury

In 90% of cases, cANCA is positive and levels correlate with disease activity.

The classic triad of organ involvement:
- Lung – 95%
- upper respiratory tract/sinuses - 75- -90%
Kidneys – 80%

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84
Q

EOSINOPHILIC GRANULOMATOSIS WITH POLYANGIITIS | CHURG-STRAUSS SYNDROME general

A

Small to medium vessel necrotising pulmonary vasculitis

Also classified under the spectrum of eosinophilic lung disease

Incidence typically ~3rd - 4th

Almost all patients have asthma and eosinophilia.

Markers: p-ANCA ~75%

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85
Q

EOSINOPHILIC GRANULOMATOSIS WITH POLYANGIITIS | CHURG-STRAUSS SYNDROME dx criteria

A

Requires a positive biopsy for vasculitis, and at least 4/6 criteria:

Asthma

Blood eosinophilia

Mono/polyneuropathy

Transient pulmonary infiltrates

Paranasal sinus abnormalities - pain or radiographic abnormality

Presence of extravascular eosinophils on a biopsy specimen

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86
Q

EOSINOPHILIC GRANULOMATOSIS WITH POLYANGIITIS | CHURG-STRAUSS SYNDROME pathology

A

Can be histologically identical to classic polyarteritis nodosa or microscopic polyangiitis

Around 25% will have renal disease

Biopsy of parenchymal opacities may show a mixture of necrotising granulomas, eosinophilic pneumonia and granulomatous vasculitis

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87
Q

BEHCETS general

A

A multisystemic and chronic inflammatory vasculitis of unknown aetiology

Mean age 20-30yo

Most prevalent in the Mediterranean region, middle east and east Asia

The highest incidence is in turkey

Men 2-5x: 1 female

The underlying process is vasculitis and perivascular inflammatory infiltrates affecting vessels of differing sizes in various organs

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88
Q

BEHCETS assoc and clinical

A

Associations:
- HLA-B51
- Factor V Leiden mutation
- Superficial thrombophlebitis

The classic clinical triad:
- Oral ulceration
- Genital ulceration
- Ocular manifestation

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89
Q

BEHCETS distribution

A

Cardiovascular manifestations 5-30% of cases
- Thickening of the aorta and SVC
- Inflammation of the veins leads to thrombosis, while arterial involvement includes arterial narrowing and aneurysmal dilatation

Thoracic manifestations 1-8%
- Pulmonary artery aneurysm: fusiform to saccular
- Subpleural infiltrates

GI manifestations 10-50%

CNS 10-50%

MSK > 50% develop articular disorders or arthralgia

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90
Q

VARICOSE VEINS general

A

Dilated tortuous superficially located venous channels that accompany the superficial veins of the upper or lower limbs

More common in women than men, and usually lower limb

Risk factors:
- Pregnancy
- Older age
- Female
- Prolonged standing

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91
Q

VARICOSE VEINS pathology

A

Incompetent saphenofemoral junction resulting from saphenofemoral valve insufficiency

Results in regurgitation of blood during expiration and consequently raises the venous pressure in the great saphenous and other superficial veins

Incompetent perforators are another causative factor when destruction of the valves inside the perforators allow the blood to move from the deep to superficial system and consequently increases the superficial venous pressure

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92
Q

MARFAN SYNDROME general

A

A multisystem connective tissue disease caused by a defect in the protein fibrillin 1 - encoded by the FBN1 gene

No recognised gender or racial predilection

Clinically:

General
Tall stature, long arm span, joint laxity

Spine
High arched palate, scaphocephaly, kyphoscoliosis

Hands
Arachnodactyly

Pelvis
Pes planus, hallux valgus, club foot

Chest wall deformity
Pectus excavatum, pectus carinatum

Ocular
Ectopia lentis, myopia

Cardiovascular
Aortic regurgitation or mitral regurgitation, dolichoectasia

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93
Q

MARFAN SYNDROME pathology

A

A multisystem connective tissue disease caused by a defect in the protein fibrillin 1 - encoded by the FBN1 gene

Majority are autosomal dominant, with high genetic penetrance and variable expression

Microscopic: the arterial walls may show cystic medial necrosis

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94
Q

FIBRINOID NECROSIS

A

Also known as lipohyalinosis

A disease affecting the small cerebral arteries associated with lacunar infarction and deep white matter changes related to small vessel chronic ischaemia

Histopathological landmarks:

Irregular fibrosis and hyaline of small cerebral arteries associated with leakage of plasma proteins

Often caused by chronic hypertension

Fibrinoid necrosis and/or endothelial dysfunction causing local inflammation leading to vascular narrowing

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95
Q

AORTIC DISSECTION pathology

A

When blood enters the medial layer of the aortic wall through a tear or penetrating ulcer in the intima and tracks longitudinally along the media

Majority occur in elderly hypertensive patients

Pathology:
The normal lumen lined by intima (true lumen) and blood channel in the media (false lumen)

Causes:
Hypertension - medial degeneration

Inherited connective tissue disorders - medial degeneration

Atheroscerlosis - penetrating ulcer

Vasculitis - inflammation

Pregnancy - unknown

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96
Q

HYPERALDOSTERONISM is and path

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism: excess aldosterone production

Occurs secondary to:
- Adrenal cortical adenoma ~35%
- Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia ~60%, or
- Adrenal carcinoma - rare

Conn syndrome: when primary hyperaldosteronism is due to an aldosterone-producing adenoma

Presentation:
- Diastolic hypertension
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Hypokalaemia
- Others: muscular weakness, paraesthesias, headache, polyuria and polydipsia

Pathology:
Differentiated from secondary hyperaldosteronism by measuring serum renin
- Primary - low renin levels
- Secondary - high renin levels

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97
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA assoc

A

Associations: majority are sporadic. 5-10% have an underlying condition

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type II - both MEN IIa and IIb
- Account for 3%, almost never extra-adrenal, always bilateral

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

Neurofibromatosis type I

Sturge-weber syndrome

Carney triad

Tuberous sclerosis

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98
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA path

A

A type of paraganglioma

Catecholamine-secreting tumours derived from chromaffin cells

Typically demonstrate a nesting (Zellballen) pattern on microscopy

Composed of well-defined clusters of tumours cells containing eosinophilic cytoplasm separated by a fibrovascular stroma

Various scores are used (PASS/GAPP) to predict differentiation and likelihood of metastases

Location: most frequently arise from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
- 10% are not located in the adrenal glands
- Extra-adrenal tumours are more likely to be malignant and metastasise
- Can be found along the sympathetic chain, as well as in the urinary bladder and Organ of Zuckerkandl

A rare but classical cause of uncontrolled secondary hypertension

Investigate with collection of urinary catecholamines

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99
Q

CUSHING SYNDROME is

A

Due to the effects of excessive glucocorticoids, which may be exogenous or endogenous

Cushing disease: glucocorticoid excess solely due to an adrenocorticotropic hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma

Cushing syndrome: encompasses all aetiologies of glucocorticoid excess

Presentation:
Round ‘moon-shaped’ face
Progressive centripetal obesity and weight gain
Prominent supraclavicular and dorsocervical fat pads “buffalo hump”
Purple skin striae
Easy skin bruising
Acanthosis nigricans
Proximal myopathy
Depression and other mood disorders
Osteoporosis
Hypertension
Hyperglycaemia and development of overt diabetes mellitus
Immunosuppression and recurrent infections

Signs of androgen excess: hirsutism/acne/changes in libido etc in females, but no so in men since the adrenal glands aren’t a major source of androgens

Investigation requires measurement of both cortisol and ACTH over a 24hr period - cortisol release is intermittent

Complications: bilateral adrenalectomy in a patient with Cushing disease can lead to development of Nelson syndrome

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100
Q

CUSHING SYNDROME path

A

Due to the effects of excessive glucocorticoids, which may be exogenous or endogenous

Source
- Adrenal adenoma 20%
- ACTH-secreting tumour 80%
- Pituitary adenoma 85%
- Ectopic production 15%
- Lung cancer - small cell lung cancer, broncial carcinoid
- Small cell cancers of the thymus
- Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour
- Phaeochromocytoma
- Benign ovarian tumours
- Primary pigmented nodular adrenal dysplasia (PPNAD) - rare
- Adrenocorticotropin-independent macronodular adrenocortical hyperplasia (AIMAH) - rare
- Corticotropin-releasing hormore-secreting tumour - very rare
- Hypothalamic tumours
- Ectopic production

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101
Q

ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY is and path

A

Inadequate secretion of corticosteroids (glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids)

Two types:
- Primary adrenal insufficiency - Addisons disease. From partial or complete destruction of the adrenal cortex
- Secondary adrenal insufficiency - due to lack of stimulation of the gland

Presentation:
- Acute - fever, backpain, hypotension, weakness
- Chronic - progressive lethargy, weakness, cutaneous pigmentation, weightloss

Biochemistry:
Low sodium, potassium, azotemia, hypercalcaemia, hypoglycaemia

Pathology:
Primary
Idiopathic autoimmune disorders - 80%
- Most common in developed countries
Granulomatous disease: TB and sarcoid

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102
Q

RENAL PAPILLARY NECROSIS is path and causes

A

Ischaemic necrosis of the renal papillae

Necrosis occurs in the medullary pyramids

Can present acutely or chronically

Calyceal or ureteral obstruction by sloughed papillae manifests with flank pain, haematuria and varying degrees of renal impairment

Anuria or oliguria may be present in the fulminant stage if renal failure develops

Pathology:
Characterised by necrosis and sloughing of papillary tissues which may result in a substantial loss of renal function

Causes:
NSAID
NSAID
Sickle cell disease
Acetaminophen (paracetamol) and phenacetin
Infection e.g. pyelonephritis, tuberculosis
Diabetes mellitus or dehydration

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103
Q

RENAL CORTICAL NECROSIS is and path

A

Occurs as a result of severe systemic illness in a variety of settings, and can result in permanent renal impairment

Pathology:

Aetiology:
Severe haemodynamic shock
Microangiopathic haemolysis
- Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Renal transplantation

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104
Q

ARPKD is

A

Enlarged echogenic kidneys with multiple small cysts

One of the commonest inheritable infantile cystic renal diseases

No gender or racial predilection

Age of presentation is variable and divided into perinatal, neonatal, infantile and juvenile forms

Inverse relationship with the liver:
The worse the kidneys, the better the liver
The younger the presentation, the more the renal disease predominates

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105
Q

ARPKD path

A

Results from a mutation in the PKHD1 (polycystic kidney and hepatic disease) gene located on chromosome 6p

Results in bilateral symmetric microcystic disease occurring in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts

The number of ducts involved determines the age of presentation

Perinatal type - most common
Oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia
75% die within 24hrs of delivery
Minimal hepatic fibrosis

Neonatal type - minimal hepatic fibrosis

Infantile type - moderate periportal fibrosis

Juvenile type - gross hepatic fibrosis
Portal hypertension with splenomegaly and portosystemic varices

Associations:
Caroli disease
Multiple biliary hamartomas
Congenital hepatic fibrosis

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106
Q

ADPKD is

A

The most common hereditary cause of ESRF

A number of conditions are recognised as being associated with ADPKD:
Cerebral berry aneurysms
- 6-16% - 16% if a family history of aneurysms, 6% if no family history
Intracranial dolichoectasia 2-3%
Hypertension - up to 80%
Colonic diverticulosis
Small bowel diverticula
Bicuspid aortic valve
Mitral valve prolapse
Aortic dissection
Multiple biliary hamartomas
Cysts in other organs
- Liver - most common, 75% by age 60
- Ovaries
- Spleen
- Seminal vesicles - 60% by age 40
- Prostate
- Pancreas - more common in VHL

Complications

Renal:
ESRF
Recurrent UTIs
Cyst haemorrhage
Cyst rupture
No increased risk of RCC, unless related to dialysis

Distant complications:
SAH
Aortic dissection

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107
Q

ADPKD path

A

Macroscopically demonstrated cysts of variable size in both the cortex and medulla

Autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance

Three genes with slightly different phenotypes:

PKD1
Chromosome 16p
85% of cases
Encodes polycystin-1
Presentation is earlier and more likely to progress to end stage renal failure

PKD2
Chromosome 4q
15% of cases
Encodes polycystin-2
Less severe

GANAB - rare
Chromosome 11q13
Liver cysts are common +/- hepatic dysfunction
Mild renal disease, ESRF unusual

The main abnormality is in the cilia-centromere complex of tubular epithelial cells

The defect results in cystic dilatation of the renal tubules (of all parts of the nephron) in a minority of nephrons

The cysts are variable in size, and result in compression of the remainder of the kidney, resulting in increased renin and erythropoietin secretion and gradual renal dysfunction

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108
Q

ALLAGILIE SYNDROME is

A

Arteriohepatic dysplasia

A congenital genetic multisystem disorder

Infants typically present with symptoms relating to the liver - one of the most common causes of hereditary cholestasis

Genetics:
Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, with a mutation of the JAG1 (90%) and NOTCH2 genes (1-2%), located on the short arm of chromosome 20

There is a diverse spectrum of disease:

Hepatic
Paucity +/- stenosis of the intrahepatic ducts that can lead to cirrhosis and hepatic failure

Renal
Variable, including cystic kidney disease, small kidneys, echogenic kidneys and nephrocalcinosis

Ocular
Posterior embyotoxon

Otic
Hypoplasia of the posterior semicircular canal

Skeletal
Butterfly type vertebrae (~50%)

Facial
Triangular facial

Cardiovascular
Coarctation of the aorta
Peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis

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109
Q

MCDK is and assoc

A

A type of non-heritable paediatric cystic renal disease

Results in multiple cysts being formed in utero in the affected kidney

Typically unilateral, with a predisposition for the left kidney.

Bilateral has a higher incidence in females

Can be a common cause of agenesis, following complete involution during childhood

Associations:
Vesicoureteric reflux - most common, seen in up to 20%
Pelviureteric junction obstruction
Ureteral ectopia
Vesicoureteric junction obstruction
Ureterocele

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110
Q

MCDK path

A

No functioning renal tissue, but replacement with multiple cysts

Two types have been described:

Pelvi-infundibular
Most common
Multiple small non-communicating renal cysts - representing the dilated calyces
Atresia of the ureter and renal pelvis
May sometimes regress spontaneously

Hydronephrotic-obstruction
Dominant cyst present in the renal pelvis

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111
Q

MEDULLARY SPONGE KIDNEY is

A

A sporadic condition where the medullary and papillary portions of the collecting ducts are dysplastic and dilated

Most patients are asymptomatic during life, incidentally diagnosed

Alternatively, patients may present with a complications, including:
- Urinary tract infection
- Haematuria
- Urolithiasis/ureteric calculi

Represents a developmental defect affecting the formation of collecting tubules and resulting in cystic dilatation of medullary and papillary portions of the collecting ducts

Associations:
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
- Congenital hemihypertrophy/ Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
- Caroli disease

Medullary nephrocalcinosis occurs in the majority of cases
- May be unilateral or bilateral and affect a single or multiple pyramids

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112
Q

TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS IS/PATH

A

Phakomatosis characterized by the development of multiple benign tumours of the embryonic ectoderm

Most are sporadic

The pathognomonic triad – only seen in 30%
Seizures: absent in ¼ of individuals
Intellectual disability: up to half have normal intelligence
Adenoma sebaceum: only present in ~¾ of patients

Pathology:
Spontaneous mutations account for 50-66%, the rest are inherited as an autosomal dominant condition

Two tumour suppressor genes are involved:

TSC1 – encoding hamartin, on chromosome 9q32-34

TSC2 – encoding tuberin, on chromosome 16p13.3

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113
Q

TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS manifestations

A

Neurology:
Cortical/subcortical tubers: 50% in the frontal lobe
- High T2, low T1 – 10% enhance, frequently calcify

Subependymal hamartomas – 88% associated with calcification
- Variable signal, high T1, iso-high T2
- Variable enhancement
- Only serial growth is reliable to differentiate from SEGA

Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
- Peak occurrence 8-18yo

White matter abnormalities
-Radial bands – specific for TS
- Variable appearance – nodular, ill-defined, cystic and band-like lesions seen

Retinal phakomas

Rarer findings:
Cerebellar atrophy
Infarcts
Arachnoid cysts
Chordoma

Abdominal
Renal angiomyolipomas
- TS accounts for 20%
- Seen in 55-75% of patients with TS
- Tend to be multiple, large and bilateral
- Fat may not be visible in up to 4.5%

Renal cysts: TSC2 gene is located adjacent to the PCKD1 gene
- 18-53% of patients with TS

Renal cell carcinoma and oncocytomas
- RCC tends to occur earlier

Retroperitoneal lymphangiomyomatosis
- Histologically identical to pulmonary LAM
- Retroperitoneal cystic lesions
- Chylous ascites, enlarged lymph nodes, dilatation of the thoracic duct

GI polyps

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours

Hepatic angiomyolipomas

Thoracic
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
- Rare
- 25-40% of female pts with TS
- Indistinguishable from sporadic LAM
- Pneumothorax and chylous pleural effusions are common
- ~80% 10yr survival

Multifocal micronodular pneumocyte hyperplasia (MMPH)
- Rare
- Multicentric, well-demarcated nodular proliferation of type II pneumocytes
- Benign, non-progressive
- Differentials: miliary opacities

Cardiac rhabdomyomas
- Benign striated muscle tumour characterised by the presence of spider cells
- Seen in 50-65% of pts with TS
- 40-80% of patients with cardiac rhabdomyomas have TS
- Multiple or single
- Typically involve the ventricular septum
- Occur before the age of 1yo (75%)
- Spontaneous regression in 70% of children by age 4

Thoracic duct and aortic/pulmonary artery aneurysm

Myocardial fatty foci

MSK
Sclerotic bone lesions 46-66%

Hyperostosis of the inner table of the calvaria

Periosteal new bone

Scoliosis

Bone cyst

Skin
Cutaneous lesions in ~95% of cases
Facial angiofibromas
Hypopigmented macules – ash leaf spots
Fibrous plaques on forehead
Confetti lesions

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114
Q

VON HIPPEL LINDAU is

A

Numerous benign and malignant tumours in different organs, due to mutations in the VHL tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 3

Most are diagnosed with their first tumour in early adulthood

Classi
Can be according to the clinical phenotypes

Type 1 – low risk pheo, but higher risk CNS haemangioblastoma, RCC, pancreatic cyst and pNET

Type 2A – high risk pheo, low risk RCC

Type 2B – high risk pheo and RCC

Type 2C – high risk pheo only

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115
Q

VON HIPPEL LINDAU manifestations

A

Abdominal:

Renal cell carcinomas
- Usually clear cell and bilateral
- 70% lifetime risk
- Present earlier in pts with VHL

Renal cysts
- Often bilateral and multiple
- Can be simple, complex or cystic RCC

Renal angiomyolipomas

Adrenal:
Phaeochromocytomas 25-30%

Extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma/paraganglioma

Pancreas – may be the earliest manifestation
- Pancreatic cysts ~40%
- Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours
- ~12.5% of patients
- Usually non-functional
- Frequently multiple
- Pancreatic serous cystadenomas: ~12.5% of patients
- Pancreatic adenocarcinomas

Liver
Liver cysts

Urogenital
- Epididymal cysts
- Papillary cystadenoma of the epididymis
- Broad ligament cystadenomas

CNS
Haemangioblastomas ~70%
- Cerebellar ~60%
- Spinal cord ~30% - most commonly in the cervical and thoracic cord
- brainstem

Choroid plexus papilloma

Head and neck
Retinal haemangioblastoma
- Most common presenting feature
- Vision loss

Endolymphatic sac tumours
- Bilateral in 30%, pathognomonic for vHL

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116
Q

ANGIOMYELOLIPOMA is./path/assox

A

Sporadic, or as part of a phakomatosis 80:20% respectively

Also associated with:
TS – predominantely
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Neurofibromatosis type 1
These usually larger, earlier and more numerous
More likely to be fat-poor

Often incidentally found

Symptomatic presentaiton is with spontaneous retroperitoneal haemorrhage

Pathology:
- Perivascular epithelioid cells tumour group (PEComas) and are composed of variable amount of three components:
- blood vessels lacking elastic tissue,
- Plump spindle cells, and
- Adipose tissue

Variants:
- Typical – triphasic
- Atypical – monophasic or epithelioid
- Epithelioid AML often with nuclear atypia – may mimic RCC

Larger AMLs resect of embolise.

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117
Q

ONCOCYTOMA is and path

A

Relatively benign renal tumours

6th-7th decade presentation, with a 2:1 male predilection

Pathology:
Macroscopic:
= Macroscopically tan in colour, similar to renal cortex, or dark brown
= A rim of compressed normal renal parenchyma is sometimes seen, forming a pseudocapsule

Microscopic
= Thought to originate from the intercalated tubular cells of the collecting tubules
= Composed of large, swollen eosinophilic cells of protuberant mitochondrial components
= Necrosis is usually absent

Associations:
Birt-Hogg-Dube
Tuberous sclerosis

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118
Q

CLEAR CELL RCC is and path

A

The most common type of RCC

Usually ~60yo, but younger onset with von-Hippel Lindau.

Pathology:
- 75-80% of RCC cases.
- Sporadic in >95%, but 5% are familial - VHL
- Loss of sequences on the short arm of chromosome 3, usually by deletion or unbalanced translocation resulting in loss of 3p12-3p26
- The region containing the sequence for the VHL gene (a tumour suppressor gene)
- The gene increases expression of proteins of the ubiquitin ligase complex
- Ubiquitin ligase complex normally identifies and tags proteins for destruction
- Ubiquitin mediated degradation of hypoxia inducible factor 1 (HIF-1) - A proangiogenic factor normally expressed in hypoxic environments
- So, the loss of the VHL allele results in increased levels of HIF-1 and resulting increase in pro-angiogenic factors such as VEGF, PDGF, TGF-alpha, TGF-beta, leading to cellular dysplasia and ultimately neoplasia

Macroscopic: yellowish, golden appearance due to high lipid content

Microscopic: characterised by -
- Large cells with uniform appearance
- Abundant clear cytoplasm rich in glycogen and lipid
- High vascularity

Compared to other forms of RCC, it is said to have:
- An exophytic appearance
- A greater degree of enhancement on the corticomedullary and nephrographic phases on multiphasic CT (compared to papillary cell carcinoma)
- A more heterogenous appearance (due to multiple areas of internal necrosis, cystic change or haemorrhage

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119
Q

PAPILLARY RCC is and path

A

The second most common histological subtype of RCC

May account for 13-20% of all RCC - slightly increased male predilection

Associations:
- Hereditary leiomyomatosis and RCC
- Hereditary papillary renal cell cancer type 1

Two subtypes:
Type 1
- Papillae covered by a single layer of cuboidal or low columnar cells with scanty cytoplasm and low grade nuclei
- Carry a better prognosis than type II tumours

Type 2
- higher nuclear grade and contain more than one layer of cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm
- Mostly unilateral, the subtype is considered most common to result in bilateral RCCs

Less vascular than the more common clear cell subtype, showing overall hypoenhancement compared to the adjacent normal renal cortex - particularly in the corticomedullary phase

Can be difficult to differentiate from hyper-attenuating cysts

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120
Q

CHROMOPHOBE RCC is

A

One of the less common subtypes of renal cell carcinoma

The least common major subtype of RCC, occurring 5% of the time

Arises from intercalated cells of collecting ducts - called chromophobe because the tumour cells are less translucent than clear cell renal cell carcinomas during staining

Similar origin to oncocytomas.

“spoke wheel pattern of enhancement”

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121
Q

MEDULLARY RCC

A

Rare and highly aggressive variant

Centered in the renal medulla

Occurs almost exclusively in adolescent and young adult blacks with sickle cell trait or haemoglobin SC disease
- But not with homozygous haemoglobin SS sickle cell disease

Typically affects patients around the age of 20yo, range of 10-39yo

Pathology:
- Epithelial origin
- Thought to arise at the renal pelvic-mucosal interface
- The tumour quickly grows to fill the renal pelvis, and invade vascular and lymphatic structures

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122
Q

BLADDER ADENOCARCINOMA (?bladeno?) is and path

A

Rare, accounts for ~1% of bladder cancers. 90% are TCC

Metaplasia of the urinary bladder induced by chronic irritation or infection can lead to adenocarcinoma

Pathological types of adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder:
- Mucinous adenocarcinoma
- Signet-ring types
- Papillary adenocarcinoma
- Not otherwise specified (NOS)

Can be subclassified as primary (2/3 are non-urachal, 1/3 is urachal) or secondary (metastases)

Aetiology:
- Persistent urachal remnant is most common
- Cystitis glandularis (secondary to bladder outlet obstruction, chronic infection and/or bladder calculi
- Schistosomiasis,
- Associated with bladder exstophy

Appearance:
- Non-urachal: diffuse bladder wall thickening
- Urachal: midline, infraumbilical soft tissue mass with peripheral calcification

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123
Q

BLADDER SCHISTOSOMIASIS (schistosomiapiss?) is and path

A

An infection caused by the Schistosoma flukeworm

Predisposes individuals to bladder SCC

Very common, particularly in Africa

Pathology:
- 5 species of the blood fluke that cause disease in humans
- Larvae are released from snails into water and penetrate human skin exposed to the infected water
- These travel to the lungs and liver of the human host, where they reside until they mature
- After maturation, the adult worms travels to the pelvic veins.
- Eggs are deposited in the bladder wall vessels and incite a granulomatous response that results in polypoid lesions
- The eggs may go on to incite a chronic inflammatory response and fibrosis, which is an important predisposing factor for SCC

Features:
- Acute - nodular, bladder wall thickening is observed
- Chronic - contracted, fibrotic, thick-walled bladder with calcifications
- Calcifications are typically curvilinear and represent the large numbers of calcified eggs in the bladder wall
- A mass may be secondary to inflammation or complicating carcinoma, typically SCC
- Calcifications can extend to the ureters

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124
Q

BLADDER SCC is

A

Rare, accounts for only 3-8% of all bladder cancers

The most common type of non-TCC bladder cancer

Most commonly seen in the setting of chronic irritation, e.g. from bladder stones

Tend to be solitary and large at the time of detection, with muscular wall invasion reported

Risk factors:
- Antecedent infection with Schistosomiasis
- Chronic irritation e.g. indwelling catheter, bladder calculi
- Chronic infection
- Intravesical BCG

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125
Q

BLADDER TCC is n path

A

The most common primary malignancy of the urinary tract

May be found along its entire length, from renal pelvis to the bladder

Urothelial cell carcinoma can be used to described malignant bladder carcinomas of epithelial origin, since 25-37% of transitional cell carcinomas contain a mixture of histologic tissue types

Typically a tumour of older patients, with the average age being ~65 and typically >60

Strong male predilection

Chemical compounds implicated:
- Smoking
- Azo dye/pigment manufacturing
- Cyclophosphamide - also haemorrhagic cystitis and bladder fibrosis
- Thorotrast
- Phenacetin
- Aristolochic acid - typically results in upper urinary tract tumours
- Heavy caffeine consumption and artificial sweeteners

Additionally, stasis acts to prolong exposure of the urothelium to any carcinogens in the urine - so horseshoe kidney/calculi/ureteral pseudodiverticulosis/ureteritis cystica

Distribution:
- Renal pelvis - uncommon ~2-3%
- Ureter - least common ~1%
- Bladder - most common ~97%

Pathology:
Two main morphological patterns:
Papillary
- Broad base with many frond-like papillary projections
- Tend to be low grade and invasion beyond the mucosa is a late feature

Non-papillary
- Sessile or nodular tumours
- Tend to be high grade with early invasion beyond the mucosa

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126
Q

BLADDER RHABDOMYOSARCOMA is n path

A

Uncommon tumours occuring in pelvic organs

A disease nearly exclusive to the paediatric population

Peak incidence is 3-6yo, with a slight male predominance 2-3:1

Prostatic origin is the most common in males, and the bladder is most frequent in both

Vagina, cervix and uterus ma all be involved in females

The vagina is the most prevalent

Paratesticular tumours are the only GIT rhabdomyosarcomas that tend to occur in older children - typically adolescents

Pathology:
As with other rhabdomyosarcomas, there are 4 major subtypes:
- Embryonal
- Most common
- Botryoid variant of embryonal type
- Most frequent to affect the bladder
- Alveolar
- Undifferentiated

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127
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus:

A

Distal stratified squamous mucosa is replaced by metaplastic specialised (intestinalised columnar epithelium)

30x risk of developing oesophageal adenocarcinoma

The annual risk of developing adenocarcinoma depends on the degree of histological dysplasia

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128
Q

OESOPHAGEAL VARICES are

A

Dilated submucosal veins of the oesophagus

An important portosystemic collateral pathway

Epidemiology:
- Present in ~50% of pts with portal hypertension
- Occur with greater frequency in pts with more severe cirrhosis
- ~40% Child Pugh A patients
- ~85% Child Pugh C patients

Presentation:
- Asymptomatic until a variceal heamorrhage - yearly rate of 5-15%
- Present with upper GI haemorrhage: haematemesis, melaena
- The primary predictor is variceal wall tension: diameter and pressure
- Patients will have stigmata of portal hypertension and cirrhosis

Treatment:
- Primary prevention is the mainstay - pharmacological (beta blockers) or endoscopic variceal ligation

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129
Q

OESOPHAGEAL VARICES path

A

Uphill varices - the most common form
- Typically from portal hypertension, as a collateral between the portal vein and SVC
- Typically occur in the lower third of the oesophagus
- Commonly co-occur with gastric varices (less common)
- There is extension of the oesophageal varices along the lesser curvature
- Can also have paraoesophageal varices - varices of the adventitial oesophageal veins

Aetiology:
- Cirrhosis
- Budd-Chiari syndrome
- Primary biliary cholangitis
- Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Downhill varices - relatively rare
- Due to SVC obstruction, as part of the superior vena cava syndrome
- Typically in the upper 1/3, although can span the entire oesophagus
- Do not co-occur with gastric varices due to a different pathophys
- Relatively lower bleeding risk

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130
Q

OESOPHAGEAL WEB is, path and assoc

A

An oesophageal constriction caused by a thin mucosal membrane projecting into the lumen

Tend to affect middle-aged females

Pathology:
- More commonly occur in the cervical esophagus near cricopharyngeus muscle than in the thoracic oesopahgus
- Anterior wall, never posterior wall

Associations:
- Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- Graft-vs-Host disease
- GORD

Treatment:
- Balloon dilatation
- Bougienage during endoscopy

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131
Q

BARRETS OESOPHAGUS is and path

A

A term for intestinal metaplasia of the oesophagus

Considered a precursor lesion for adenocarcinoma

Epidemiology:
- Thought to have a prevalence of 3-15% in patients with reflux oesophagitis
- Mean age at diagnosis 55y

Risk factors:
- Male
- Tobacco intake
- Central obesity
- White race
- Scleroderma - ~37% of patients

Asymptomatic, discovered in the workup for GORD

Pathology:
- Progressive metaplasia of oesophageal stratified squamous cell epithelium to columnar epithelium
- 90-100% of adenocarcinomas are thought to arise from the metaplasia
- 30x risk of developing oesophageal adenocarcinoma, but the annual risk depends on the degree of histological dysplasia

Management:
- Considered a premalignant lesion - upper endoscopy and biopsy is warranted
- If confirmed, aggressive therapy for GORD +/- endoscopic surveillance

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132
Q

MALToma is and path

A

An extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma

Represents 7% of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Average age of presentation is 60yo, with slight female predominance

Pathology:
- Arise in epithelial tissues where lymphoid cells are not usually found
- Chronic infection/inflammation has been implicated in the pathogenesis
- Less than 10% transform from low-grade to high-grade disease

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133
Q

MEN 1

A

Pituitary adenoma, parathyroid adenoma, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour

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134
Q

MEN 2A

A

medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid hyperplasia

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135
Q

MEN 2B

A

Medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas/gangliomas, marfanoid habitus

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136
Q

OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA is and risk factors

A

Relatively uncommon, tends to present with increasing dysphagia, initially to solids and progresses with obstruction of the lumen

Epidemiology:
- <1% of all cancers, 4-10% of all GI malignancies
- Male preponderance 4: 1F

Predisposing factors:
- Alcohol and smoking - for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
- Achalasia
- Asbestosis
- Barrett oesophagus - for adenocarcinoma
- Coeliac disease
- Ionising radiation
- Obesity - adenocarcinoma
- Plummer-Vinson syndrome
- HPV

Treatment/outcome
- Localised disease ~40% 5yr survival
- Distant metastasis ~5% 5yr survival

Complications:
- Fistula formation to the trachea 5-10%, bronchi or mediastinum

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137
Q

OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA path

A

Histological subtypes
- Squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus 81-95%
- Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus 4-19%
- Arising from the mucosal/submucosal glands, heterotopic gastric mucosa or columnar-lined epithelium
- >90% relate to Barrett oesophagus
- Tend to occur at the GOJ
- In the western world, adenocarcinoma is as common, or slightly more common than squamous cell carcinoma

Macroscopic appearance
- Polypoid/fungating (most common)
- Sessile/pedunculated
- Lobulated surface protruding
- Irregular, polycyclic, overhanging
- Ulcerating - large ulcer niche in a bulging mass
- Infiltrating - gradual narrowing with a smooth transition
- Superficial spreading carcinoma

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138
Q

OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA staging

A

Tumour
0 No evidence of primary tumour, Tis: high grade dysplasia

1 - Tumour invades the lamina propria, muscularis mucosae or submucosa

2 - Tumour invades the muscularis propria

3 - Tumour invades the adventitia

4 - Tumour invades adjacent structures

Nodes
0- No lymph nodes
1- 1-2 regional lymph nodes
2- 3-6 regional lymph nodes
3 - >7 regional lymph nodes

Stage of disease:
1 - T1 N0 M0
2 - 3: Any combination of T and N that adds up to the stage
4: M1

Metastases:
Haematogenous: lung, liver, adrenal glands

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139
Q

GASTRIC CANCER is and path

A

Adenocarcinoma, the most common gastric malignancy

Third most common GI malignancy following colon and pancreatic cancer

Epidemiology:
- Rare before age 40. Climbs and peaks in the 7th decade of life
- 2:1 male predominance

Non-specific symptoms

Nodal metastases:
- Sister Mary Joseph’s node - umbilical
- Virchow’s node - left supraclavicular
- Drains the thoracic duct
- Krukenberg’s tumour - ovary
- Irish node - enlarged axillary lymph node

Aetiology:
- Association with H-pylori
- Most are sporadic in occurrence, 8-10% have an inherited gastric component

Risk factors:
- Pernicious anaemia
- Adenomatous gastric polyps
- Atrophic gastritis
- Bilroth II partial gastrectomy for benign disease
- Type A blood group
- Smoking

Prognosis:
- 20% 5yr survival rate

Differentials:
- Gastric lymphoma
- Gastric metastases
- GIST

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140
Q

GIST - GASTROINTESTINAL STROMAL TUMOUR is and assoc

A

The most common mesenchymal tumour of the GIT

Account for ~5% of all sarcomas

Most frequently found within the stomach and mid-distal small bowel

Used to be called Leiomyomas/etc but differentiated by an expression of c-KIT and CD34 antigens

Epidemiology:
- Uncommon compared to gastric carcinoma
- Age ~40+
- Possible slight male predilection

Location:
- Oesophagus - uncommon (vs leiomyomas)
- Stomach - most common, 70%
- Small bowel - #2, 20-25%
- Colon/rectum - most common rectal sarcoma - 7% at the rectum, then colon
- Can also occur in the mesentery, omentum and retroperitoneum

Associations:
Majority are sporadic, but can also occur with:
- Carney triad - extra-adrenal paraganglioma, GIST, pulmonary chondroma
- NF1
- Carney-Stratakis syndrome - autosomal dominant condition comprising of familial paragangliomas and gastric stromal sarcoma

Treatment
- Resection
- 50% will have metastasized at the time of presentation
- Adjuvant chemotherapy is given

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141
Q

GIST - GASTROINTESTINAL STROMAL TUMOUR path

A

Typically submucosal tumours

Often the overlying mucosa remains intact on pathological and imaging assessment

Arise from the Interstitial cells of Cajal

95% stain positive for cd117 (C-KIT) and 70% for CD34 - a tyrosin kinase growth factor receptor and target of ST-571

Grading requires assessment of both tumour size and mitotic index
- Smaller lesions have less aggressive biological behaviour, as do stomach GISTs compared to tumours elsewhere

Macroscopic:
- Rounded with frequent haemorrhage
- Larger tumours may demonstrate necrosis and cystic change
- Size is variable, 1-30cm

Histology:
- A relatively cellular tumour composed of spindle cells 70-80% and plump epithelioid cells 20-30%
- They appear to arise from the muscularis propria layer

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142
Q

LEIOMYOMA is and light path

A

A benign smooth muscle neoplasm of the oesophagus, the most common benign tumour of the oesophagus

Epidemiology: most frequently presents in young and middle aged groups 20-50yo

Pathology: like other leiomyomas, they comprise of smooth muscle overgrowth

Location: mid-distal oesophagus

No treatment necessary if <5cm and asymptomatic, otherwise resected

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143
Q

MALTOMA is and light path

A

Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, low grade

Represents ~7.5% of non-Hodgkin lymphomas

Average age ~60yo with female predominance

Pathology:
- Arise in the epithelial tissues where lymphoid cells aren’t usually found
- Chronic infection/inflammation has been implicated in the pathogenesis - e.g. H pylori in gastric MALT, Sjogren syndrome in salivary gland MALT

Less than 10% transform from low-grade to high grade disease

Considered indolent disease with good prognosis. Treatment is tailored to the affected organ, and may consist of: surgery, chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy
- Antibiotics are used to treat gastric MALToma

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144
Q

SMALL BOWEL CARCINOMA path

A

50% less common than colonic carcinoma

Pathology:
Almost 50% are found in the duodenum, especially near the ampulla. Of the remaining, the jejunum is more commonly involved than the ileum

Risk factors:
- Crohn disease
- Sprue
- Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
- Lynch syndrome II
- Congenital bowel duplication
- Ileostomy or duodenal or jejunal bypass surgery

More distal adenocarcinomas tend to be annular, duodenal adenocarcinomas tend to be papillary/polypoid

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145
Q

MUCINOUS NEOPLASM OF THE APPENDIX is and light path

A

Epithelial tumours of the appendix that produce mucin

Represent a spectrum of malignant potential, and the most common cause of pseudomyxoma peritonei

Pathology:
- Classified as premalignant, uncertain malignant potential or malignant

Defined as mucinous when extracellular mucin corresponds to more than 50% of the lesion

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146
Q

COLORECTAL CARCINOMA is, risk factors and assoc

A

The most common cancer of the GIT, tends to be a disease of the elderly, with median age of diagnosis between 60-80yo

Slight male predilection

Risk factors:
- Low fibre/high fat/animal protein diet
- Obesity
- IBD
- Asbestos exposure
- Family history of benign/malignant colorectal tumours

Associations:
- Seen in 6% of CRC
- Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
- Gardner and Turcot syndrome variants
- Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
- Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer syndrome
- Juvenile polyposis syndrome
- MUTYH-associated polyposis

Location:
- Rectosigmoid 55%
- Caecum and ascending colon ~20%
- Ileocaecal valve 2%
- Transverse colon ~10%
- Descending colon ~5%

Treatment/prognosis:
- Local resection for all
- Adjuvant chemotherapy for stage III
- 40-50% 5yr survival, with stage at operation the single most important factor affecting prognosis
- BRAF-mutated CRC has a poorer prognosis with a median survival of <12mo
- Recurrence is common
- Local recurrence - 80% within 2yrs
- CEA is used for detecting early recurrence - inappropriate for screening
- Higher levels are associated with higher grade tumours, higher stage of disease and visceral metastases

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147
Q

COLORECTAL CARCINOMA path

A

Most arise from pre-existing colonic adenomas (neoplastic polyps) which undergo malignant transformation as they accumulate additional mutations

Morphology can be anything

Rarely will there be wide invasion of the submucosa (e.g. like linitis plastica of the stomach)

These are typically scirrhous adenocarcinomas

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148
Q

RECTAL CA IS AND STAGIGN

A

Shares many features with CRC

Requires an MRI for local staging

Epidemiology: >50yo, and male predilection

Similar path to other adenocarcinomas

T stage
- Confined to or extends through the muscularis propria
- Extent of extramural spread and whether the peritoneum or other organs are invaded

N stage
- Size isn’t a reliable indicator of nodal involvement
- Number of nodes, irregular or spiculated margin and heterogenous signal intensity

Surgical resection with either radiotherapy alone or combined chemo/ray in T3 and/or N1 disease

A circumferential resection margin of <1-2mm confers a poorer prognosis

Staging:
T1: invades the submucosa

T2: invades muscularis propria

T3: invades through the muscularis propria into the subserosa or non-peritonealised perirectal tissues without reaching the mesorectal fascia or adjacent organs
- A - <1mm, b 1-5mm, C 5-15mm, D >15mm

T4: invades directly into other organs or structures and/or perforates visceral peritoneum

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149
Q

ANAL CANCER IS

A

Relatively uncommon, <2% of large bowel malignancies

Most are SCC

Typically originates between the anorectal junction above and the anal verge below

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150
Q

POLYPOSIS LOCATION

A

Stomach - cronkite-canada

Small bowel - Peutz Jegher

Large bowel - Juvenile polyposis, Lynch, Cowden, Turcot, FAP, cronkite-canada

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151
Q

CRONKITE-CANADA IS AND PATH

A

Non neoplastic, non-hereditary hamartomatous polyposis syndrome

Characterized by rash, alopecia and watery diarrhoea

Epidemiology:
- 3 male : 2 female
- Patients are typically middle age 50-60yo

Clinical presentation:
- Watery diarrhoea and a protein-losing enteropathy with associated nail atrophy, brownish skin pigmentation and alopecia

Pathology:
- Numerous hamartomatous polyps in the digestive tract
- Predominant involvement of the stomach, large intestine and to a lesser extent, small bowel
- The exact etiology is unknown
- Polyps are similar to those of juvenile polyposis syndrome, except the mucosa in CCS polyps is oedematous and inflammation of the lamina propria is usually present
- In juvenile polyposis syndrome, the mucosa between polyps is normal

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152
Q

PEUTZ-JEGHER IS AND PATH

A

Autosomal dominant polyposis syndrome

Characterized by:
- Multiple hamartomatous polyps
- Mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation involving the mouth, fingers and toes

Locations:
- Small intestines, predominantly the ileum
- Colon and stomach
- Mouth and esophagus are spared

Pathology:
- Non-neoplastic hamartomas due to the proliferation of all three layers of the mucosa,
- Polyps have a characteristic feature of a smooth muscle core continuous with muscularis mucosa in a tree-like branching pattern
- Distinguishes them from the hamartomatous polyps of CCS, JP and cowden disease
- Patients are at increased risk of intussusception
- GI tract adenocarcinoma, although the polyps aren’t premalignant

Stomach 29% lifetime risk
Small intestines 13% lifetime risk
Extraintestinal malignancy:
Adenomal malignum (subtype of the cervix)
Breast 45-50%, usually ductal
Pancreas 11-36%
Ovary 18-21%
uterus
Cervix
Testes
Lung

Genetics:
- Attributed to mutations in tumour suppressor genes, most commonly STK11

Due to the increased risk of malignancy, screening is generally recommended

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153
Q

TURCOT IS AND PATH

A

A variation in polyposis syndromes

Characterized by multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of colon and primary brain cancers

Epidemiology:
- A rare disease
- Typically presents by the second decade

Pathology:
- Intestinal polyposis
- CNS: typically glioblastoma or medulloblastoma

Genetics:
- Autosomal recessive inheritance

  • 2/3 of patients have mutations in the APC gene, the same genetic defect as in FAP - these patients have multiple colonic adenomas and virtually all develop colorectal carcinoma by age 40
  • The common intracranial tumour in this subtype is medulloblastoma
  • The other 1/3 have mutations in the HNPCC genes
  • Colonic malignancy is not as common in this type, but tends to develop at a younger age
  • Most develop glioblastomas
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154
Q

GARDNER SYNDROME is and path

A

One of the polyposis syndromes, characterized by:
- Familial adenopolyposis
- Multiple osteomas - especially of the mandible, skull and long bones
- Epidermal cyst
- Fibromatoses
- Desmoid tumours of mesentery and anterior abdominal wall

Other abnormalities include:
- Supranumerary teeth, odontomas, dentigerous cysts
- Duodenal tumours/ampullary carcinoma
- Papillary thyroid carcinoma

Autosomal dominant inheritance in the FAP gene (chromosome 5q) in a majority of patients, but with 20% of cases resulting from new mutations

Extracolonic features often precede the diagnosis of colonic polyps

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155
Q

FAMILIAL ADENOMATOUS POLYPOSIS is and path

A

Characterized by the presence of hundreds of adenomatous polyps in the colon

The most common of the polyposis syndromes

Familial polyposis coli, attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis and Gardner syndrome are all variants of the same disease and FAPS is used to describe the entire spectrum

The average age of presentation is 16yo

Associations:
- Colorectal carcinomas
- Hepatoblastoma
- Extracolonic polyps - stomach, duodenum
- Desmoid tumours
- Osteomas
- Dental anomalies
- Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
- Papillary thyroid carcinoma

Pathology:
- Hundreds/thousands of colonic adenomatous polyps, usually tubular or tubulovillous
- The rectum is occasionally spared
- Less commonly they affect the small bowel and stomach

Genetics:
- Due to a mutation of the tumour suppressor adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC) located on chromosome 5q21-2.
- 1/3 are thought to be sporadic, 2/3 familial
- MUTYH gene has been associated with APC-negative FAPS: this has autosomal recessive inheritance

Total colectomy with ileoanal anastomosis is generally considered the surgical treatment of choice

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156
Q

COWDEN SYNDROME is and path

A

Multiple hamartoma syndrome - characterized by multiple hamartomas throughout the body, and increased risk of several cancers

Type 2 segmental Cowden syndrome is the association of Cowden syndrome with a Cowden naevus when it is considered a type of epidermal naevus syndrome

Pathology:

Characterized by:
- Mucocutaneous lesions - present in >90%
- GI hamartomatous polyps (small and large bowel)
- Glycogenic acanthosis
- Thyroid abnormalities
- Thyroid adenomas
- Multinodular goitre
- Fibrocystic disease of the breast

Increased risk for cancers:
- Breast 30%
- Thyroid 5%, usually follicular
- CNS dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma, occurs when in association with Lhermitte-Duclos disease

Syndromic associations
- PTEN-related diseases:
- Lhermitte-Duclos disease
- Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome

Genetics:
Autosomal dominant inheritance, with -variable penetrance

A gene locus for the disease has been identified on chromosome 10q22-23, a mutation of the pTEN gene

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157
Q

LYNCH is and path

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer

Autosomal dominant condition which predisposes to a host of malignancies, including colorectal carcinoma

Epidemiology:
- Typically presents age 40-50 with colorectal cancer or an associated malignancy
- 5x more common than familial adenomatous polyposis syndromes
- The most common hereditary cause of endometrial cancer

Pathology:
- Mutation in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes, resulting most frequently in colorectal carcinoma as well as extracolonic malignancies

GU
- Endometrial carcinoma 15-60%, most often endometrioid type
- Ovarian tumour 4-12%
- Prostate cancer 30%
- Urothelial tract cancer 1-7%

Small bowel cancer ~5%
- Duodenum 45%
- Jejunum 29%
- Ileum 12%
- Gastric cancer 6-13%

Hepatobiliary tract malignancy 1-4%
Pancreatic malignancy 1-6%
CNS tumours: most often glioblastomas

Variants:
- Muir-Torre syndrome: HNPCC-variant with sebaceous tumours and keratoacanthocytomas

Radiographic features
- Related to underlying conditions:
- Colorectal cancer - more frequently right sided, 70% proximal to the splenic flexure
- Arise from adenomatous polyps
- Diffuse polyposis is characteristically absent
- Small bowel adenocarcinoma: most commonly duodenal
- Endometrial carcinoma
- Ovarian tumours
- urinary tract malignancy

Frequent screening +/- colectomy

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158
Q

JUVENILE POLYPOSIS SYNDROME is and path

A

Consists of hundreds of juvenile polyps

Presentation is in the second decade

Present with rectal bleeding, bowel obstruction and intussusception

Hundreds of hamartomatous polyps containing fluid/mucous

Both the tumour suppressor gene SMAD4 on chromosome 10q and BMPR1A gene have been implicated

Associations:
- Intestinal malrotation
- Meckel diverticulum
- Hydrocephalus
- Congenital heart disease
- Mesenteric lymphangioma
- Pulmonary AVM

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159
Q

H-PYLORI/PEPTIC ULCER DISEASE IS

A

More common in males 3:1, and usually the older population

Risk factors:
- Helicobacter pylori infection
- Confirmed on biopsies obtained at endoscopy and urea breath test
- NSAIDS
- Corticosteroids
- Stress
- Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- Hypercalcaemia

Ulceration is the end point, after acid resulting in inflammation, superficial erosions and eventually frank ulceration

H Pylori: a spiral gram-negative bacterium has been identified as the leading cause of duodenal ulceration

160
Q

Graft vs host disease is and GI facts

A

frequent complication, often involving the GIT, skin and liver.

A disease of allogenic bone marrow transplant or haematopoietic stem cell transplantation

Can present early/acute (<100 days) or late/chronic (>100 days) post allogeneic haematopoietic stem cell transplantation and is one of the major complications of this treatment

The skin, GIT (esp small bowel) and liver are the principal affected organs

End organ damage is the result of the recipient’s immune system (mainly antigen presenting cells) interacting with donor T-cell, leading to the latters activation with a resultant cell-mediated and inflammatory cascade

Bowel: “ribbon” appearance, with fold thickening
- Oedema of the mucosal folds in the ileum and jejunum
- Effacement of the folds towards the ileum: can give featureless (atrophic) loops
- Thickening of the bowel walls
- Spasms and stenosis with prestenotic dilatation
- In the active phase, the bowel can appear shortened

CT:
- Bowel wall thickening, small/large or both (most common)
- Bowel dilatation
- Engorgement of the vasa recta adjacent to the affected bowel segments
- Mucosal enhancement
- Mesenteric stranding ~60%
- Ascites
- Biliary abnormalities

161
Q

PERIANAL FISTULA is and path

A

The presence of a fistulous tract across/between/adjacent to the anal sphincter

Usually an inflammatory condition

Male predilection 2-4:1

Associations:

Spontaneous:
- Diverticulitis
- Crohn disease
- Other bowel or pelvic infections
- Tuberculosis

Iatrogenic
- Post surgical complication

Pathology:
- Cryptoglandular hypothesis: obstruction of the deep submucosal glands results in infection and abscess formation in the inter-sphincteric space, which consequently drains inferiorly between the sphincters opening onto the skin surface or, less commonly, erodes through both the internal and external sphincters into the ischiorectal space, then onto the skin surface
- Transsphincteric fistulae are secondary to ischiorectal abscesses with a resultant extension of the tract through the external sphincter
- Intersphincteric fistulae are due to perianal abscesses
- Suprasphincteric fistulae are due to supralevator abscesses

162
Q

PERIANAL FISTULA grading

A

Radiological grading: based on landmarks in the axial plane and incorporates abscesses and secondary extensions

Grade 1 - simple linear intersphincteric

Grade 2 - intersphincteric with abscess or secondary tract

Grade 3 - transsphincteric

Grade 4 - transsphincteric with abscess or secondary tract within the ischiorectal fossa

Grade 5 - supralevator and translevator extension

163
Q

APPENDICITIS is and path

A

Acute inflammation of the vermiform appendix

Pathology:
Typically caused by obstruction of the appendiceal lumen, with resultant build-up of fluid, suppurative inflammation, secondary infection, venous congestion, ischaemia and necrosis

Obstruction may be caused by:
- Lymphoid hyperplasia ~60%
- Appendicolith ~33%
- Foreign body ~4%
- Crohn disease

164
Q

MUCOCOELE is and path

A

When there is abnormal accumulation of mucin causing abnormal distention of the vermiform appendix due to various neoplastic or non-neoplastic causes

Benign or malignant lesions, categorised into 4 histologic types:
- Mucous retention cyst due to obstruction - usually appendicolith
- Mucosal hyperplasia
- Mucinous cystadenoma of the appendix (most common)
- Mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix

Curvilinear mural calcification suggests the diagnosis

Intraluminal bubbles of gas, or a gas-fluid level within a mucocoele indicates the presence of superinfection

Mural nodularity and irregular mall thickening are suggestive of a malignant process

165
Q

PYLORIC STENOSIS is

A

Idiopathic thickening of the gastric pyloric musculature which then results in progressive gastric outlet obstruction

Relatively common, male predilection 4:1

Risk factor: first born, maternal history of pyloric stenosis

Typically manifests 6-12 weeks of age

Pathology:
- The result of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy of the pyloric circular muscle fibres

Four theories:
- Immunohistochemical abnormalities
- Genetic abnormalities
- Infectious cause
- Hyperacidity theory

Associations:
- Turner syndrome
- Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
- Oesophageal atresia
- Trisomy 18

166
Q

HIRSCHPRUNGS is and path

A

The most common cause of neonatal colonic obstruction 15-20%

Commonly characterized by a short segment of colonic aganglionosis affecting neonates, esp boys

In short segment disease there is a male predilection, which reduces with increasing length of involvement

Almost never seen in premature infants

Characterised by aganglionosis in the distal colon and rectum

Thought to occur from either a failure of neuroblasts in neural crest cells to migrate into bowel segments or degeneration of already migrated neuroblasts

Affects cells in the myenteric and submucosal plexuses

Functional obstruction develops as a result of a spasm in the denervated colon

Anatomically divided into four types according to the length of the aganglionic segment:
- Short segment ~75%: rectal and distal sigmoid colon only
- Long segment ~15%: typically extends to the splenic flexure/transverse colon
- Total colonic aganglionosis ~7.5%
- Also known as Zuezler-Wilson syndrome
- Occasional extension of aganglionosis into the small bowel
- Ultrashort segment disease
- 3-4cm of internal anal sphincter only

Associations:
- Down syndrome ~10%
- Neurocristopathy syndromes
- Waardenburg-Shah syndrome
- MEN Iia
- Neuroblastoma

167
Q

NEC is and path

A

The most common gastrointestinal condition in premature neonates

Characterized by inflammation, ischemia and permeability of the neonatal bowel wall to bacteria

Potentially life threatening with significant associated morbidity

Usually develops 2-3 days after birth, 90% within the first 10 days

Pathology:
- Usually idiopathic and multi-factorial
- A combination of ischaemic and infective aetiology with contributive factors e.g. immature immunity
- No causative organ has been isolated
- Inflammation starts from the mucosal surface and progresses to haemorrhagic and coagulative necrosis
- There is ensuing loss of mucosal integrity, transmural necrosis and perforation
- Can affect any part of the large or small bowel, but most commonly involves the terminal ileum
- The right colon is occasionally involved

Management:
- Medically and surgically
- Medical: supportive measures and cessation of oral feeding, broad spectrum antibiotics and gastric aspiration
- Surgery: reserved for patients with evidence of perforation, entails resection of the necrotic bowel

High mortality, and surviving patients often go on to develop a stricture

168
Q

MESENCHYMAL HAMARTOMA is

A

Uncommon benign hepatic lesions mostly seen in children under 2

Considered to be developmental anomalies rather than cystic neoplasia

Lesions are characterised by an admixture of ductal structures (blood vessels, small groups of hepatocytes and bile ducts) within a copious loose/oedematous connective tissue stroma

Rarely calcify

Typically there are multiple cysts in an oedematous stroma

The cysts vary in size

Histologically: a series of histologic modifications including progressive loss of hepatocytes, degeneration of bile duct epithelium and cystic changes of the mesenchymal component

Genetics: attributed to abnormal expression of the chromosome 19 microRNA cluster

169
Q

Autoimmune gastritis: is

A

loss of parietal cells and intrinsic factor disables ileal vitamin B12 absorption

Typically spares the antrum and induces hypergastrinaemia (compared to H-pylori)

Characterized by antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor that can be detected in serum and gastric secretions

Reduced serum pepsinogen levels

Antral endocrine cell hyperplasia

B12 deficiency (pernicious anaemia/megaloblastic)

Defective gastric acid secretions (achlorydia)

Associated with Hashimotos and addisons disease

170
Q

WHIPPLES DISEASE is and GI features

A

A rare infectious multi-system disorder caused by the actinobacteria Tropheryma Whipplei

Incidence is unknown

Peak age for presentation is the 5th decade of life, men 8: 1 women

More common in farmers/those who work with soil and livestock

Pathology:
- Periodic acid-Schiff-positive granular foamy macrophages in a sampled tissue

Location:
- Small bowel classically, as well as a multitude of other organ systems with or without small bowel involvement:
- Skin
- Joints,
- CNS
- Mediastinum

GIT:
- Extensive infiltration of the lamina propria with large macrophages infected by intracellular T-whipplei causes marked swelling of intestinal villi and thickened irregular mucosal folds primarily in the duodenum and proximal jejunum
- When they become large enough to be macroscopically visible, they may appear as innumerable small filling defects superimposed on irregularly thickened folds “sand-like nodules”

Imaging:
- Diffuse 1-2mm micronodules in the jejunum
- Thickened mucosal folds: esp jejunum
- Small bowel calibre: normal or slightly dilated
- Mesenteric lymphadenopathy: nodes of very low (near fat) density

171
Q

COLITIS locations and causes

A

Infectious:
- Preferentially right colon, appendix and ileum: yersinia, salmonella
- Diffuse colon: CMV, E-coli
- Most severe at the left colon: Shigella, schistosomiasis
- Rectosigmoid: gonorrhoea, herpes, C-trachomatis

Ischaemia:

Location relates to the anatomy
- SMA: right colon to splenic flexure
- IMA: left colon from splenic flexure

Watershed areas:
- Splenic flexure - Griffiths point
- Rectosigmoid junction - Sudeck point

Pathology:
- Diminished/absent blood flow > bowel wall ischaemia and secondary inflammation
- Bacterial contamination may produce superimposed pseudomembranous inflammation
- If necrosis develops, then ulceration or perforation can occur
- Fibrosis may lead to stricture

Aetiology:
- Arterial occlusion - arteriosclerosis, vasculitis, emboli
- Venous thrombosis
- Low flow states
- Others - sickle cell disease,

172
Q

ATROPHIC GASTRITIS is/path

A

A chronic condition of autoimmune and non-autoimmune aetiology

Two types:

A - Autoimmune
- Gastric body and fundus atrophy secondary to antiparietal cell antibodies
- Decreased secretion of acid and intrinsic factor, with the latter leading to vitamin B12 deficiency

B - non-autoimmune (more common)
- Gastric antrum atrophy secondary to H-pylori infection (most common), alcohol, NSAIDs

Associations:
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
- Pernicinous anaemia- megaloblastic
- Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
- Gastric carcinoid tumours

173
Q

ULCERATIVE COLITIS is, path, clinical, assoc

A

Predominantly affects the colon, with extraintestinal manifestations

Typically manifests in young adults, age 15-40yo

Pathology:
- Limited to the mucosa and submucosa
- Crohns is a transmural disease

Associations:
- Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) 70-80% of patients with PSC develop IBD 87% UC
- Moya moya phenomenon
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Colorectal carcinoma

Extraintestinal manifestations:
-Uveitis, iritis
- Thrombotic complications
- Fatty liver
- Seronegative spondyloarthropathy
- Chronic active hepatitis

174
Q

CROHNS is, path, clinical, assoc

A

An idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease characterised by widespread discontinuous GIT inflammation

The terminal ileum and proximal colon are most often affected

Epidemiology: typically diagnosed age 15-25yo

Pathology:
- Idiopathic
- Higher incidence in people with first degree relatives with IBD
- Initially the disease is limited to the mucosa, with neutrophilic cryptitis and lymphoid hyperplasia, lymphoedema and shallow aphthoid ulceration
- The entire bowel wall becomes involved as the disease progresses, with linear longitudinal and circumferential ulcers extending into the mesentery
- Chronic fibrotic change occurs over time, with stricture formation
- Inflammation can occur anywhere along the digestive tract

Extraintestinal manifestations:
- Enterocutaneous fistulas
- Joints: sacroiliitis, seronegative spondyloarthritides
- Eyes: episcerlitis, iritis, uveitis
- Liver: pericholangitis, PSC, autoimmune hepatitis, cirrhosis, gallstones, hepatic abscess,
- Renal: renal calculi,
- Lung: bronchiectasis, mosaic perfusion, chronic bronchitis, COP

175
Q

COELIAC DISEASE is and light path

A

A chronic autoimmune disease

Small bowel mucosa is primarily affected, resulting in progressive degrees of villous inflammation nad destruction

Tends to start in the duodenum and extend towards ileum, resulting in induction crypt hyperplasia

Loss of villi, which absorb fluid, and hypertrophy of crypts which produce fluid, resulting in excess fluid in the small bowel lumen

Associations:
- Idiopathic pulmonary haemosiderosis
- iGa Deficinecy
- Small bowel lymphoma

176
Q

WILSONS is and path

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism affecting multiple systems.

Pathology:
A disorder that results from abnormal caeruloplasmin metabolism, as a result of a variety of mutations in the ATP7B gene

Total body copper is elevated - has toxic effects on hepatocytes with copper deposition and resulting damage to a variety of organs e.g. liver and brain

Three pathways are most affected:
- Dentatorubrothalamic tract
- Pontocerebellar tract
- Corticospinal tract

Markers:
- Serum caeruloplasmin reduced
- Serum copper reduced
- Free serum copper increased
Urinary copper increased

Hepatobiliary manifestations vary, from fatty changes to cirrhosis and occasionally fulminant hepatic necrosis
- Due to the accumulation of copper in the liver
- Usually the presentation at 10-13yo

NB: cant be seen on MR, so the commonest change is contour/cirrhotic abnormalities

177
Q

HAEMOCHROMATOSIS is and types

A

An iron overload disorder, characterised by a progressive increase in total body iron stores and deposition of iron in some non-reticuloendothelial system (RES) body organs which results in some organ dysfunction

Primary haemochromatosis:
90% due to an abnormal HFE gene - the protein product of which regulates iron absorption from the GIT
- The two most common HFE gene mutations are c282y AND h63d

Equally distributed incidence between men and women, but menstruation is protective and presentation is delayed until after menopause.

Secondary haemochromatosis
Rare and seen in association with disease that chiefly cause hemosiderosis

The distribution of iron in RES and non-RES tissue can aid differentiation

Aetiology:
- Frequent transfusion
- High erythrogenic requirements

Radiographic features:
Primary haemochromatosis: Predominant liver involvement without spleen/bone marrow deposition - non-RES iron deposition

Secondary haemochromatosis: spleen and bone marrow, and liver - RES deposition, most likely from haemosiderosis

178
Q

BUDD CHIARI is and causes

A

Hepatic venous outflow obstruction, where there is partial or complete obstruction of the hepatic veins

The acute presentation:
- Ascites
- Hepatomegaly
- Abdominal pain

The acute form results from an acute thrombosis of the main hepatic veins, or IVC

The chronic form is related to fibrosis of the intrahepatic veins, presumably related to inflammation

Aetiology:
Majority result from thrombosis within the hepatic veins

25% arise from external compression that results in obstruction

May be associated with concurrent portal vein thrombosis

Idiopathic

Congenital
- Hepatic vein or IVC webbing
- Interruption of the diaphragm

Venous thrombosis secondary to:
- Dehydration
- Sepsis
- Polycythemia rubra vera
- Antiphospholipid syndrome
- Sickle cell disease

Injury and/or inflammation:
- Phlebitis: bone marrow transplant and chemotherapy
- Behcets disease
- Tumour invasion

179
Q

ALPHA-1-ANTITYPSIN is and path

A

A hereditary metabolic disorder

The most common genetic cause of emphysema and metabolic liver disease in children

Accumulation of altered alpha-1-antitrypsin in hepatocytes incites an inflammatory response and chronic liver disease

Pathology:
- Alpha-1-antitrypsin is a protein that prevents enzymes e.g. elastase from degrading normal host tissue
- 90% of the alpha-1-antitrypsin protein is produced in hepatocytes by codominant gene expression on chromosome 14
- Alpha-1-antitrypsin protein inhibits neutrophil elastase
- The neutrophil elastase acts unopposed resulting in damage to the lower respiratory tract - the damage distribution is predominantly basal due to gravitational distribution of pulmonary blood flow

Associations:
- Asthma
- Pancreatitis
- Aneurysms

Hepatic manifestation: cirrhosis, and increased risk of HCC

180
Q

PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS is and path

A

Multiple strictures of the biliary tree, liver damage and eventual cirrhosis

Strongly associated with IBD, especially ulcerative colitis

Associations:
- Ulcerative colitis
- Autoimmune hepatitis
- Sjogren syndrome
- Retroperitoneal fibrosis
- Mediastinal fibrosis
- Riedel thyroiditis
- Orbital pseudotumour

Pathology:
- No histological findings are pathognomonic

Frequent findings include:
- Periductal fibrosis
- Periportal eosinophilic infiltrate
- Paucity of ducts

Markers: antibody titres are usually absent or low

LFTs will have a cholestatic pattern with elevated ALP and bilirubin

Intra and extra hepatic involvement
- In 20% only the intrahepatic and proximal extrahepatic bile ducts are involved
- Cirrhosis of the whole liver, with the exception of the caudate lobe
- Other causes of cirrhosis will often involve hypertrophy of the left lobe

A risk factor for gallbladder cancer, so polyps should be considered malignant until proven otherwise

Complications:
- Hepatic osteodystrophy
- Cholangiocarcinoma
- Colorectal cancer
- Hepatocellular carcinoma
- Gallbladder carcinoma

181
Q

PRIMARY BILIARY CHOLANGITIS is and path

A

A chronic progressive cholestatic liver disease that is the cause of 1-2% of deaths from cirrhosis and constitutes the third most common indication for liver transplantation in adults

Typically middle aged women with symptoms of fatigue and pruritis

Associations:
- Cholelithiasis ~40%
- Other autoimmune diseases: Sjogren syndrome 75%, autoimmune thyroiditis 25%, systemic sclerosis 10%
- Interstitial lung disease 15%
- Hepatocellular carcinoma ~5%
- Hepatic osteodystrophy

Characterised by the destruction of small intrahepatic bile ducts, portal inflammation and progressive scarring

The cause is unknown

Serum anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA) tests are highly sensitive and specific for PBC

182
Q

TODANI CLASSIFICATION

A

1 - fusiform dilation of the extrahepatic bile duct

2 - saccular outpouchings from the supraduodenal extrahepatic bile duct or intrahepatic bile duct

3 - focal dilation of the distal common bile duct into the duodenum (choledochocele)

4 - multiple communicating intra- and extra-hepatic duct cysts

5 - caroli disease

183
Q

BILIARY ATRESIA

A

Absence or severe deficiency of the extrahepatic biliary tree. Complete or partial obstruction of the lumen of the extrahepatic biliary tree within the first 3mo of life.

184
Q

HEPATIC ADENOMA is and path

A

Benign, generally hormone-induced, liver tumours

Usually solitary, with a predilection for haemorrhage

Epidemiology:
- OCP
- Anabolic steroids - typically young men
- Glycogen storage diseases
- Type 1 - Von Gierke disease
- Type 3 - Cori or Forbes disease
- Obesity

Pathology:
Usually solitary 70-80% of cases, and large at the time of diagnosis 5-15cm

Most frequently seen at the subscapular location in the right lobe of the liver and are often round, well-defined pseudo-encapsulated masses

May have dystrophic calcification

Hepatic adenomatosis - the presence of numerous (10+) hepatic adenomas

Patients often have an associated risk factor, like glycogen storage disease type 1

Histologically characterized by proliferation of pleomorphic hepatocytes without normal lobular architecture
- Frequently have abundant glycogen

Described as being devoid of bile ducts and Kupffer cells

185
Q

HEPATIC ADENOMA subtypes

A

Inflammatory hepatic adenoma
- Most common
- Highest bleed rate
- Different appearance from the other subtypes
- The most common subtype 40-50%
- Occur in OCP setting, or older patients with hepatic steatosis or metabolic syndrome
- Clinical presentation: fever, leucocytosis, elevated CRP, elevated LFTs
- MRI
- Unlike the others, these can show enhancement after PRIMOVIST (HB contrast) since they express the hepatospecific receptor
- No drop out on the out of phase

HNF-1 alpha mutated hepatic adenoma
- Second most common subtype 30-35%
- Only in female with history of OCP use
- Often multiple (50%)
- MRI
- T1 iso/hyper relative to liver
- Moderate arterial enhancement
- No continuity of enhancement
- Drop out on out of phase
- Iso – mildly high T2

Beta catenin-mutated hepatic adenoma
- Least common subtype 10-15%
- Highest risk in men on anabolic steroids and patients with glycogen storage disease, familial adenomatous polyposis
- Usually regresses with ceasation of hormone administration

Unclassified hepatic adenoma
- Lack known genetic abnormalities

186
Q

FNH is, assoc and path

A

A regenerative mass lesion of the liver and the second most common benign liver lesion

Most frequently found in young-middle-aged adults, with a strong female predilection

Usually isolated occurrence is the commonest, but up to 20% may be multiple

Associations:
- Hepatic haemangiomas
- Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
- Arteriovenous malformations (AVM)
- Anomalous venous drainage
- Hepatic adenoma
- Budd-Chiari syndrome

Pathology:
- Thought to be due to a hyperplastic growth of normal hepatocytes with a malformed biliary drainage system, possibly in response to a pre-existent AVM
- Arterial supply - hepatic artery
- Venous drainage - hepatic veins
- No portal venous supply

Two types:
Typical 80%
Atypical 20%
- Lacks a central scar and central artery

187
Q

HCC is and path

A

The most common primary malignancy of the liver

Strongly associated with cirrhosis, of both alcoholic and viral aetiologies

Risk factors:
Hepatitis B, C

Biliary cholangitis

Congenital biliary atresia

Inborn errors of metabolism
- Haemochromatosis
- Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
- Type 1 glycogen storage disease
- Wilson disease
- Tyrosinaemia type 1
- Porphyrias

Obesity and diabetes

Pathology:
- The origin is believed to be related to repeated cycles of necrosis and regeneration, irrespective of the cause
- HBV/HCV may contain genetic material that may predispose cells to accumulate mutations or disrupt growth control

Three types of macroscopic growth:
- Nodular
- Massive
- Infiltrative

Markers: AFP are elevated in 50-75%

188
Q

Fl-HCC is and path

A

A distinct histological variant of HCC

Characterized on microscopy by laminated fibrous layers between tumour cells

Typically occur in young adults 20-40yo

Not associated with cirrhosis, alcoholism or hepatitis B/C infection

Pathology:
- Well differentiated and well circumscribed, with a dense fibrotic background
- The tumour cells are arranged in cords that are separated by sheetlike fibrous bands arranged in a parallel or lamellar distribution

Often these don’t produce AFP

The central scar is typically low on all sequences, can be T2 bright, mimicking FNH

189
Q

GALLBLADDER CANCER is and path

A

A primary epithelial malignancy arising from the gallbladder, in which the majority (90%) are adenocarcinomas and the remainder are squamous cell carcinomas

More prevalent in elderly women, and in most cases are only symptomatic when in advanced stages

Risk factors:
- Chronic cholecystitis
- Gallstones are present in 70-90% of cases
- FAP
- IBD
- Porcelain gallbladder
- Gallbladder polyps >1cm
- Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Majority are related to chronic inflammatory metaplasia and dysplasia

Three morphologies:
- Intraluminal mass
- Diffuse mural thickening
- Mass replacing the gallbladder

190
Q

CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA path

A

Risk factors:
- Caroli disease/choledochal cysts
- Choledocholithiasis
- Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis
- Cirrhosis
- Toxins
- Viral infection
- IBD
- Fibropolycystic liver disease
- Hepatolithiasis

Location
-Intrahepatic - 10%
- Extrahepatic
- Perihilar 70%
- Klatskin tumour
- Distal 20% (Distal to the cystic duct insertion )

Typically sclerotic masses without haemorrhage or macroscopic necrosis

The active tumour is at the periphery, with central portions replaced by fibrosis: accounting for the capsular retraction

Three macroscopic descriptions are used:
- Mass-forming: definite mass in the liver parenchyma
- Periductal-infiltrating: extends longitudinally along the bile duct, often causing peripheral bile duct dilatation
- Intraductal growth - proliferates in the lumen of the bile duct like a papilla or tumour thrombus
- Characterised by alterations in duct calibre, usually duct ectasia with or without a visible mass
- If the mass is visible, it may be mural or polypoid in shape
- The duct dilatation is thought to be due to abundant mucin production - similar to IPMN

Histologically divided into well, moderately and poorly differentiated adenocarcinomas.
- Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia is a common finding, considered to be a precursor lesion of cholangiocarcinoma
- Typically a microscopic lesion with a flat or micropapillary dysplastic epithelium
- Synonymous with carcinoma in situ.

191
Q

CHOLANGIOCARC IMAGING

A

Mass-forming:
- Non contrast: Homogenously low in attenuation
- Arterial - heterogenous minor peripheral enhancement with gradual centripetal enhancement
- The rate and extent depends on the degree of central fibrosis
- Capsular retraction may be evident
- The distal bile ducts are typically dilated
- Narrowing of the portal veins, less frequently hepatic veins, can also be seen, but cholangiocarcinoma rarely forms a tumour thrombus
- Lobar or segmental hepatic atrophy is usually associated with vascular invasion

Periductal infiltrating
- Intrahepatic tumours appear as regions of duct wall thickening or of the periductal parenchyma, with altered calibre of the involved duct (usually narrowed)
- These are most common at the hepatic hilum
- Tend to be longer than benign strictures (approximately 20mm in length), and show contrast enhancement
- There is usually some proximal (peripheral) dilatation of the biliary tree

Intraductal tumours
- Characterised by alterations in duct calibre, usually duct ectasia with or without a visible mass

192
Q

HEPATOLITHIASIS is

A

The presence of bile duct stones within the intra-hepatic bile ducts, specifically proximal to the confluence of the right and left hepatic ducts

Associations:
- Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- Post-operative biliary strictures
- Caroli disease

Pathology:
- Can occur with or without the concomitant presence of cholelithiasis or choledocholithiasis

193
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA is and path

A

A disorder of pregnancy involving new-onset hypertension (systolic BP >140 or diastolic >90) and involvement of one other organ system

Affects up to 8% of pregnancies

Risk factors:
- Diabetes mellitus
- Chronic hypertension
- Family history
- Nulliparity
- Advanced maternal age (>40yo)
- Obesity
- Anti-phospholipid syndrome (9x)
- Pre-eclampsia in prior pregnancy (7x)

After 20 weeks with:
- Proteinuria
- Thrombocytopenia
- Renal impairment (doubling of creatinine)
- Liver impairment (doubling of hepatic transaminases)
- Pulmonary oedema
- Headache or visual disturbance
- If they seizure = eclampsia

Pathology: incompletely understood

Defective development of spiral placental arteries and subsequent placental ischaemia is thought to be key

194
Q

PANCREATITIS is and path

A

An acute inflammation of the pancreas

Two subtypes:
Interstitial oedematous pancreatitis 90-95%
Necrotising pancreatitis

Pathology:
Debate over the precipitating factor leading to acute pancreatitis

Duct occlusion is an important factor, but not necessary or sufficient

Activation of pancreatic enzymes in the pancreas rather than the bowel leads to inflammation of the pancreatic tissue, disruption of small pancreatic ducts and leakage of pancreatic secretions

The pancreas lacks a capsule, so the juices have ready access to surrounding tissues

Pancreatic enzymes digest fascial layers, spreading the inflammatory process to multiple anatomic compartments

Aetiology:
- Gallstone passage/impaction - most common
- Idiopathic 20%, most are associated with congenital duct abnormalities
- Alcohol abuse – most common cause of chronic pancreatitis
- Metabolic disorders – hypertriglyceridaemia-induced
- Most common cause in pregnancy
- Hypercalcaemia
- Autoimmune pancreatitis
- Penetrating peptic ulcer
- Trauma – most common in children
- Blunt abdominal trauma
- Surgery
- Malignancy
- Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
- Lymphoma
- Hereditary pancreatitis
- Malnutrition
- Infection
- Viral – mumps, Coxsackievirus, hepatitis, i- fectious mononucleosis, HIV/AIDS
- Parasitic – ascariasis, clonorchiasis
- Structural – not a cause,

195
Q

IgG4 PANCREATITIS is and path

A

A form of chronic pancreatitis associated with autoimmune manifestations

Rare, incidence is ~5-11% of chronic pancreatitis cases

Variable age of presentation, male predilection

Clinical presentation:
- Jaundice, weight loss
- New onset diabetes mellitus
- Extra-pancreatic manifestations with lymphocytic infiltration:
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Pulmonary involvement
- Renal involvement
- Biliary tree
- Salivary glands
- Elevated IgG and antinuclear antibody levels >50% of cases
- Abdominal pain and acute pancreatitis
- Serum amylase and lipase can also be raised

Characterised by a heterogenous autoimmune inflammatory process where prominent lymphocytic infiltration with associated fibrosis of the pancreas causes organ dysfunction

The cause is unknown, though an autoimmune process with antibody reaction to carbonic anhydrase and lactoferrin has been postulated

Macroscopic appearance: diffusely indurated and firm pancreas, with some demonstrating a focal mass

Microscopic:
- Collar-like periductal infiltrates composed of lymphocytes and plasma cells, with the lymphocytes being CD8+ and CD4+ T lymphocytes
- Clusters of inflammatory cells are also seen in the walls of small veins and nerves, as well as medium and large-sized vessels
- Interlobular septa are thickened by a proliferation of myofibroblasts and infiltrated by lymphocytes and plasma cells
- Other organs can be involved with a lymphocyte infiltrate: gallbladder, biliary tree, kidney, lung and salivary gland

Associations:
- IgG4- related sclerosing disease
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Sjogren syndrome
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- IgG4-related sclerosing cholangitis

196
Q

Pancreatic NET is and syndromes

A

Arise from the pancreatic islet cells and include some distinct tumours that match the cell type of origin

Overall have an incidence of 0.001%, and account for 1-2% of pancreatic neoplasms

They occur most commonly at ages 30-60, with no clear gender predilection

Associations
- Most are isolated
- 1-2% are associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type I (MEN I) which is characterised by the triad of parathyroid, pituitary and pancreatic lesions
- Pancreatic endocrine tumours
- Von Hippel-Lindau disease
- Tuberous sclerosis

Syndromes:
Insulinoma: Whipple triad
- Fasting hypoglycaemia
- Symptoms of hypoglycaemia
- Immediate relief with administration of glucose

Gastrinoma: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- Diarrhoea
- Gastritis
- Severe GORD
- Peptic ulcer disease

Glucagonoma: 4D syndrome
- D - dermatitis
- D - mild diabetes mellitus
- D - deep vein thrombosis
- D - depression

Non-functioning: tend to present late and often larger in size

197
Q

Pancreatic NET path

A

Insulinoma
- Most common
- Develop from ductal pluripotent cells into unregulated cells secreting insulin
- The beta cells of the islet of Langerhans normally secrete insulin
-10% of insulinomas are multiple, and 10% malignant
- Equally distributed throughout the pancreas

Gastrinomas
- Usually multiple
- Typically located in the duodenum (more commonly) or pancreas (less commonly)
- Secrete gastrin that results in hypersecretion of gastric acid
- Marker: Chromogranin A levels may be elevated

Glucagonoma
- Most are malignant
- Most are large and have metastasised at the time of diagnosis
- Most are located in the distal pancreas and tend to demonstrate significant hypervascularity

198
Q

IPMN is

A

Epithelial pancreatic cystic tumours of mucin-producing cells that arise from the pancreatic ducts

Most commonly seen in elderly patients

Characterised by single or multiple unilocular or septated pancreatic cystic lesions communicating with the pancreatic ducts

Typically 50-60yo

can be main or side branch

Main duct lesions present a decade earlier than branch type

Can be further divided histologically with respect to their macroscopic appearances

Uncommon ductal epithelial tumours comprising of 10-15% of cystic pancreatic neoplasms

199
Q

IPMN path

A

Main duct
- Reminiscent of chronic pancreatitis
- Segmental or diffuse distribution
- Highest malignant potential ~60%

Branch type
- Most seen in the head and uncinate process
- More localised and mass-like
- Multi-focal
- May be macro or microcystic in appearance
- Typically indolent behaviour ~5% are malignant

Divided into:
- Adenoma
- Borderline-malignant
- Intraductal papillary mucinous adenocarcinoma

Markers: Abnormal pancreatic enzyme markers (amylase/lipase) are associated with malignant IPMN

200
Q

SEROUS CYSTADENOMA OF THE PANCREAS is and path

A

An uncommon type of benign cystic pancreatic neoplasm

Strong female predilection, and usually present in middle age to elderly patients >60yo

Association:
- Von hippel lindau - can be multiple or diffuse and present at a younger age

Pathology:
- Benign neoplasms composed of numerous small cysts arrayed in a honeycomb-like formation
- Can be significant variation in locule size 1-20mm
- Most are typically <10mm
- Three morphological patterns:
- Polycystic 70%
- Honeycomb 20%
- Oligocystic <10%
- Cysts are lined by glycogen-rich flat or cuboidal epithelium separated by fibrous septa that radiate from a central scar and may by calcified
- Tend to be large at presentation

Location:
- Head/uncinate process 40%, body 34% and tail 26%

201
Q

MUCINOUS CYSTADENOMA OF THE PANCREAS is and path

A

The most common pancreatic cystic lesion

Middle aged females exclusively

Pathology:
- A large uni/multilocular cystic pancreatic neoplasm lined by columnar mucinous epithelium
- Infrequently communicate with the pancreatic duct, but can cause partial pancreatic ductal obstruction
- Considered premalignant/malignant: usually with an elevated CEA and CA19-9

Cant differentiate on CT between adenoma and adenocarcinoma

202
Q

SPEN is and path

A

Rare, account for 1-2% of exocrine pancreatic lesions

Tend to present in young non-Caucasian females ~2nd-3rd decades of life

Associations: pancreatic dorsal agenesis

Pathology:
- Frequently contain varying amounts of necrosis, haemorrhage and cystic change
- Can be large at the time of diagnosis

Greater predilection to occur at the tail

203
Q

PANCREATIC ADENOCARCINOMA is and path

A

Risk factors:
- Cigarette smoking
- Chronic pancreatitis
- Obesity
- Diabetes mellitus
- Family history
- Hereditary syndromes:
- BRCA2 mutations are the most frequent cause of familial pancreatic cancer
- HNPCC
- Familial breast cancer
- Familial atypical multiple mole melanoma
- Hereditary pancreatitis
- Ataxia-telangiectasia
- Peutz-jegher syndrome

Serum markers:
- CEA
- CA19-9

Pathology:
Precursors:
- Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia - 90%
- Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN)
- Mucinous cystic neoplasm

Pathogensis:
- The most prevalent molecular changes responsible are:
- KRAS - the most commonly mutated oncogene 90%
- TP53 70-75%
- SMAD4 - inactive 55%
- CKN2A altered 30%

204
Q

HERPES ENCEPHALITIS is and path

A

Most common cause of fatal sporadic fulminant necrotising viral encephalitis

Two subgroups:
- Neonatal - typically HSV2
- Childhood and adult – typically HSV 1 (90%)

There is no particular age, sex or seasonal predilection

Diagnosis: PCR of CSF – pleocytosis and elevated protein

Pathology:
- Obligatory intracellular virus
- Enters via infecting nasopharyngeal cells into the sensory branch of the lingual nerve, ascending to trigeminal ganglion where it remains latent for a lifetime
- Reactivation occurs with immunosuppression, trauma, or other stressors
- Can result in fulminant hemorrhagic necrotising encephalitis
- High affinity for limbic systems with bilateral but asymmetric involvement

Micro:
- Perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes, large inclusions in neurones and glial cells - “owl eyes”

205
Q

CNS CRYPTOCOCCUS is and path

A

An infection of the CNS with the yeast-like fungus Cryptococcus neoformans

The most common fungal infection

Predominantly immunocompromised patients,

Pathology:
- Typically haematogenous spread from the lungs - usually the primary site
- In HIV/AIDs patients, the infection occurs when the CD4+ count drops below 100 cells/uL
- Can have either meningeal or parenchymal involvement, meningeal being the primary manifestation
- Grey mucinous exudate accumulates over the involved brain surface

Three forms:
- Meninges = meningitis
- Parenchyma = cryptococcomas
- Perivascular spaces = gelatinous pseudocysts. Usually only immunocompromised

206
Q

CNS TOXOPLASMOSIS is and path

A

An opportunistic infection caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii

Typically affects patients with HIV/AIDs, and is the most common cause of cerebral abscess in these patients

An intracellular parasite that infects birds and mammals

Transferred via excrements into food, leading to infection

Pathologically, the lesions have three distinct zones:
- A central avascular zone of coagulative necrosis
- An intermediate vascular zone containing numerous organisms
- An outermost zone of encysted organisms

These lesions don’t have a capsule

Manifest as multiple lesions, with a predilection for the basal ganglia, thalami and corticomedullary junction

207
Q

CJD is and path

A

A transmissible spongiform encephalopathy resulting in rapidly progressive dementia and death, usually within a year of onset

The vast majority are sporadic, but familial and acquired forms are occasionally encountered

Four types:
- Sporadic - 85-90% of cases
- Variant - bovine transmission
- Familial - 10%
-PRPc mutation
- Iatrogenic

Diagnostic markers
- EEG
- S100
- CSF 14-3-3 protein - a positive marker

Pathology:
- Mediated via prions, a type of protein
- Considered infectious, in that they can alter the structure of neighbouring proteins
- Leads to spongiform degeneration of the brain
- Caused by the conversion of normal prion protein to proteinaceous infectious particles that accumulate in and around neurones and lead to cell death

208
Q

CNS TB is and path

A

Can result from either haematogenous spread from distant infection or direct extension from local infection

Protean infection, can affect all compartments

Extra-axial
- TB meningitis : leptomeningitis - pachy is rare

Intra
- Tuberculoma (tuberculous granuloma)
- Focal tuberculous cerebritis
- Intracranial TB abscess
- TB rhombencephalitis
- TB encephalopathy

Seen in all age groups, with a predilection for younger patients

Haematogenous spread from the lungs or GIT is most common, leading to small subpial or subependymal infective foci

These are called Rich foci and form a reservoir from which intracranial manifestations may arise

Either during primary infection (uncommon) or reactivated later

209
Q

NEUROCYSTERICOSIS is and path

A

A parasitic infection caused by ingestion of tapeworm eggs through faecal-oral transmission

A pork tapeworm: Taenia solium

No gender or race predilection, most symptomatic patients are aged 15-40yo

Pathology:
- Infection by contaminated food/water

Four stages:
- Vesicular - variable parasite with intact membrane, and no host reaction
- Cyst with a dot sign
- Colloidal vesicular - parasite dies within 4-5yrs untreated, or earlier with treatment and the cyst fluid becomes turbid
- As the membrane becomes leaky oedema surrounds the cyst
- Oedema, cyst and the wall become thickened and brightly enhance
- Granular nodular - oedema decreases as the cyst retracts further, enhancement persists
- Oedema decreases, cyst retracts and becomes a small enhancing nodule
- Nodular calcified - end stage quiescent calcified cyst remnant, no oedema

Location can be both intra and extra-axial. The most common locations are:
- Subarachnoid space over the cerebral hemispheres
- Parenchyma - most frequent
- Basal cisterns
- ‘grape-like’ “racemose”
- Ventricles
- Usually a solitary cyst
- 4th ventricle is most common
- Spinal forms
- Concomitant intracranial involvement
- Subarachnoid and interventricular cysts don’t typically have a visible scolex
- Look for ventriculitis

210
Q

CADASIL is and path

A

Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy

An autosomal dominant microvasculopathy characterised by recurrent lacunar and subcortical white matter ischaemic strokes and vascular dementia in young and middle-aged patients without known vascular risk factors

Typically symptomatic in adulthood, 30-50yo

Present with TIA/strokes in multiple areas

Mutation of chromosome 19p13.12, involving the NOTCH3 gene

Results in small vessel and arteriole stenosis secondary to fibrotic thickening of the basement membrane of the vessels
- The pathological hallmark is the deposition of granular osmiophilic material in close relation to the vascular smooth muscle cells

Anterior temporal lobe and external capsule

Relative sparing of subcortical U-fibres and the cortex, as well as occipital/ orbitofrontal subcortical white matter

211
Q

AMYLOID ANGIOPATHY is and path

A

Cerebrovascular disorder caused by the accumulation of cerebral amyloid-B in the tunica media and adventitia of the leptomeningeal and cortical vessels of the brain

The resultant fragility manifests in normotensive elderly patients as lobar intracerebral hemorrhage

Can be sporadic or familial
- Sporadic - higher rates in Alzheimers
- Familial - rare, autosomal dominant conditions

Pathology
- Deposition of amyloid in the tunica media and/or tunica adventitia of small and medium-sized arteries of the cerebral cortex and leptomeninges
- There is associated fibrinoid degeneration with separation of the tunica media and tunica intima and microaneurysm formation
- Different proteins can lead to intravascular amyloid deposition

Associations
- Alzheimer disease
- Down syndrome
- Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
- Spongiform encephalitis

Imaging
- Intracerebral haemorrhage - usually cortico-subcortical
- Micro-haemorrhage
- Tend to spare the basal ganglia and pons
- Convexity SAH
- Cortical superficial siderosis

Cerebellar superficial siderosis

Ischemia

212
Q

GLOBAL HYPOXIC INJURY is/pattern

A

Primarily affects the grey matter structures
- Basal ganglia
- Thalami
- Cerebral cortex - esp sensorimotor and viscual cortices
- Cerebellum
- Hippocampi

Grey matter involvement due to high metabolic requirement for oxygen and glucose to supply a large number of synapses
- Makes the grey matter more susceptible to hypoxic-ischaemic injury

MRI: DWI is the first to change

213
Q

WERNICKES is and path

A

Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency

Typically seen in alcoholics

Triad of presentation:
- Acute confusion
- Ataxia
- Ophthalmoplegia

Can evolve into a chronic form: korsakoff psychosis
- Memory loss
- Confabulation

Aetiology:
- Malnutrition and malabsorption, which can occur for a number of reasons
- Alcohol abuse
- Starvation/fasting
- Chronic dialysis
- GI malignancy

Acutely: haemorrhage, necrosis and oedema may be present

Chronic: atrophy, especially involving the mamillary bodies

MRI
Symmetrically increased signal intensity in the:
- Mamillary bodies
- Dorsomedial thalami
- Tectal plate
- Periaqueductal grey matter
- Around the third ventricle
- Can have contrast enhancement in the same region
- Restricted diffusion may be seen

Differential:
- Leigh syndrome - child

214
Q

CO poisoning is and path

A

May result in anoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy, with acute as well as delayed effects

Acute: headache, dizziness, altered conscious state, seizure

Cardiac arrest may occur

Chronic: cognitive decline, abnormal gait, faecal incontinence

Pathology:
Two fold pathophysiology:
- CO binds strongly to haemoglobin and the resultant carboxyhaemoglobin in the bloodstream can cause profound hypoxic/anoxic injury
- A respiratory chain metabolism toxin that interferes with mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes > delayed brain lipid peroxidation

Tend to be bilateral, with the globus pallidus most affected

215
Q

LEIGHS DISEASE is and path

A

Subacute necrotising encephalomyelopathy

A mitochondrial disorder with progressive neurodegeneration leading to death, usually in childhood

Symptoms are evident by age 2
- Psychomotor delay/regression
- Superimposed signs of basal ganglia and brainstem dysfunction
- Ataxia
- Ophthalmoplegia
- CN palsies

Pathology
- One of many mitochondrial disorders, due to a broad range of genetic mutations in either nuclear or mitochondrial DNA
- Nuclear DNA mutations are more common - AR, and X-linked

Chronic energy deprivation leads to histological features such as:
- Spongiform degeneration
- Capillary proliferation
- Demyelination
- Neuronal loss
- Gliosis

Markers: CSF lactate may be elevated

MRI
- Brainstem
- Periaqueductal grey matter
- Medulla
- Midbrain
- Putamen

216
Q

WILSON DISEASE CNS is and path and imaging

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism

Abnormal caeruloplasmin metabolism, as a result of a variety of mutations in the ATP7B gene

Total body copper is elevated - toxic effects on hepatocytes with copper deposition and resulting damage to a variety of organs e.g. liver and brain

Three pathways are most affected:
- Dentatorubrothalamic tract
- Pontocerebellar tract
- Corticospinal tract

Basal ganglia - especially putamen, followed by midbrain, pons and thalamus

Distribution is bilateral and symmetric

CT
- May see atrophic changes in the basal ganglia, cortical and cerebellar regions
- Non-enhanced: copper deposition doesn’t increase density on CT
- Post contrast: lesions don’t enhance

MRI
- Abnormal T2 high signal in the putamen
- Predominantly the deep grey nuclei
- “face of the giant panda sign” - midbrain tegmentum involvement

217
Q

PANTOTHENATE KINASE-ASSOCIATED NEURODEGENERATION imaging

A

“eye of the tiger sign”: symmetrical bilateral abnormal low signal on T2

Accumulation of iron in the globus pallidus with central high signal

218
Q

PHTHISIS BULBI is and path

A

end stage eye

An atrophic scarred and disorganised non-functioning globe, that may result from a variety of occular insults

Typicaly elderly patients

Small globe with thickened/folded posterior sclera

Dysmorphic calcification is common, osseous metaplasia may occur

Aetiology
- Trauma
- Infection
- Other inflammatory process’
- Radiation
- Chronic retinal detachment
- retinoblastoma

219
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDIS is and path

A

Deficiency or resistance to the hormone vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) which results in polyuria and polydipsia

Central/neurogenic/hypothalamic - vasopressin deficient (most common)

Peripheral/nephrogenic - vasopressin resistant

Aetiology:
Central - reduced secretion
- Trauma, NSx
- Malignancy - craniopharyngioma, germinoma, mets
- Autoimmune - lymphocytic hypophysitis
- Inflammatory disease - sarcoid, LCH, IgG4
- Infection - TB
- Pregnancy
- Familial,
- Idiopathic

Peripheral - increased end-organ resistance to vasopressin
- Congenital renal insensitivity to vasopressin (rare)
- Long term lithium use (~15% of patients)
- Metabolic - hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia
- Chronic kidney disease
- pregnancy

220
Q

HUNTINGTONSis and path

A

An autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat neurodegenerative disease

Characterised by a loss of GABAergic neurones of the basal ganglia, especially atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen
- Atrophic caudate nucleus > concomitant enlargement of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles

Typically diagnosed age 30-50yo, equal incidence in both genders

Presentation is progressive rigidity, choreoathetosis, dementia, psychosis and emotional lability

Genetics: autosomal dominant with complete penetrance and genetic anticipation
- The next generation with have more repeats of CAG and a more severe course of the disease/earlier symptoms
- Chromosome 4p16:3, a CAG trinucleotide repeat
- Microscopically: Huntington nuclear inclusion bodies

Both deep grey matter, and white matter (to a lesser degree) are involved

221
Q

PICK DISEASE = FRONTOTEMPORAL LOBAR DEGERENATION is and path

A

A neurodegenerative disease and one of the tauopathies characterised by the accumulation of Pick bodies

Typically manifests between age 40-60, with a male predilection

Characteristic features:
- Pick bodies
- Swollen chromatolytic neurones
- Loss of large pyramidal neurones
- Astrocytic gliosis

Imaging: cortical atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes
- Can be markedly asymmetrical and affect one area more than another
- Caudate head volume can also be reduced

Differential:
- Other varieties of frontotemporal lobar degeneration
- Alzheimer disease - parietal lobe is more pronounced

222
Q

ALZHEIMERS is and path

A

A common neurodegenerative disease, responsible for 60-80% of all dementias

A result of accumulation and deposition of cerebral amyloid-B, the most common cerebral amyloid deposition disease

Typically 85-90yo

Risk factors:
- Advanced age
- Female gender
- Current smoker
- Family history
- Down syndrome
- Psoriatic arthritis - chronic inflammation etc.

The accumulation of cerebral amyloid-beta forms neuritic plaques, neurofibrillary tangles and eventually progressive loss of neurones

Increasing evidence suggests that chronic inflammation is at least partially responsible

Imaging:
- Diagnosis should be made based on two features:
- Mesial temporal lobe atrophy - particularly the hippocampus, entorhinal cortex and perirhinal cortex
- Assessment of volumes should be done accurately, not by eyeballing
- Additionally often have white matter high T2 signal - chronic small vessel ischaemic changes
- SPECT/PET: detect regional hypoperfusion/hypometabolism in a biparietal and bitemporal distribution, while amyloid and tau accumulate in the grey matter and medial temporal lobes respectively

223
Q

PARKINSONS is and path

A

A neurodegenerative disease and movement disorder characterised by resting tremor, rigidity and hypokinesia due to progressive degeneration of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra

The most common cause of the parkinsonian syndrome - accounts for 80% of cases

The remainder are others, e.g. Lewy body dementia

The most common form s in elderly patients, and usually sporadic

Clinically:
-Resting pill rolling tremor
- Cog-wheel rigidity
- Bradykinesia
- Postural instability

Pathology:
- The dopaminergic tract is predominantly affected
- Nigrostriatal dopaminergic degeneration > neuronal loss in the substantia nigra pars compacta
- Other areas: basal ganglia, brainstem, autonomic nervous system and cerebral cortex

Imaging:
Loss of the normal swallow tail appearance of susceptibility signal pattern in the substantia nigra on axial imaging

224
Q

PIT ADENOMA is and path

A

Primary neuroendocrine tumours that occur in the pituitary gland, one of the most common intracranial neoplasms

Classified into micro (<10mm) and macro (>10mm)

Associations:
A small number are associated with:
- MEN 1
- MEN 4
- Carney complex
- McCune-Albright syndrome

Presentation: either hormonal imbalance or mass effect - esp the optic chiasm

225
Q

ADAMANTINOUS CRANIOPHARYNGIOMAis and path

A

Cystic masses with peripheral calcification

Far more common than papillary, and identified in all age groups with peaks in child hood and age 40-60

Primarily suprasellar, with a small intrasellar component present in 20-25%

Purely intrasella is uncommon

Presentation:
- Headache and raised ICP
- Visual symptoms
- Hormonal imbalances
- Short stature and delayed puberty
- Amenorrhoea
- Diabetes insipidus
- Behavioural change due to frontal or temporal extension

Pathology:
- Palisading peripheral columnar epithelium, wet keratin and stellate reticulum that have appearances reminiscent of the enamel pulp of developing teeth - similar to ameloblastomas
- May be a single or multiple cysts filled with thick oily fluid, rich in protein, blood products and/or cholesterol
- Calcification is usually present ~90%

226
Q

PAPILLARY CRANIOPHARYNGIOMA is and path

A

WHO grade 1, typically presenting as mostly solid masses

Far less common than adamantinomas, and rare before middle age

Most commonly between 40-60yo

No race or sex has been identified

Primarily suprasella, with a small intrasellar component present in a minority

Purely intrasellar is uncommon

Occasionally appear as masses within the third ventricle

Presentation:
- Headache, raised ICP
- Visual symptoms
- Hormonal imbalances:
- Decreased libido
- Amenorrhoea
- Diabetes insipidus

Formed of mases of monomorphic squamous epithelium with a fibrovascular core and scattered immune cells

“wet keratin” and calcifications are absent - seen in adamantinomatous

Usually solid

227
Q

DEMYELINATION is and causes

A

Loss of normal myelin around axons in the CNS

Different from dysmyelination: where the formation of normal myelin is absent

Primary demyelinating disorders:
- Clinically isolated syndrome: may not progress to MS

  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Variants:
    • Tumefactive
    • Acute malignant Marburg type
    • Neuromyelitis optica (Devic disease)
    • Schilder type (diffuse cerebral sclerosis)
    • Balo concentric sclerosis
  • Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome

Infective:
- Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
- HIV encephalitis

Toxic:
- Osmotic demyelination syndrome
- Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome

Metabolic/genetic
- Leukodystrophies

228
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS is and path

A

An acquired chronic relapsing demyelinating disease involving the CNS

Disseminated in space and time

Presents between adolescence and the 6th decade, with a peak around 35yo

Strong female predilection

Presentation depends on the area of involvement
- Common - optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Several patterns of longitudinal disease
- Relapsing-remitting ~70%
- Secondary progressive
- 85% of those with RR MS eventually enter this phase
- Primary progressive 10%
- Progressive with relapses
- Benign 15-50%

Investigations
- History
- Oligoclonal bands in CSF
- Immunoglobulin G in serum
- Abnormal visual evoked potential

Pathology:
- Poorly known
- An infectious agent is suspected
- A cell mediated autoimmune response against one’s own myelin components, with loss of oligodendrocytes, with little or no axonal degeneration in the acute phase
- In the later stage, loss of oligodendrocytes results in axonal degeneration
- Each lesion/plaque undergoes three stages:

Early acute - active
- Active myelin breakdown
- Plaques are pink and swollen

Subacute
- Abundant macrophages
- Plaques are paler in colour

Chronic stage - inactive plaques/gliosis
- Little or no myelin breakdown
- Gliosis with associated volume loss
- Appear grey/translucent

229
Q

NEUROMYELITIS OPTICA is and path

A

A severe demyelinating disease caused by an autoantibody to the aquaporin-4 water channel

The classic presentation is: optic neuritis, longitudinally extensive myelitis and positive anti-AQP4 antibody

Slightly older group than MS

230
Q

BALO CONCENTRIC RING MS is

A

A rounded lesion with alternating layers of high and low signal intensity on MRI

“bulls-eye or onion-bulb” appearance

T1/2: irregular concentric areas

231
Q

ADEM is and path

A

A monophasic acute inflammation and demyelination of white matter, typically 1-2weeks following a viral infection or vaccination

Grey matter, especially basal ganglia, is often involved.

Spinal cord to a lesser extent

Thought to occur from a cross-reactivity in immunity to viral antigens, triggering a subsequent autoimmune attack on the CNS

Half of the confirmed cases have anti-MOG (myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein)

Markers
- CSF pleocytosis
- CSF may show increase in myelin basic protein
- Anti-MOG antibodies

Involvement of the callososeptal interface is unusual

232
Q

TRANSVERSE MYELITIS is

A

An inflammatory condition affecting both halves of the spinal cord

Typically long segment of greater than 2/3rds of the cross-sectional area of the cord with variable enhancement and no diffusion restriction

CSF: need to demonstrate inflammation = pleocytosis or increased IgG index or enhancement

Aetiology:
- Acute infection - most commonly viral
- Post infection
- Autoimmune
- Post vaccination
- Systemic malignancy
- Atopy and allergy

233
Q

CENTRAL PONTINE MYELINOLYSIS is

A

Acute demyelination in the setting of osmotic changes - typically the rapid correction of hyponatraemia

Classic trident shaped appearance. Can also involve the basal ganlia

The peripheral fibres (corticospinal tracts, ventrolateral longitudinal fibres) as well as periventricular and subpial regions are typically spared

234
Q

CHIARI I is and path

A

The most common Chiari variant

Characterised by the caudal descent of the cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum

Underlying cause: a mismatch between size and content of the posterior fossa

Four groups:
- Abnormal skull base - e.g. short clivus
- Cervical segmentation anomalies e.g. Klippel-Feil syndrome
- Small cranial vault and/or posterior fossa and consequent overcrowding
- Excessive brain tissue

Has to protrude >5mm to count

Associations:
- Cervical cord syrinx ~35%
- Hydrocephalus
- Skeletal anomalies
- Platybasia/basilar invagination
- Atlanto-occipital assimilation
- Sprengal deformity
- Syndrome associations:
- Klippel-Feil syndrome
- Crouzon syndrome
- Hajdu-Cheney syndrome

Look for features of intracranial hypertension as a differential

Perform CSF flow studies

235
Q

CHIARI II is and path

A

Myelomeningocele (lumbosacral spina bifida aperta) with a small posterior fossa, with descent of the brainstem and cerebellar tonsils and vermis

Due to in utero malformation of the spine and cranial structures resulting in characteristic displacement of the medulla, 4th ventricle and cerebellum through foramen magnum

Thought to be due to open spinal dysraphism

Associations
Spinal
- Syrinx
- Scoliosis
- Segmentational anomalies 50%
- Klippel-Feil syndrome
- Diastematomyelia

Cerebral
- Corpus callosum dysgenesis
- Absent septum pellucidum
- Obstructive hydrocephalus

Skeletal
- Club foot

236
Q

DANDY WALKER MALFORMATION is

A

A spectrum of posterior fossa malformation, characterised by:
- Hypoplasia of the vermis and cephalad rotation of the vermian remnant
- Cystic dilatation of the 4th ventricle, extending posteriorly
- Enlarged posterior fossa with trocular-lambdoid inversion

237
Q

CAVERNOMA is and path

A

Cerebral cavernous venous malformations

A slow flow venous malformation

Typically presents ~40-60yo, most with a single lesion

Multiple lesions may be familial - familial cavernous malformation syndrome

Risk of haemorrhage is 1% per patient year for familial, lower for sporadic

“mulberry-like’ clusters of hyalinised dilated thin-walled capillaries with surrounding haemosiderin
- These vessels are thrombosed to varying degrees
- There is no normal brain between the interstices of these lesions - unlike AVMs

Associations:
- Developmental venous anomaly

Tend to be supratentorial ~80% of cases, but can be found anywhere, including the brainstem

238
Q

DAI is and classification

A

Diffuse axonal injury is characterised by multiple focal lesions with a characteristic distribution: typically located at the grey-white matter junction, in the corpus callosum and in more severe cases in the brainstem.

A classification :

Grade 1: microscopic-only evidence of axonal damage in the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres including corpus callosum, in the brainstem, and, occasionally, in the cerebellum

Grade 2: focal lesion in the corpus callosum, in addition to diffuse axonal damage

Grade 3: focal lesions in both the corpus callosum and dorsolateral quadrant of the rostral brainstem, in addition to diffuse axonal damage

239
Q

WARTHINS is and path

A

Common tumour of parotid gland with double layer of epithelial cells resting on dense lymphoid stroma

2nd most common benign salivary gland tumour

Almost always is the parotid gland, 10% of parotid tumours. Often in the tail

70% of bilateral salivary glands are warthin tumours

Usually male smokers age 40+

Associations:
- Smoking, irradiation, TB

May occur synchronous with pleomorphic adenoma and salivary duct carcinoma

Malignant change 1% - to lymphoma, Merkel cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma etc.

Pathology:
Encapsulated, lobulated, mulitcystic with mucinous/serous secretions

Presence of a mural nodule is highly suggestive. solid cystic.

240
Q

PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA is and path

A

Benign mixed tumours

Well-circumscribed rounded masses, most commonly within the parotid gland

70-80% of benign salivary gland tumours

Mixed histology

Contain both epithelial and myoepithelial (mesenchymal) tissues, with mixed histology

Appear encapsulated, well circumscribed, however the pseudocapsule is incomplete

241
Q

MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA is and path

A

A malignant glandular epithelial neoplasm characterised by mucous, intermediate and epidermoid cells, with columnar, clear cell or oncocytoid features

Most common salivary gland neoplasm in adults and children

Occurs in major > minor salivary glands

Possibly associated with ionising radiation

Pathology:
A mixture of:
- Mucous secreting cells
- Squamous cells
- Lymphoid infiltrate

Histology:
- Clear mucin-containing cells, which stain reddish pink with the mucicarmine stain
Histologically classified as:
- Low – well differentiated with little cellular atypia
- High proportion of mucous cells
- Prominent cyst formation
- Intermediate
- High – poorly differentiated with cellular pleomorphoism
- High proportion of squamous cells
- Solid with few, if any, cysts

heterogenous enhancement

242
Q

ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA is and path

A

A carcinoma of the primary salivary glands characterised by its biphasic ductal and myoepithelial differentiation

May occur in major and minor salivary glands
- Most commonly the parotid

Grows in tubular, cribriform and/or solid patterns

Epidemiology:
- M=F
- Mean age ~57

Locally aggressive, propensity for perineural spread

homogenous enhancement

243
Q

ACINAR CELL CARCINOMA is and path

A

A histological subtype of adenocarcinoma

Generally considered low grade,

Characterised by serous acinar cell differentiation in at least some of the neoplastic cells

Essential features:
- Parotid is the most common
- Favourable prognosis – low local recurrence, distant mets

10-17% of primary salivary gland malignancies

2nd most common in children, 3rd in adults: mucoepidermoid carcinoma > adenoid cystic carcinoma

244
Q

THYROGLOSSAL DUCT is/apath

A

Epithelium-lined connection between the foramen caecum and the thyroid that forms during the descent of the thyroid during embryological development

Arises from the proximal primitive foregut between the first and second pharyngeal pouches

Passes anterior to the body of the hyoid bone, curving backwards and superiorly to reach behind the bone, before turning inferiorly and continuing to the isthmus of the thyroid

The pyramidal lobe, if present marks this point

The tip of the duct bifurcates, forming the two lobes of the gland

245
Q

HASHIMOTOS is and path

A

Autoimmune disease with goiter, elevated circulating antithyroid peroxidase and antithyroglobulin antibodies

90-95% in women, usually 45-65yo

May coexist with other conditions – SLE, RA, Sjogren syndrome, MALT lymphoma etc.

Associated with well differentiated thyroid cancer, and may evolve into thyroid lymphoma

Autoantibodies include:
- Anti-TSH: specific for hashimoto’s and grave’s disease
- Antithyroglobulin
- Antithyroid peroxidase

Pathology:
- Diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland with intact capsule
- May have adhesions, but easily separated from other structures
- Surface resembled lymph nodes with tannish yellow colour
- May have increased interlobular fibrosis, or be fibrotic
- Occasionally gland in nodular or asymmetric
- No necrosis of calcification
- Histologically, extensive lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centre formation

246
Q

PAPILLARY THYROID CA is and path

A

The most common thyroid malignancy

Typically middle ages, ~3-4th decades

More common in women

Associations:
- Gardner syndrome
- Cowden syndrome
- FAP

Tendency to metastasise early to local lymph nodes - check ipsilateral jugular chain, level III + IV

Distal haematogenous dissemination is less common than with follicular cancer

Lymphatic spread is more common

Histopath:
- Delicate stalks of epithelial cells
- Characteristic orphan annie eye nuclear inclusions and psammoma bodies

247
Q

FOLLICULAR THYROID CA is and path

A

Typically occurs in women, and an older age group than papillary

It metastasises late to lymph nodes, but only 5-10% have nodal mets at the time of diagnosis
- Haematogenous spread is more common – 20% at the time of presentation

Genetics: RAS oncogene is positive

Variants:
- Classic follicular thyroid carcinoma
- Insular variant

Cytology required, FNA can’t differentiate between follicular thyroid adenoma and follicular thyroid carcinoma

248
Q

MEDULLARY THYROID CA is and path

A

Non-familial case – typically peaks in the 3rd - 4th decades

Associations:
- MEN 2 – both A and B
- VHL
- NF1

Arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid

Amyloid components are seen on histology

Characterised by consistent production of a hormonal marker (calcitonin), calcification of both primary and metastatic sites

Mets up to 50% of the time

249
Q

ANAPLASTIC THYROID CA is and path

A

A highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer

Typically occurs in the elderly, with peak incidence in the 6th-7th decades

A significant proportion may have a history of concurrent multinodular goitre

Tend to present late with symptoms of neighbouring structure compression

US – may show microcalcifications

Highly infiltrative mass

250
Q

DEQUERVAINS THYROIDITIS is and path

A

A subacute granulomatous thyroiditis – self limited, subacute thyroiditis

Inflammation of the thyroid gland that includes granulomas

75% in women, usually 30-50yo
- Associated with HLA-B35

Aetiology may be systemic viral infection,

Self-limited, usually resolves in 6-8 wks, with only 1% having permanent hypothyroidism
- May have transient hypothyroidism at 2-8 wks

Focal – diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland >2x normal size
- May be asymmetric with nodules of variable size,
- May be firm, but does not adhere to surrounding structures

Microscopic
- Early – neutrophils and destruction of follicles with colloid depletion
- Later – non-caseating granulomas surrounding follicles and engulf colloid

251
Q

PARATHYROID HYPERPLASIA is and path

A

Diffuse enlargement of the parathyroid glands

A less common cause of primary HPTH

Female predilection

~50% have asymmetric enlargement of the parathyroid glands

Aetiology:
primary
- Sporadic 80% - radiation and lithium exposure
- Familial 20% - MEN 1 and 2a

Secondary
- Renal failure

252
Q

HYPERPARATHYROIDISM is and path

A

Increased parathyroid hormone leads to increased osteoclastic activity

Results in bone resorption and cortical thinning + osteopenia

subtypes
Primary
- Parathyroid adenoma 80%
- Parathyroid hyperplasia 10-15%
- Parathyroid carcinoma 1-5%

Secondary
- Chronic hypocalcaemia with renal osteodystrophy being the most common cause
- Results in parathyroid hyperplasia

253
Q

RETINOBLASTOMA is and path

A

The most common intraocular neoplasm found in childhood

Characterised by a heterogenous retinal mass with calcifications, necrotic components and increased vascularisation

May be sporadic or secondary to a germline mutation of the retinoblastoma protein tumour suppressor gene (RB), which is usually inherited

Can be:

Bilateral (30-40%) = definitely have a germline mutation

Unilateral 60-70% of cases, 15% of these have a germline mutation

So around 55%

The mutation is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, with 90% penetrance

Most cases are diagnosed within the first 4yrs of life, typically ~18-24yo

A germline mutation also means increased risk of developing trilateral retinoblastoma (unilateral or bilateral retinoblastoma and pineoblastomas

Also osteosarcoma

Pathology:
Three patterns of growth:
- Endophytic
- Growth occurs inwards into the vitreous
- Cell clusters may detach and float in the vitreous
- Exophytic
- Growth occurs outwards
- Associated with non-hematogenous retinal detachment
- Combined endophytic and exophytic

May metastasise via direct spread into the orbit, along the optic nerve into the brain, or into the subarachnoid space = leptomeningeal metastases

It can also haematogenously metastasise preferentially to the bone, bone marrow and liver

Rarely it will spread to regional lymph nodes

Histology:
- A small round-cell tumour of neuroepithelial origin
- Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (relatively specific for retinoblastoma) and Homer-Wright pseudo-rosettes (also found in other PNETs)

254
Q

ONDONTOGENIC KERATOCYST is and path and imaging why not

A

Rare benign cystic lesions involving the mandible or maxilla

Locally aggressive and tend to recur after excision

Predominantly in younger patients (2nd and 3rd decades)

May be seen in either the body or ramus of the mandible (~70%) or maxilla

May be a male predilection

Typically incidental

Pathology:
- Thin walled, friable cyst containing fluid and debris
- Viscosity of the contents ranges
- They originate from epithelial cell rests found along the dental lamina and periodontal margin of the alveolus of the mandible
- Inflammation may impede histologic characterisation

Associations
- Basal cell naevus syndrome - strong association - Gorlin syndrome
- Marfan syndrome
- Noonan syndrome

OPG
- Solitary, radiolucent, unilocular, expansile with smooth, corticated borders
- Often scalloped around the roots of the teeth
- In the maxilla, they expand into the maxillary sinus
- Appearance and location can vary

MRI
- T1 - high
- T2 - heterogenous
- DWI - restricts, due to presence of keratin
- Peripheral enhancement, no nodular component

Differentials:
- Dentigerous cyst - both can be positioned pericoronally/ Tend to attach to the cemento-enamal junction of teeth
- Radicular cyst - doesn’t scallop, septate and is more expansile
- Ameloblastoma - multilocular, more expansile with a soap-bubble appearance. Tends to be more aggressive with more significant tooth resorption

255
Q

DENTIGEROUS CYST is and path and imaging

A

Slow growing benign and non-inflammatory odontogenic cysts

Well-defined and unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted or impacted tooth within the mandible

Second most common odontogenic cyst
- After periapical

Typically seen in the 2nd-4th decades of life

Formed by the hydrostatic force exerted by the accumulation of fluid between reduced enamel epithelium and the tooth crown of unerupted teeth

The cyst encloses the crown and is attached to the neck at the cementoenamel junction

Almost exclusively occur in permanent dentition

Stratified squamous non-keratinising epithelium lines the cyst

Over 75% of all cases are located in the mandible

Associations
- Mucopolysaccharidoses
- Basal cell naevus syndrome

Imaging:
- a cystic expansile pericoronal lesion
- Contains the crown of an impacted tooth projecting into a cystic cavity
- No further imaging is required
- Thin regular sclerotic margin
- Expand the overlying cortex without breach
- The roots of the teeth are often outside the cyst

MRI
- T1 low
- T2 high
- No solid component or enhancement

256
Q

AMELOBLASTOMA is and path and imaging

A

Locally aggressive benign tumours that arise from the mandible, less commonly the maxilla

Usually present as a slowly but continuously growing lesion near the angle of the mandible in the 3rd - 5th decade

Second most common tumour - odontoma is the most common

Arise from ameloblasts, which are part of the odontogenic epithelium, responsible for enamel production and eventual crown formation

Four forms are described:
- Unicystic
- Solid (multi-cystic)
- Desmoplastic
- Peripheral (extra-osseous)

There are no histo features to differentiate between craniopharyngiomas

Imaging:
- Multicytic, expansile “soap bubble” lesions, with well-demarcated borders and no matrix calcifications
- Resorption of adjacent teeth and root blunting is often a feature

MRI - mixed solid and cystic pattern, with thick irregular wallls

Differential:
- ABC
- Other odontogenic cysts

257
Q

ODONTOMA is and path and imaging

A

Most common odontogenic tumour

Can occur at any age, typically diagnosed ~2nd decade of life

“tooth hamartoma” - consists of various tooth components

Complex - irregular calcified lesions with no distinct tooth components

Compound - identifiable tooth components

Associations:
- 1/2 will be associated with an unerupted tooth
- A feature of Gardner syndrome

Imaging:
- Initially lucent, develops small calcifications which eventually coalesces to form a radiodense lesion with a lucent rim
- Epithelial components may occasionally give rise to a dentigerous cyst

258
Q

PERIAPICAL CYST is and path

A

The most frequent cystic lesion related to teeth and result from infection of the tooth

Typically seen in middle to older 3rd-6th

Results from infection of the tooth, which spreads to the apex

Usually <1cm in diameter and bordered by a thin rim of cortical bone

Differentials:
- Periapical abscess
- Periapical granuloma
- Dentigerous cyst
- Keratocystic odontogenic tumour

259
Q

JUVENILE NASOPHARANGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA is and path

A

Rare benign, but locally aggressive, vascular tumours

Occur almost exclusively in males, typically adolescence

Benign but highly vascular tumours

May be locally aggressive

Exact site is variable, but thought to arise from the posterior choanal tissues in the region of the sphenopalatine foramen

Imaging:
- Arise in the region of the sphenopalatine foramen, usually sizeable at diagnosis and frequently extend medially into the nasopharynx, laterally into the pterygopalatine fossa, eventually going into the orbit, paranasal sinuses, intracranial cavity and infratemporal fossa
- Bony remodelling/resorption rather than destruction
- Majority are supplied by the ECA, ICA less common

MRI
- T1 intermediate
- T2 heterogenous – dark flow voids
- Prominent enhancement

260
Q

PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE is and path

A

A spectrum of infection and inflammation of the upper female genital tract, resulting in a range of abnormalities

Highest incidence is sexually active women, 75% < 25yo

Presentation:
- Acute pelvic pain, cervical motion tenderness, vaginal discharge, fever, dyspareunia and leucocytosis
- Right upper quadrant pain - perihepatitis in Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

Pathology:
- Ascending spread of micro-organisms, unrelated to pregnancy or surgery
- Generally ascends from the vagina/cervix to the endometrium, then fallopian tubes +/- contiguous structures e.g. tubo-ovarian abscess, peritonitis
- Can result from a number of causative organisms

Common:
- Chlamydia trachomatis - pelvic chlamydial infection
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae - pelvic gonococcal infection
- Polymicrobial infection ~35%
- Less common: TB, actinomyces

Usually bilateral, except when caused by the direct extension of an adjacent inflammatory process e.g. appendiceal, diverticular or post-surgical abscesses

Often non-specific features, but disproportionate to what may be apparent from the symptoms

Complications:
- Tubo-ovarian abscess
- Pyosalpinx
- Infertility due to tubal adhesions
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Chronic pelvic pain
- Peritonitis
- Ovarian vein thrombosis
- Peritoneal adhesion formation causing bowel obstruction
- Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

261
Q

MULLERIAN DUCT ANOMALIES

A

Congenital abnormalities that occur when the Mullerian ducts don’t develop correctly

May be as a result of complete agenesis, defective vertical or lateral fusion or resorption failure

Occur in 1-5% of women

Majority are asymptomatic

Subtypes:
- Uterine agenesis 10%
- Arcuate uterus ~7%
- Unicornuate uterus ~15%
- Uterine duplication anomalies
- Uterus didelphys ~7.5%
- Bicornuate uterus ~25%
- Septate uterus ~45%
- Subseptate uterus

The shape of the external uterine contour is crucial to differentiate a septate uterus from a bicornuate uterus

262
Q

ADENOMYOSIS is and path

A

A common uterine condition of ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium

Classically, affects multiparous women of reproductive age

Most patients are asymptomatic, but can cause dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, dysparenunia etc.

Histologically defined as the presence of ectopic endometrial tissue within the myometrium

The exact cause is unknown, but thought that the endometrial glands directly invade the myometrium resulting in spiral vessel angiogenesis and adjacent smooth muscle hyperplasia and hypertrophy

Postulated that the dysfunctional hypertrophied muscular tissue surrounding the ectopic endometrial glands prevents uterine contractions from tamponading bleeding myometrial arterioles, hence these patients frequently present with dysfunctional uterine bleeding or menorrhagia

Associations:
- Co-existent endometriosis 20%
- Leiomyomas 50%
- Endometrial hyperplasia
- Endometrial polyps

Three forms:
- Diffuse adenomyosis - most common
- Focal adenomyosis and adenomyoma (term used for focal adenomyosis)
- Cystic adenomyosis and adenomyotic cyst

Typically relatively generalised, affecting large portions of the uterus, but sparing the cervix

263
Q

ENDOMETRIAL HYPERPLASIA is and path

A

Endometrial hyperplasia
- Defined as diffuse smooth thickening >15mm premenopause, >5mm post menopause.
- An increased proliferation of the endometrial glands relative to the stroma, resulting in an increased gland-to-stroma ratio when compared with normal proliferative endometrium.

Now classified as non-atypical hyperplasia and atypical hyperplasia
- Non atypical rarely progress to adenocarcinoma 1-3%
- Atypical hyperplasia - have a lot of overlap with well-differentiated endometrioid adenocarcinoma and accurate distinction without hysterectomy isn’t possible. 23-48% are found to have carcinoma when a hysterectomy is performed

Associations:
- Obesity
- PCOS
- Pregnancy - including ectopic
- Oestrogen-secreting ovarian tumours - granulosa cell tumour of the ovary
- Tamoxifen

264
Q

ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA is and path

A

he most common gynecological malignancy, with peak incidence ~6th decade

Risk factors:
Anything that leads to increased oestrogen exposure
- Oestrogen replacement therapy
- PCOS
- Tamoxifen
- Obesity
- Early menarche or late menopause
- Nulliparity
- Oestrogen producing tumours e.g. g-ranulosa cell cancer
= Diabetes mellitus
Smoking may be protective

Associations:
= HNPCC, 30-50x increased lifetime risk

Two subtypes
Type 1: 80%
= In the setting of unopposed hyperoestrogenism and endometrial hyperplasia
= Most commonly obese women, age 55-65
= Tamoxifen
= Well differentiated tumour with relatively slow progression, and a more favourable outcome
= PTEN gene mutation occurs in 30-80%

Type 2: 20%
= In the setting of endometrial atrophy, females 65-75
= P53 mutation occurs in up to 50%
= Tend to be less differentiated and spread early via lymphatics or through Fallopian tubes into the peritoneum = poorer prognosis

265
Q

ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA staging

A

FIGO
1. confined to uterus
a;less than half myome
b; outer half myomet

  1. extends to cervical stroma
  2. beyond uterys
    a; serosa or adneza
    b; vagina or parametrium
    c pelic or paraaortic nodes
    c1 pelvic c2 parasortic
  3. bladder/rectal or distant
    a; bladder/bowel
    b; distant mets
266
Q

UTERINE LEIOMYOMAS are and path

A

Benign tumours of myometrial origin, and the most common solid benign uterine neoplasm

Commonly an incidental finding on imaging

Occur in ~25% of women of reproductive age, particularly common in the African population

Responsive to hormones e.g. stimulated by oestrogen, so growth is accelerated during pregnancy and involution occurs with menopause

Pathology
- Benign monoclonal tumours, predominantly composed of smooth muscle cells with variable amounts of fibrous connective tissue
- Commonly multiple ~85%, and range significantly in size

Numerous locations
Intrauterine
- Intramural - most common
- Subserosal - may be pedunculated and simulate an adnexal mass
- Submucosal - least common, 10-15%

Extrauterine
- Broad ligament leiomyoma
- Cervical leiomyoma
- Parasitic leiomyoma
- Diffuse uterine leiomyomatosis

Can undergo
- Hyaline degeneration
- Cystic degeneration ~5%
- Myxoid degeneration
- Red degeneration - due to haemorrhagic infarction, esp in pregnancy

267
Q

UTERINE LEIOMYOSARCOMA are and path

A

The most common location for a leiomyosarcoma

Irregular margins of a uterine leiomyoma on MRI is suggestive of sarcomatous transformation, but not specific

Mostly arise de novo from uterine musculature or the connective tissue of uterine blood vessels, but can rarely arise from a pre-existing leiomyoma

The pattern of tumour spread is myometrium > pelvic blood vessels and lymphatics > contiguous pelvic structures, abdomen, and distantly often to the lungs

Differentiated histologically from a leiomyoma by the presence of infiltrative margins, nuclear atypia and increased mitotic figures

268
Q

PCOS is and path

A

A chronic anovulation syndrome associated with androgen excess

The Rotterdam criteria is used to make the diagnosis and requires any two of the following three criteria for the diagnosis
- Ovulatory dysfunction (oligo- and/or anovulation)
- Clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
- Polycystic ovarian morphology on US

The classic triad is:
- Oligomenorrhoea and/or anovulation
- Hirsutism
- Obesity

Pathology
Markers
- Anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH) levels are generally increased
- Measure free testosterone, free androgen index, or calculated bioavailable testosterone, androstenedione

Associations:
- Subfertility and recurrent pregnancy loss
Long term increased risk of:
- T2DM
- Dyslipidaemia
- Cardiovascular disease
- Endometrial cancer
- High prevalence of anxiety and depression
- Increased risk of OHSS when undergoing IVF

US criteria:
- In patients >8yrs post menarche, with transvaginal images:
- Follicle number >20 per ovary and/or
- Ovarian volume >10ml
- No corpora lutea, cysts or dominant follicles are present

Not part of the criteria:
- Hyperechoic central stroma
- Peripheral location of follicles
- Follicles of similar size, 2-9mm

269
Q

OVARIAN SEROUS IS AND PATH

A

The commonest of the epithelial ovarian tumours

More prevalent than mucinous

Subdivided into benign 60%, borderline 15% and malignant 25%
- Malignant tend to be older
- Benign: no cellular proliferation
- Borderline: cellular proliferation + minor nuclear atypia without invasion
- Malignant: cellular proliferation + nuclear atypia + stromal invasion

Pathology:
- Defined by a histological resemblance to normal fallopian tubal epithelium

Imaging:
- Typically smaller than mucinous
- Typically unilocular and homogenous
- Often bilateral, esp if maligannt
- Psammoamtous calcification is a feature, not seen in mucinous

Features favouring malignant:
- Large cystic mass
- Thick irregular walls and septa
- Papillary projections
- Large soft tissue component
- Ascites
- Evidence of invasive spread or adenopathy

Differentials:
- Functional cyst - tend to change or resolve in the next menstrual cycle
- Paraovarian cyst - ovary is separate from the cyst
- Mucinous cyst - tend to be multiseptated, often larger than serous tumours
- Monolateral rather than bilateral
- Cystic loculi with variable signal intensities on MR

270
Q

OVARIAN MUCINOUS

A

A subgroup of epithelial tumours

Represent 10-15% of all ovarian tumours, 10% of malignant ovarian tumours

Typically women 20-40yo (benign)

Borderline and malignant tumours tend to be an older age range

Pathology
- Multiple cysts lined by mucinous epithelium, often resembling gastrointestinal-type epithelium
- KRAS mutations are a common feature

Subtypes:
- Cystadenoma 80%
- Borderline 10-15
- Cystadenocarcinoma 5-10%

Imaging:
- Often larger than serous counterparts
- Tend to be more multilocular with small cystic components +/- honeycomb-like locules
- Calcification is comparatively rare, and tends to be linear
- Usually unilateral
- Peritoneal carcinomatosis is less common compared with serous tumours
- May have accompanying pseudomyxoma peritonei

MRI
- T1 - depends on the mucin concentration
- T2 - high

Differentials:
Serous tumour
- Calcification
- Smaller
- More frequently bilateral
Haemorrhagic cyst
- Smaller
- Unilocular
Endometrioma
- High signal on T1, with T2 shading

271
Q

Which is true regarding ovarian teratomas? (March 2016)

Ovarian teratomas are associated with limbic encephalitis

Immature teratomas are associated with carcinoid syndrome

A

Ovarian teratomas are associated with limbic encephalitis

True - paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis.

Mature (benign) teratomas - cystic and often referred to as dermoid cysts. Usually found in young women during the active reproductive years.

1% of dermoids undergo malignant transformation, most commonly to SCC

Specialised/monodermal teratomas - struma ovarii and carcinoid. Always unilateral. Carcinoid can cause carcinoid syndrome. They usually arise from intestinal tissue found in teratomas. Metastatic intestinal carcinoid is virtually always bilateral. Primary ovarian carcinoid is not.

Immature malignant teratomas - rare. Grow rapidly and frequently penetrate the capsule, spread either locally or distally.

272
Q

TERATOMA is and path

A

The most common group of ovarian germ cell tumours

Can be divided into 3 main subtypes

Mature
- Also called a dermoid cyst
- Slow growing elements from multiple germ cell layers
- Dermoid: only dermal and epidermal elements (both ectodermal)
- Teratoma: mesodermal and endodermal
- Encapsulated tumours with mature tissue or organ components
- Composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2 of 3 germ cell layers
- Typically smaller than 10cm
- Bilateral in 10-15%
- US:
- Tip of iceberg sign
- Rokitansky nodule
- Don’t metastasise

Immature
- Uncommon, differ histologically and clinically - more malignant
- Affect a younger age group, usually in the first two decades of life
- The proportion of immature tissue elements correlates with the tumour grade
- Large, encapsulated masses with a prominent solid component
- May have features of a mature teratoma - hair/cartilage/bone/calc
- Associations:
- Ipsilateral mature cystic teratoma 25%
- Contralateral immature teratoma 10%
- Markers
- Doesn’t produce b-HCG
- Serum AFP elevation in 50%
- Imaging
- A large, heterogenous mass with a prominent solid component
- Tend to be larger than mature cystic teratomas

Specialised
- Struma ovarii

273
Q

MEIGS SYNDROME is and path

A

Defined as the presence of ascites and pleural effusion in associated with a benign, usually solid ovarian tumour

In the vast majority of cases, the primary tumour is an ovarian fibroma

Less than 1% present with this syndrome

Other primary tumours:
- Fibrothecoma
- Thecoma
- Granulosa cell tumour
- Brenner - rare

Usually ~7th decade of life, rare <30yo

Speculative pathophysiology of ascites

Plural fluid tends to be right sided

Benign and resolves after resection of the primary tumour

274
Q

GESTATIONAL TROPHOBLASTIC DISEASE is and path

A

Results from the abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue, and encompasses a spectrum of diseases

Hydatidiform mole: complete/partial/coexistent

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
- Invasive mole ~10%
- Choriocarcinoma 1%
- Placental site trophoblastic tumour
- Epithelioid trophoblastic tumour

Typically women >40, and <20 are at higher risk

Presentation:
- Uterus larger than pregnancy age
- Abnormally high B-HCG
- Hyperemesis
- Hypertension
- Theca-lutein cysts

Pathology: all characteristically are an abnormal proliferation of trophoblasts, but different components predominate in different tumours

Hydatidiform mole
Complete - commonest ~80%
- 46 XX or 46 XY: paternal chromosomes only
- No fetus
- BHCG markedly elevated
- Atypia of cells present
- May progress to an invasive mole ~15%, or choriocarcinoma ~5%

Partial
- 69XXX or 69XXY: paternal and maternal chromosomes
- May have fetus or fetal components
- BHCG moderately elevated
- No cellular atypia

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
Invasive mole
- Distorts uterine zonal structures
- Boundaries between a tumour and myometrium are irregular and indistinct
- May invade parametrial tissue and blood vessels

Gestational choriocarcinoma
- May look identical to a hydatidiform mole
- Arises following:
- Molar pregnancy 50%
- Miscarriage 30%
- Normal pregnancy 20%
- Can appear less vascular than a complete mole
- Tends to invade myometrium through venous plexuses
- Patients often present with multiple metastases without an easily identified primary

275
Q

BRENNER TUMOUR is and path

A

An uncommon surface epithelial tumour of the ovary

Account for ~3% of ovarian epithelial neoplasms

Typically women in their 5th-7th decades of life

Pathology: transitional cells covered by fibrous stroma, similar to neoplasms of the urothelium

Associations:
- Another epithelial ovarian neoplasm of either the ipsilateral or contralateral ovary in ~30% of cases
- Bilateral in 6-7%

276
Q

ENDOMETRIOID tumour is and path

A

A subtype of epithelial ovarian tumours

Majority are malignant and invasive

Usually characterised as complex non-specific solid-cystic masses and found associated with endometriosis

The second commonest malignant ovarian neoplasm

Similar path to other tumours, with variable solid and cystic components

Benign is rare

Associations:
- Synchronous endometrial carcinoma or endometrial hyperplasia may be present in up to 1/3 of cases
- Endometrioid carcinoma is the most common malignant neoplasm arising within an endometioma

Bilateral in 25-40%

Look for endometrial thickening, evidence of endometriosis or a contralateral mass

277
Q

CHORIOCARCINOMA IS AND PATH

A

A rare subtype of ovarian germ cell tumour

Account for <1%

Occur in prepubertal girls and post menopausal women

May occur during or outside of pregnancy

Can represent metastasis from uterine choriocarcinoma, or arise from an ectopic pregnancy

Serum BHCG is elevated

A vascular solid tumour with cystic, haemorrhagic and necrotic areas

278
Q

MIXED MULLERIAN TUMOUR OF THE OVARY IS AND PATH

A

A rare type of mixed ovarian tumour with both epithelial and stromal components

Biphasic tumours with both carcinomatous (epithelial) and sarcomatous (stromal) elements

279
Q

JUVENILE GRANULOSA CELL is and path

A

Classified as ovarian sex cord/stromal tumours

Typically occur in premenarchal girls and young women, ~13yo

Precocious puberty as a consequence of oestrogen secretion

Associations:
- Maffucci syndrome
- Ollier disease

Vary varied appearance.

280
Q

SERTOLI - LEYDIG is and path

A

A subtype of ovarian sex cord stromal tumour

Rare, typically <30yo

Most are unilateral and confined to the ovaries

Characterized by the presence of testicular structures that produce androgens

Only 30% are hormonally active

Typically a solid/cystic mass

281
Q

THECOMA is and path

A

Benign sex cord/stromal origin tuours

Secrete oestrogen = described as functional ovarian tumours

Typically present in older women, >80% post menopausal

Pathology:
- Same histopath spectrum as fibroma/fibrothecoma

Associations:
- Most have a mixture of fibroma and thecoma components
- More than 20% have concurrent endometrial carcinoma

282
Q

MYOSITIS us

A

A form of myopathy: a broad range of diseases which lead to dysfunction of skeletal muscle

Wide range of differentials:
- Inflammatory
- Infectious
- Drug related
- Trauma

MRI is the gold standard, demonstrating oedema in the affected muscle

Inflamed muscles demonstrate contrast enhancement

If chronic, T1 will show fat replacement and atrophy

283
Q

INCLUSION BODY MYOSITIS is and path

A

An inflammatory myositis, often considered the most common acquired myopathy in patients > 50yo

Tends to present in older individuals, with greater occurrence in males 3:1

Clinical onset is gradual: months - years.
- Weakness peripherally of the wrist and fingers
- Dysphagia in approximately 50%

Pathology:
- Chronic, progressive muscle inflammation accompanied by muscle weakness
- Inflammation isn’t considered a dominant component of the disease
- Pathognomonic is the presence of inclusion bodies in the nucleus and cytoplasm of affected muscle cells

Can affect both proximal and distal muscles, usually bilateral, although weakness may affect only one side of the body

Recognized associations:
- Diabetes mellitus ~20%
- Other autoimmune conditions ~15%

No response to steroids etc. Mangagement is essentially suportive

284
Q

FIBROMATOSIS is

A

A wide range of soft tissue lesions that share an underlying histopathologic pattern of fibrous tissue proliferation

They occur in a variety of anatomic sites, and also vary in their behaviour

Ranging from indolent/benign lesions to metastatic/malignant

285
Q

NODULAR FASCIITIS is and path

A

A rapidly growing non-neoplastic soft tissue lesion which is frequently located in the deep subcut region or in the fascia

The most common locations are the volar aspect of the forearm, the lower extremity (16%), chest and back (20%), head and neck (18%)

Typically manifests as a rapidly growing mass

Often in patients 20-40yo, but children may also be affected

Pathogenesis is poorly understood, possible reaction to trauma

Location:
Three subtypes based on involvement location
- Subcutaneous
- Intramuscular
- Fascial

Microscopic:
- Benign proliferation of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts, typically mistaken for a sarcomatous lesion due to rapid growth, abundant spindle-shaped cells and mitotic activity

Imaging:
- Tend to be small
- Categorized as myxoid/cellular or fibrous

Verify with an excisional biopsy

286
Q

UNDIFFERENTIATED PLEOMORPHIC SARCOMA is and path

A

Previously malignant fibrous histiocytoma

The most common type of soft tissue sarcoma

Aggressive biological behaviour and poor prognosis

Usually affects the extremities, but can involve the retroperitoneum

Typically in adults, age 32-80 with a slight male predominance

The most frequent soft tissue sarcoma to occur as a result of radiotherapy, and also seen on a background of Paget disease

Secondary transformation has been reported in fibrous dysplasia, giant cell tumour, enchondroma, chronic myelitis and osteonecrosis

Usually confined to the soft tissue but occasionally may arise in or from bone

Macroscopically: typically large, well circumscribed but unencapsulated with a grey firm heterogenous cut surface, sometimes with areas of necrosis

Histopath:
- Heterogenous fibroblastic tumours made up of poorly differentiated fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, histocyte-like cells with significant cellular pleomorphism, storiform architecture and bizarre multi-nucleated giant cells

High grade and aggressive

Frequently metastasis (30-50% at diagnosis), and locally recur. Survival 25-70% over 5yrs

Prognostic factors:
- Tumour size - smaller is better
- Location - superficial is better
- Histological grade: myxoid is better than stooriform-pleomorphic

287
Q

LYMPHANGIOSARCOMA is and path

A

Rare malignant soft tissue neoplasms representing a vascular tumour which occurs in patients with chronic lymphoedema

Affects females > males
- Esp post-mastectomy lymphoedema

Arises from the vascular channels, pathogenesis is unclear

Look for enhancing vascular nodular soft tissue tumour involving soft tissue and skin of the involved limbs associated with signs of oedema within the subcutaneous tissue

288
Q

LEIOMYOSARCOMA is and path

A

Originate from smooth muscle cells

Can potentially occur anywhere with smooth muscle

Uterus = 1/3, retroperitoneum = most common non-uterus site

These tend to be large, with central necrosis and no calcification

289
Q

LIPOSARCOMA is and path

A

Malignant counterpart to lipoma

Second most common type of soft-tissue sarcoma

Found in adults, age 40-60

Presentation varies according to the tumour location

Histological subtypes:
- Well differentiated liposarcoma, most common 50%
- Myxoid liposarcoma - 2nd most common, chromosomal translocation t(12,16)
- Dedifferentiated liposarcoma - high grade, aggressive
- Pleomorphic liposarcoma - least common, high grade, frequent mets
- Mixed

Usually seen in the extremities, most commonly the thigh. Less common in the retroperitoneum

290
Q

SYNOVIAL SARCOMA is and path

A

Common intermediate-to-high grade malignant soft tissue tumours

Most commonly involving the soft tissue surrounding the knee

Typically adolescents - young adults, age 15-40

May be a mild male predilection

Pathology:
- Resembles normal synovium, but stains for epithelial markers (e.g. epithelial membrane antigen and cytokeratin) which synovium does not
- Can be found in locations without synovium
- Most commonly near large joints e.g. popliteal fossa.

Four subtypes:
- Biphasic 20-30%
- Monophasic fibrous 50-60%
- Monophasic epithelial: very rare
- Poorly differentiated 15-25%

Cytogenetic aberation of t(X; 18) translocation is highly specific, seen in >90% of cases

Very suspicious if dystrophic calcification is present - non specific within the periphery of the lesion

Very heterogenous “triple sign” on T2

291
Q

ANGIOSARCOMA is

A

Arise from vascular structures

Difficult to differentiate

Tend to be multicentric tumours with haemorrhage and necrosis

292
Q

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS is and path

A

Chronic autoimmune multisystemic inflammatory disease that affects many organs, but predominantly attacks the synovial tissues and joints

Overall prevalence, 0.5-1%, and 2-3x more common in women

Onset is generally ~4th-5th decades

Risk factors:
- Smoking - seropositive RA
- Obesity
- Low socioeconomic status

Aetiology is probably multifactorial

Thought to be a genetic predisposition (HLA-DR B1), with an environmental trigger e.g. EBV, leading to an autoimmune response against synovial structures

Activation of B cell lymphocytes to produce antibodies, including rheumatoid factor, which makes immune complexes that deposit in different tissues and contribute to further injury

Activation of endothelial cells > increased adhesion and accumulation of inflammatory cells

Produce RANKL which in turn activates osteoclasts causing subchondral bone destruction

The inflammatory response leads to pannus formation
- Pannus: oedematous thickened hyperplastic synovium infiltrated by lymphocytes, plasmocytes, macrophages and osteoclasts
- Pannus will gradually erode bare areas, followed by articular cartilage
- It causes fibrous ankylosis which eventually ossifies

Markers:
Rheumatoid factor: an IgM antibody against the FC portion of the IgG antibodies
- A traditional marker, but non-specific
- Associated with several autoimmune and chronic infectious diseases

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (Anti-CCP)/ACPA)
- More than 80% sensitive, more than 95% specific

Elevated CRP or ESR

293
Q

RA extra articular manifestations

A

Pulmonary
- Interstitial lung disease
- Pulmonary nodules
- Pleural effusion
- Caplan syndrome - rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis

Cardiovascular involvement
- Accelerated/premature coronary artery atherosclerosis
- Pericarditis

Cutaneous involvement
- Rheumatoid nodules - usually in pressure areas, in RF-positive patients
- Rheumatoid vasculitis - classically deep cutaneous ulcers in the lower limbs

Haematological involvement
- Anaemia of chronic disease
- Felty syndrome - syndrome characterised by the triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia
- Large granular lymphocyte leukaemia

Ocular involvement
- Episcleritis
- Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

294
Q

JUVENILE IDIOPATHIC ARTHRITIS is and apth

A

The most common chronic arthritic disease of childhood

By definition, symptoms must start before 16 years of age

Females are more affected 2:1

Oligoarticular or polyarticular arthritis of a duration of 6wks +

Can present with systemic onset (Still disease)
- Intermittent spiking fevers are typically noted, which helps distinguish JIA from other diseases e.g. infection, other inflammatory diseases and malignancy

Pathology:
Several subtypes:
- Oligoarticular
- Polyarticular
- Systemic onset

295
Q

OSTEOARTHRITIS is and path

A

The most common form of arthritis, affecting ~25% of adults

Prevalence increases with age – more in men <50yo, more in women >50yo

Pain, instability and stiffness – worsened by activity and decreases at rest

Pathology:
- Incompletely understood
- Emphasis is placed on articular cartilage degeneration, but the remainder of the joint is involved

Classification:
- Primary – idiopathic
- No antecedent insult
- Strong genetic component
- Secondary – abnormal mechanical forces e.g. occupational stress, obesity
- Previous joint injury
- Post-traumatic OA
- Prior surgery
- Crystal deposition e.g. gout, CPPD
- Inflammatory arthritis e.g. RA, seronegative spondyloarthritis
- Haemochromatosis

Risk factors:
- Obesity
- Increasing age
- Female sex, esp age 50-80

296
Q

CALCIUM PYROPHOSPHATE DIHYDRATE DEPOSITION | PSEUDOGOUT is and path

A

The cooccurrence of arthritis with evidence of CPPD deposition within the articular cartilage

CPPD: occurrence of calcium pyrophosphate crystals +/- symptoms

Asymptomatic CPPD: chondrocalcinosis +/- changes of osteoarthritis, but clinically asymptomatic

Acute CPPD crystal arthritis (pseudogout): self limiting synovitis in the setting of CPPD

OA with CPPD – typical changes of OA in the setting of CPPD

Commonest in patients >50yo, and equally men and women

Presentation resembles a gout attack, but commonly involves the knee and upper joints, or pubic symphysis

Pathology:
- Weakly positively birefringent on polarised microscopy
- Rhomboid or rod shape

Aetiology:
- Idiopathic
- Hereditary – AD, ANKH gene

Secondary
- Haemochromatosis
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Hypothyroidism
- Hypomagnesemia
- Previous joint injury
- Ochronosis

297
Q

CALCIUM PYROPHOSPHATE DIHYDRATE DEPOSITION | PSEUDOGOUT imaging

A

Features of OA with an unusual distribution e.g. symmetrical, non-weightbearing joints

OA in joints not commonly affected:
- Wrist: radiocarpal and scapholunate joints
- SLAC wrist in advanced cases
- Metacarpophalangeal joints
- 2nd and 3rd preferentially
- Hook like osteophytes
- Patellofemoral joint
- Shoulder and elbow

Chondrocalcinosis in many locations:
- Knee – medial meniscus and patellofemoral joint
- Wrist – TFCC, lunotriquetral
- Pubic symphysis
- Spine
- Chronic retro-odontoid pseudotumour
- Crowned dens syndrome
- Intervertebral discs

298
Q

GOUT is and path

A

A crystal arthropathy due to deposition of monosodium urate crystals in and around the joints

Typically occur in those 40+yo, with a strong male predilection 20:1
- The male predilection is more pronounced in younger and middle-aged adults
- Estradiol has a urate-lowering effect = uncommon in premenopausal women

Pathology:
- Characterised by monosodium urate crystal deposition in periarticular soft tissues
- Needle-shaped and strongly negative birefringent in plane-polarised light
- The synovial fluid is a poor solven for monosodium urate, and therefore crystallisation occurs at low temperatures
- Crystals are chemotactic and active complement

There are 5 recognised stages:
- Asymptomatic hyperuricaemia
- Acute gouty arthritis
- Intercritical gout – between attacks
- Chronic tophaceous gout
- Gouty nephropathy

The primary risk factor is hyperuricaemia, but only a small proportion of patients with hyperuricaemia develop gout – often taking 20-30yrs to develop

Aetiology:
Primary RF is hyperuricaemia, only a small proportion of whom develop gout. often taking 20-30ys.

Undersecretion of uric acid by the kidneys 90%
- Chronic kidney disease
- Hypertension
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Alcohol
- Drugs
- Lead poisoning
- Obesity

Overproduction of uric acid 10%
- Myeloproliferative disorders
- Haemolysis
- Extreme exercise
- Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Location:
- Usually asymmetrical polyarticular distribution
- 1st MTP joint, hands and feet
- Less common: bones, tendons and bursae
- Chondrocalcinosis is present in ~5%

Tophi:
- T1 iso, T2 variable, characteristically heterogenously hypointense
- Often enhance
- Hyperdense heterogenous on US, with poorly defined contours

Look for synovial thickening

Management:
- NSAIDs acutely
- Xanthine oxidase inhibitors e.g. allopurinol, to reduced urate levels and prevent further acute flares

299
Q

HYDROXYAPATITE DEPOSITION is and path

A

A disease of uncertain aetiology, characterised by periarticular and intra-articular deposition of hydroxyapatite crystals

The shoulder is the most frequently involved site

Most commonly found in middle-aged individuals

Pathology:
- Believed that HADD will begin to accumulate in damaged tendons (secondary to trauma) via fibrocartilaginous metaplasia
- Characterised by calcium apatite crystal deposition in periarticular soft tissues – esp in the tendons
- Most frequently involves the shoulder joint, where crystal deposition occurs in the supraspinatus tendon, but can affect numerous other sites as well
- Calcific enthesitisis the most appropriate term
- Can involve other sites e.g. gluteus medius tendon, or femur etc.
- Variable size and shape of calcifications,
- Mono- or polyarticular

Three phases:
- Formative, resting and resorptive
- Formative and resting – round –to-ovoid calcification in the soft tissue with well-defined borders
- Resorptive – ill-defined with a comet tail-like appearance
- May mimic a periosteal reaction

Treatment: NSAIDs,

When intra-articular, crystals can cause joint destruction
- Milwaukee shoulder
- Advanced articular surface destruction
- Intra-articular loose bodies
- Subchondral sclerosis
- Soft tissue swelling
- Rotator cuff disruption

300
Q

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS is and path

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathy resulting in fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints

Thought to be male predominant 3:1, manifesting in young adults by the 3rd decade

Associations:
- Anterior uveitis 25-40%
- Psoriasis
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Osteopenia
- Cardiovascular disease
- Apical/UL predominant ILD with small cystic spaces
- Aortic valve disease/aortitis

Pathology:
- Rheumatoid factor negative
- HLA-B27 is the gene with the strongest association : 90%
- 5% of people with the gene develop ankspon

301
Q

REACTIVE ARTHRITIS is and path

A

Sterile, inflammatory, monoarticular or oligoarticular arthritis that follows an infection at a different site – typically enteric or urogenital

A type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy

Formerly known as Reiter syndrome – urethritis, arthritis and conjunctivitis

Most commonly occurs in males ages 15-35yo
- 1 in 100 following enteric infections

Usually transient and involving one or two large joints

Other extra-articular manifestations: cardiac conduction abnormalities and aortic regurgitation

Pathology:
- Joint inflammation, bone proliferation, periostitis and enthesitis

Aetiology:
- Enteric – yersinia, salmonella, shigella, campylobacter and less commonly E-COLI
- Sexually transmitted – chlamydia
- Other – brucellosis

Markers:
- HLA-B27 positive in ~80% of patients
- A proportion have serum rheumatoid factor

302
Q

SLE ARTHRITIS is and path

A

Symmetrical polyarthritis, varying degrees

Deforming non-erosive arthropathy, due to ligamentous laxity (not articular destruction)

Classically seen on Norgaard views, but absent on PA views = reducible deformities
- Deformity without erosion differentiates if from rheumatoid

Hands and feet:
- Symmetrical interphalangeal joint involvement: swan neck and boutonniere deformity, subluxation with ulnar deviation of the 1st MCP joint, a widened forefoot and hallux valgus
- Joint space narrowing is uncommon
- Can develop hook erosions of the MCP heads, more on the radial side

303
Q

PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS is and path and imaging

A

An inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis

Usually negative for rheumatoid factor

Affects up to ~25% of patients with psoriasis – median age of diagnosis 48yo

Associations:
- Obesity
- Hypertension
- T2DM
- Hyperlipidaemia
- Dermatological features precede arthritis in ~65%
- Asymmetrical oligoarthritis with spondylitis

Pathology:
- Up to 60% are HLA-B27 positive
- A proportion have a positive serum RF

Extra-articular manifestations are common:
- Ocular – uveitis, conjunctivitis
- GI – IBD
- Cardiac – rhythm disturbances: LBBB
- Urogenital – urethritis, prostatitis, cervicitis, vaginitis

Imaging:
- Combined erosion and bone proliferation, predominantely distal distribution
- Hands and feet: symmetric polyarthropathy, or asymmetric oligoarthropathy with distal predominance
- Enthesitis and marginal bone erosions: “pencil-in-cup” deformities
- Bone proliferation results in an irregular “fuzzy” appearance of the bone
- Periostitis – rregular thickening of the cortex
- Dactylitis – sausage digit
- Acro-osteolysis
- Arthritis mutilans – osteolysis and articular collapse
- Ivory phalanx
- Sacroiliitis – often asymmetrical

304
Q

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS is and path

A

Destructive arthropathy caused by intra-articular infection that is usually related to severe symptoms and reduced range of motion

Risk factors:
- Bacteraemia, advanced age, immunocompromised, RA, itra-articular injection, prosthetic joint
- Usually secondary to haematogenous seeding
- Staph aureus is most common
- Gonococcal is not uncommon

Large joints are most prone, IVDU: sternovclavicular and SIJ are more frequently affected

305
Q

HAEMOPHLIC ARTHROPATHY is and path

A

Permanent joint disease as a long-term consequence of repeated haemarthrosis

Around50% of haemophilia will develop this

Haemophilia: X-linked recessive disease, mainly affecting males
- Haemarthroses are usually in the same joint, age 2+ to adolescence
- Less common in adulthood
- Proliferative chronically-inflammed synovium results in the development of haemophiliac arthropathy

Haemarthrosis results in iron deposition in the synovium > neoangiogenesis and ultimately damage to both the articular cartilage and subchondral bone

Arthropathy:
- Synovial hyperplasia, chronic inflammation, fibrosis and haemosiderosis
- The synovium mass erodes cartilage and subchondral bone leading to subarticular cyst formation

Location:
- Knee > elbow > ankle > hip > shoulder

306
Q

HAEMOPHLIC ARTHROPATHY imaging

A

Joint effusion

Periarticular osteoporosis – from hyperaemia

Epiphyseal enlargement with gracile diaphysis – from hyperaemia

Symmetrical degenerative changes

Knee:
- Widened intercondylar notch
- Squared inferior margin of patella
- Bulbous femoral condyles
- Flattened condylar surfaces

Elbow:
- Enlarged radial head
- Widened trochlear notch

Ankle:
- Talar tilt

307
Q

PVNS is and path

A

Benign proliferative condition affecting synovial membranes of the joints, bursae or tendons resulting from possible neoplastic synovial proliferation with villous and nodular projections and haemosiderin deposition

Most commonly monoarticular ~70% knee

Can be oligoarticular

Predominantely early – middle age

No gender predilection for intra-articular disease, extra-articular disease has a slight female predilection.

Associations:
- Cherubism
- Extremity lymphedema
- Mandibular lesion
- Noonan syndrome
- Vascular lesions

Synovium is diffusely thickened, dark brown/heterogenous with areas of yellow discolouration

308
Q

OSTEITIS CONDENSANS ILII is

A

Benign sclerosis of the ilium, adjacent to the SIJ, typically bilateral and triangular in shape

More common in women, primarily pregnancy and puerperium

Usually asymptomatic

Unknown aetiology

Lack of sacral or joint space involvement is diagnostic

309
Q

SYNOVIAL CHONDROMATOSIS IS

A

aka reichel syndrome

disorder characterised by loose cartilaginous bodies which may be calcified/ossified

can be primary or secondary
- priary; monoarticular, unknown aetiology
- secondary; loose bodies from trauma, OA, neuropathic arthropathy

in secondary, articular nodules are large, vary in size and frequently ossify

in primary smaller and more uniform.

310
Q

ALVEOLAR PROTEINOSIS ios and path

A

Lung disease characterised by abnormal intra-alveolar accumulation of surfactant-derived lipoprotienaceous material

Rare, usually presents in young and middle aged adults 20-50yo

Smoking is strongly associated

When it presents before the age of 1yo there is an association with thymic alymphoplasia

Pathology:
Multiple causes:
Autoimmune - 90%
- Adult/acquired
- IgG antibodies to GM-CSF

Secondary 5-10% presents in individuals with other precipitating illness
- Hematological malignancies - most commonly myeloid origin - CML > AML
- Inhalational lung disease
- Silica
- Titanium oxide
- Immunosuppression

Congenital 2%
- Presents in the neonatal period in term babies
- Poor prognosis if left untreated

Histopath: amorphous periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain lipoproteinaceous material filling the alveoli with relatively normal background lung architecture

Markers:
- Elevated acute inflammatory markers e.g. lactate dehydrogenase
- + BAL or serum anti-GM-CSF antibodies

Complications:
- Superimposed infection
- Pulmonary fibrosis in 30%

311
Q

HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS is and path

A

A group of immune-mediate pulmonary disorders characterised by an inflammatory and/or fibrotic reaction affecting the lung parenchyma and small airways

Aetiology: more than 200 different antigens are involved

The triggering particles are usually in the range of 1-5micrometres in size. In ~40% the inciting agent may not be identified

Histopathology:
- Chronic inflammation of the bronchi and peribronchiolar tissue, often with poorly defined granulomas and giant cells in the interstitium or alveoli
- Fibrosis and emphysema may develop later on
- Most cases involve 4 histologic features in variable amounts and combinations:
- Cellular bronchiolitis
- Diffuse chronic interstitial inflammatory infiltrates
- Poorly circumscribed interstitial non-necrotising granulomas
- Individual giant cells in the alveoli or interstitium

Smoking is protective

Subtypes:
- Non-fibrotic - purely inflammatory
- Fibrotic - mixed inflammatory/fibrotic or purely fibrotic

312
Q

SOLITARY FIBROUS TUMOUR OF THE PLEURA is and path

A

Rare benign pleural-based tumours that account for <5%

Usually presents are 6th-7th decades, with no gender predilection

Associations:
- Hypoglycaemia 2-4%: thought to be due to the production of insulin-like growth factor 2
- Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy ~20% - due to abnormal production of hyaluronic acid
- Asbestos exposure is not an association

Irregularly arranged fascicles consisting of spindle cells separated by collagen

80% arise from the visceral pleura

Myxoid or cystic degeneration can occur

Approximately 30% are malignant

Location:
- Predilection for the mid-lower zones of the chest

Variants:
- Lipomatous haemangiopericytoma - a fat-forming variant

Imaging:
- Pleural based, may be pedunculated
- Calcification, rib destruction and pleural effusions aren’t typically associated
- Tends to have soft tissue attenuation

MRI:
- T1 typically low - intermediate
- T2 typically low

313
Q

CHRONIC BRONCHITIS is and path

A

Defined as the presence of a productive cough for 3mo in two successive years in a patient in whom other causes of a chronic cough has been excluded

Often results from overproduction and hypersecretion of mucous by goblet cells

The mechanism isn’t entirely clear, but linked to both hypertrophy of submucosal glands and increased number of goblet cells which are thought to be the protective reaction to tobacco smoke or other pollutants

It can lead to worsening airflow obstruction by luminal obstruction of small airways, epithelial remodelling and alteration of airway surface tension predisposing to collapse

314
Q

EMPHYSEMA is and path

A

Abnormal and permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of the alveolar wall and without obvious fibrosis

Predominantly a disease of middle - late life, owing to the cumulative effect of lifelong tobacco smoking

Risk factors:
- Smoking ~90% of cases
- Alpha-1-antitypsin deficiency
- Ritalin lung

Clinical: pink puffers, often hypocapnic

Pathology:
- A heterogenous group of pathological processes forming COPD

Morphological subtypes
- Centrilobular emphysema
- Panlobular emphysema
- Paraseptal emphysema
- Paracicatricial emphysema

315
Q

ALPHA 1 ANTITRYPSIN is

A

A hereditary metabolic disorder, the most common genetic cause of emphysema and metabolic liver disease in children

Results in the un-opposed action of the neutrophil elastase

316
Q

SILICOSIS is and path

A

A fibrotic pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of fine particles of crystalline silicon dioxide

Occurs in two forms, subdivided by their temporal relationship to the exposure to silica
- Acute - alveolar silicoproteinosis
- Classic - chronic interstitial reticulonodular disease

Imaging:
- Nodules 1-10mm in diameter
- Predominately upper lobe and posterior
- Calcification of nodules, eggshell calcification of node
- Perilymphatic distribution

317
Q

CWP is and path

A

Three main effects from carbon on the lungs:
- Anthracosis - harmless deposition of carbon dust
- Simple CWP
- Complicated CWP

Along with silicosis, asbestosis, berylliosis and talcosis, CWP is a fibrotic pneumoniosis

Not easily distinguished on imaging from silicosis

Imaging:
- Nodules tend to be less well-defined and more granulated
- Increased risk of tuberculosis

318
Q

MESOTHELIOMA is and path

A

An aggressive malignant tumour of the mesothelium

Most tumours arise from the pleura ~90%

Accounts for 5-28% of all malignancies that involve the pleura

There is a strong association between asbestos fibre exposure and mesothelioma
- Crocidolite is the most causative fibre type

Increased risk for those with household exposure

Clinically:
- Pleural effusions are seen in the vast majority of patients at some stage
- 25% are metastatic at presentation

Aetiology:
- Asbestos fibre exposure
- Erionite fibre exposure
- Simian virus 40
- Radiation exposure

Histology:
Three types:
- Epithelial ~60%
- Mixed ~25%
- Sarcomatoid 15%

The cytological and histological diagnosis can be difficult, with mesothelial hyperplasia and metastatic adenocarcinoma appearing similar

Specific markers:
- Calretinin
- Epithelial membrane antigen
- Cytokeratin
- Mesothelin

Subtypes e.g. multicystic/cystic are rarer and less aggressive

319
Q

PULMONARY ASPERGILLOSIS is and path

A

A collective term for conditions caused by infection with a fungus of the Aspergillus species

Multiple forms:
- Aspergilloma
- Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
- Invasive aspergillosis
- Obstructive bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

There are a variety of species. If the lungs are normal and host immunity is intact, this shouldn’t cause pathology

Both heightened (hypersensitivity) and reduced immunity predisposes

320
Q

Aspergilloma is and path

A

Mass-like fungal balls: mycetoma is an incorrect term

Underlying conditions:
- Pulmonary TB
- Sarcoidosis
- Bronchiectasis
- Pulmonary cavities:
- Bronchogenic cyst
- Pulmonary sequestration
- Pneumocystis pneumonia associated pneumatoceles

Haemoptysis may be present due to the surrounding reactive vascular granulation tissue

An eroded bronchial artery can lead to life-threatening haemoptysis

Pathology: a mass-like collection of fungal hyphae, mixed with mucous and cellular debris within a cavity, the walls of which demonstrate vascular granulation tissue

Commonly in the posterior upper lobes and superior lower lobes

Monod sign. can have calcs. bronchial arteries can be enlarged. pleura can be thickened

321
Q

ABPA is and path

A

Mostly patients with longstanding asthma, occasionally with cystic fibrosis

Generally patients are young and diagnosed before the age of 40

Major and minor criteria:
Major
- Clinical - asthma
- Radiographic:
- Pulmonary opacities
- Central bronchiectasis
- Immune system
- Blood eosinophilia
- Elevated IgG and/or IgE against A.fumigatus
- Increased serum IgE

Minor criteria
- Fungal elements in the sputum
- Expectoration of brown plugs/flecks
- Delayed skin reaction to fungal antigens

Pathology:
A hypersensitivity reaction towards aspergillus spp. Which grows in the lumen of the bronchi without invasion

The hypersensitivity initially causes bronchospasm and bronchial wall oedema - IgE mediated

Ultimately there is bronchial wall damage with loss of muscle and bronchial wall cartilage resulting in bronchiectasis (typically central bronchiectasis)

Both types I and III allergic reactions have been implicated

Bronchocentric granulomatosis often occurs - characterised by necrotising granulomatous inflammation that destroys the walls of the small bronchi

322
Q

Angio invasive aspergillosis is and path

A

A life threatening condition, seen in patients who are profoundly immunosuppressed

Pathology:
Spores of Aspergillus spp are inhaled and proliferate in the alveoli

The hyphae are able to invade the pulmonary arteries resulting in pulmonary necrosis and haemorrhage

May gain access to the systemic circulation and disseminate

If the neutrophil count recovers the central necrotic area of lung demarcates, shrinks and separates from the adjacent viable tissue = the air crescent sign

323
Q

CARCINOID TUMOURS are and path

A

Can be divided into two groups depending on location:
- Bronchial carcinoid tumours: central lesion
- Peripheral pulmonary carcinoid tumours: peripheral lesions

Can also be divided into typical and atypical by histology

Bronchial:
- Occur in relation to a bronchus - usually segmental or larger
- Typically affects patients from the 3rd-7th decades, with a mean age ~45
- Most are central
- Associations:
- Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
- Cushing syndrome - ACTH producing carcinoid tumour types

Peripheral:
- A subtype, less common than centrally-located bronchial carcinoids
- Most are discovered incidentally
- Many have a lobulated margin

324
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION is and path and causes

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid within the pleural space

Pathology: transudate vs exudate

Transudate - when there is an increase in hydrostatic pressure or a decrease of capillary oncotic pressure
- cardiac failure
- Cirrhosis
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Dressler syndrome
- Biochemical analysis:
- Protein concentration <30
- Lactate dehydrogenase <20

Exudate - occurs due to the increase in permeability of the microcirculation or alteration in the pleural space drainage to lymph nodes
- bronchial carcinoma
- Pulmonary embolism and infarction
- Pneumonia
- Tuberculosis
- Biochemical analysis
- Protein >30
- Lactate dehydrogenase >20

325
Q

PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECI is and path

A

Virtually never present in immunocompetent individuals

Typically occurs at CD4 counts <200 cells/mm

An atypical yeast-like fungus of the genus Pneumocystits, previously thought to be a protozoan

Ground glass pattern, predominantly perihilar or mid zones
Reticular opacities or septal thickening
Pneumatoceles

Differentials:
- Viral pneumonia - similar, but cysts are absent
- Mycobacterium TB when upper zone cysts are prominent
- Angio invasive aspergillosis

326
Q

PULMONARY LCH is and path

A

May be seen as part of widespread involvement or distinct entity in young adult smokers

Usually young adults, 20-40yo

A history of current or previous cigarette smoking is identified in up to 95% of cases

Associations:
- Haematopoietic neoplasms
- ALL
- AML

Can present with a pneumothorax

Proliferate in the bronchiolar and bronchial epithelium, forming granulomas

These evolve, peripheral fibrosis forms, resulting in traction on the central bronchiole which becomes cyst-like

So evolution nodule > cyst

Electron microscopy: Birbeck granules

327
Q

SARCOIDOSIS IS

A

Non caseating granulomatous multisystem disease with a wide range of clinical and radiographic manifestations

Most commonly presents in the 2nd-4th decades of life

No significant gender predominance

Pathology:
- A multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterized by the formation of inflammatory non-caseating granulomas within affected tissues
- Histologically, the lesions characteristically demonstrate an absence of a necrotic component, except in rare cases
- The granulomas may resolve spontaneously or progress to fibrosis
- Thought to represent a disorder of immune regulation, particularly of cell-mediated immunity
- Mycobacterium and propionibacterium RNA and DNA have been detected in sarcoidosis lesions - raising the possibility of an infectious trigger

Microscopic:
- Non-caseating granulomas
- Schaumann bodies
- Asteroid bodies
- Necrosis is atypical and may suggest another aetiology

Biochemical markers
- Elevated ACE
- Hypercalcaemia, hypercalciuria
- A positive Kveim-Siltzbach skin test helps to confirm the diagnosis

328
Q

ASBESTOS RELATED BENIGN PLEURAL DISEASE includes

A

Benign asbestos - induced pleural effusions: 20%, exudative
- Usually occur within 10yrs of exposure

Pleural plaques
- Almost always involve the parietal pleura
Visceral pleural involvement is usually at the lower and lateral aspect
- May be calcified, non-calcified or mixed
- Tend to spare the apices and costophrenic angles

Diffuse pleural thickening ~15%

329
Q

LUNG CA is and path

A

The leading type of cancer in the world, accounting for ~20% of deaths

Major risk factor is smoking, and increased risk can be divided by histological subtypes

Other risk factors:
- Asbestos
- Occupational exposure
- Diffuse lung fibrosis
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Associations:
Paraneoplastic:
Endocrine/metabolic
- SIADH causing hyponatreamia
- ACTH secretion (cushing syndrome)
- Carcinoid syndrome
- Gynaecomastia
- Adrenal insufficiency (addison) - from bilateral metastases
- Hyperparathyroidism
- Hypocalcaemia
- PTH-related peptide causing hypercalcaemia

Neurological
- Polyneuropathy
- Myelopathy
- Limbic encephalitis
- Cerebellar degeneration
- Lambert-Eaton myasthenia syndrome

Other
- Finger clubbing
- Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - squamous cell carcinoma
- Nephrotic syndrome
- Polymyositis
- Dermatomyositis
- Eosinophilia

Pathology:
Non-small cell lung cancer 80%
- Adenocarcinoma 35%
- Most common, especially women, peripheral
- Squamous cell cancer 30%
- Smoking, most common to cavitate, poor prognosis
- Large cell carcinoma 15%
- Peripheral, large, usually >4cm

Small cell lung cancer 20%
- Almost always in smoking, metastasizes early
- Most common primary lung malignancy to cause paraneoplastic syndromes and SVC obstruction
- Worst prognosis

Markers
- PDL1
- TTF-1: expressed in most except squamous cell cancer

Genetics
- ROS1 mutation
- ALK mutation

330
Q

SMALL CELL is and path

A

Staging:
- Limited
- Confined to one hemithorax
- Inclusive of hilar/supraclavicular lymph nodes
- Suitable for radiotherapy and chemotherapy
- Extensive
- Extends beyond one hemithorax
- Only chemotherapy
- 70% of cases

90-95% occur centrally, arising adjacent to a lobar or main bronchus

Serology:
- Lactate dehydrogenase is a non-specific marker of survival

The most common cause of SVC obstruction

331
Q

SQUAMOUS CELL is and path

A

Second only to adenocarcinoma as the most commonly encountered

~30-35% of cancers

Associated with smoking, more common in male smokers, adenocarcinoma is more common in female smokers

Presentation depends on location of the tumour
- Central > invasion and obstruction of the bronchi
- Peripheral > invade the chest wall e.g. pancoast tumour

Pathology:
- Invade the surrounding parenchyma and extend into the chest wall
- Have a tendency to undergo central necrosis
- Characterised by intercellular bridging and/or keratinisation of the individual cells or squamous pearls

Degree of differentiation classifies it into 4 subtypes:
- Papillary
- Clear cell
- Small cell
- Basaloid

Immunohistochemistry:
- P63, negative for TTF1

332
Q

LUNG ADENOCARCINOMA is and path

A

The most common histologic type of lung cancer

Pathology:
Preinvasive
- Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
- Adenocarcinoma in situ

Minimally invasive
- Lepidic growth pattern

Invasive >5mm invasion

AAH <5mm.

adeno in situ <3cm, lepic pattern. absence of stromal vascular or pleural invasion

minimally invasive described small solitary adenocarcinomas with either pure lepidic or lepidic preominant and <5mm stromal invasion.

invasive >5mm invasion. further subcat according to dominant histo pattern.

EGFR and KRAS are becoming increasingly important for consideration of therapy

333
Q

THYMOMA IS

A

rare thymic epithelial lesion.

Over 30 conditions are associated with a thymoma
- Myasthenia gravis - most common
- Pure cell aplasia
- Hypogammaglobinaemia

SLE

Pathology:
- Macroscopically of variable shape - typically rounded with a bosselated outer surface
- Both non-invasive and invasive thymomas may appear to have an intact capsule
- Larger tumours are more likely to demonstrate cystic changes as well as haemorrhage and calcification

Imaging:
- Calcification is frequently seen in thymic carcinoma

334
Q

Rheumatoid lung disease patterns

A

Rheumatoid nodules tend to be located in the periphery of the upper and middle zones.”

Most commonly UIP, with peripheral and basilar predominance of fibrosis, indistinguishable from idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Can have bronchiectasis

Bronchiolitis may be due to chronic infection or constrictive bronchiolitis

Rheumatoid nodes are rare. May be single or multiple, can become large and cavitate

Rheumatoid nodules may be complicated by bronchopleural fistula

335
Q

PULMONARY HAEMOSIDEROSIS is

A

Surplus iron deposition in the lungs

can be primary or secondary
- primary
- goodpastures
- heiners
- idiopathic
- secondary; usually MS

Characterised by:
- Small, ill-defined pulmonary nodules or
- Coarse reticular areas of increased opacity with a bias for middle and lower lung regions
- Not actually calcified, tend to be large nodular opacities
- Pulmonary ossification - dense nodules with a tenduancy for confluence

336
Q

PULMONARY ALVEOLAR MICROLITHIASIS is

A

A rare idiopathic condition characterised by widespread intra-alveolar deposition of spherical calcium phosphate microliths

Slight female predilection

Associations: testicular microlithiasis

Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis is believed to be due to a mutation in the SLC34A2 gene that causes inactivation of a sodium-dependent phosphate cotransporter, which is found mainly in alveolar type II cells. This cotransporter normally clears phosphate from degraded surfactant, and when inactivated there is accumulation of phosphate in the alveolus, and calcium phosphate microliths are then thought to form 9.

An autosomal recessive inheritance pattern has been proposed given familial occurrence in a majority of cases 2,3,9. Usually, there is no abnormal calcium metabolism.

337
Q

PULMONARY HAMARTOMA is and path

A

Benign neoplasms composed of cartilage, connective tissue, muscle, fat and bone

May be chondromatous (most common), leiomyomatous or a mixture

Usually found in the 4th-5th decade, uncommon in children

Majority are located peripherally within the lungs (>90%), endobronchial hamartomas represent 5% of lesions

60% have fat, 20-30% have calcification - popcorn like

Pulmonary carcinoid:
- Higher attenuation
- More lobulation
- More distal nodularity
- Distal hyperlucency
- Atelectasis
- More bronchial extension and involvement
- Marked homogenous contrast enhancement

338
Q

TUBERCULOSIS is and path

A

A wide disease spectrum, predominantly caused by the organism mycobacterium tuberculosis

ulmonary manifestations depend on whether the infection is primary or post-primary

Primary:
- Usually asymptomatic
- Although a small number go on to have symptomatic haematological dissemination = miliary TB
- 5%, usually with impaired immunity, go on to have progressive primary tuberculosis
- May present with a chronic dry cough +/- haemoptysis
- ghon lesion; clacified fdocus
- ranke complex; focus and calcified node

post primary
- recurs years latyer, decreased immaune status

Location:
- Primary - anywhere in children, upper or lower zone predilection in adults
- Post primary - strong predilection for the upper zones
- Miliary - evenly distributed

339
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS IS

A

An autosomal recessive genetic disease that affects the exocrine function of the lungs, liver, pancreas, small bowel, sweat glands and male genital system

Due to homozygous defect of the CFTR gene located on chromosome 7q31.2
- Encodes for the transmembrane protein “cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator” responsible for regulating chloride passage across cell membranes
- Also encodes for the indlux of chloride and increases the sodium channel activity in the skin = increase in salt content in the skin of pts with CF

Atleast 6 classes of mutations

340
Q

TWIN PREGNANCIES class, complications, imaging

A

Broadly categorised into:
- Dizygotic 70%
- Monozygotic 30%

DIZYGOTIC
- Independent fertilisation of two ova, and always results in dichorionic-diamniotic pregnancies
- 20% of monozygotic pregnancies will be dichorionic-diamniotic
- Documentation of different sex fetus’ is the most reliable sign of dizygotic

Risk factors:
- IVF
- Advanced maternal age
- Advanced parity
- Maternal family history
- Ethnicity

MONOZYGOTIC
- Due to fertilisation of a single ovum that then separates into two
- Unlike dizygotic pregnancy, monozygotic pregnancies do not have maternal age, family history or ethnic predisposition
- The time of separation determines the chorionicity and amnionicity of the pregnancy
- 1-2 days: DCDA
- 4-8 days: MCDA
- 1-2 weeks: MCMA
- >2 weeks: conjoined twins

Complications
- The risk depends on chorionicity - prognosis is worse for mono-mono and best for di-di
- Mono-mono: >50% perinatal mortality
Monochorionic complications
- ~30% of pregnancy related complications
- Share a single placenta, so prone to haemodynamic complications e.g.
- Twin-twin transfusion
- Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
- Twin reversed arterial perfusion sequence
- Acardiac twin
- Demise of co-twin
- Twin embolisation syndrome

Monoamniotic complications
- Share the amniotic sac
- Prone to entangled cords, as well as all the monochorionic complications
- Conjoined twins can only occur in monoamniotic pregnancies

US
Dichorionic
- Separate gestational sacs with chorion extending between them <10 wks
- Twin-peak sign
- Separate placental masses
- May be of different genders

Monochorionic diamniotic
- Single gestational sac
- Two yolk sacs
- T sign: thin intertwin membrane
- Single placental mass

Monoamniotic
- No intertwin membrane
- Usually one yolk sac
- Entangled cords are common

341
Q

TWIN-TWIN-TRANSFUSION SYNDROME is

A

A potential complication that can occur in a monochorionic twin pregnancy

Results from unbalanced vascular (arteriovenous and arterioarterial) anastomoses in the placenta

So the placental circulation is directed predominantly towards one twin and away from the other

The resultant hypovolaemia and hypoperfusion in one twin and hypervolaemia and hypertension in the other create a cascade of hormonal changes including the renin-angiotensin system

Leads to chronic tubulopathy and oliguria in the hypovolaemia twin, with consequent oligohydramnios, and polyuria and subsequent polydramnios in the hypervolaemic twin

342
Q

TRAPS is

A

twin reversed arterial perfusion

rare comp of MC preganncies

lack of a well formed heart in one twin “acardiac”.

superficial artery to artery placental anatomosis providing perfusion of the acardiac twin by the “donor” twin

reversel of the acardiac twin umbilical artery doppler; flow toward fetus

343
Q

TRAPs imaging

A

acardiac
- severely abnormal
- morph types; acardius, anceps, amorphus, acormus
- heart absent or abnormal
- head and upper extremities underdeveloped due to perfusion to iliacs
- severe anasarca and cystic hydromas
- single UA common

pump
- often normal, but can have anomalies
- ridk of high output heart failure
- complications
= HOCF
= cerebral ischaemia
= preterm
= FDIU

344
Q

SHEEHAN SYNDROME is and path

A

A rare cause of pituitary apoplexy and hypopituitarism

Only occurs in postpartum females who experience large volume haemorrhage and hypovolaemic shock, either during delivery or afterwards with resultant necrosis of the anterior pituitary cells

Clinical presentation:
Pituitary failure
- Can be silent, with delayed hypopituitarism
- Agalactorrhoea
- Amenorrhoea
- Oligomenorrhoea
- Adrenal insufficiency
Optic chiasm compression
- Visual field loss
- Headache
- Ophthalmoplegia

Pathology
Hyperplasia of pituitary cells occurs in the weeks preceding delivery resulting in increased metabolic demand, without a concomitant increase in blood supply

The anterior pituitary blood supply is under relatively low pressure, making these cells susceptible to ischaemia

The posterior pituitary has its blood supply under higher pressure, not usually affected

345
Q

HYDROPS is and path

A

Excessive extravasation of fluid into the third space in a fetus which could be due to heart failure, volume overload, decreased oncotic pressure, or increased vascular permeability

Defined as the accumulation of fluid +/- oedema involving at least two fetal components, which may manifest as:
- Pleural effusion
- Pericardial effusion
- Ascites
- Generalised body oedema:
- Fetal anasarca - Subcutaneous skin thikening to more than 5mm
- Nuchal oedema - swollen neck >3mm up to the 14th week, >4-6mm later. No septations
- Cystic hydroma
- Placental enlargement
- Polyhydramnios
- Hepatomegaly

Considered a prenatal form of cardiac failure

Divided into two broad groups:
Immune hydrops
- Minority ~10%
- Fetomateral blood group incompatibility

Non-immune hydrops
- Chromosomal anomalies
- Turner syndrome
- Trisomies - 13, 18, 21
- Cardiac - tachyarrhythmias
- Twin pregnancy complications
- In-utero infections
- Parvovirus B19 is most common infectious cause, secondary to anaemia
- Fetal tumours capable of producing AV shunts

346
Q

PLACENTA ACCRETA is and path

A

A general term applied to abnormal placental adherence

The placental villi extend beyond the confines of the endometrium and attach to the superficial aspect of the myometrium, but without deep invasion

Risk factors:
- Placenta previa
- Prior caesarean section
- Uterine anomalies
- Previous uterine surgery
- Dilation and curettage
- Myomectomy
- Maternal age >35
- Multiparity

Abnormal implantation is thought to result from a deficiency in the decidua basalis, where the decidua is partially or completely replaced by loose connective tissue

Chorionic villi directly attach to the myometrium with little or no intervening decidua

Lab investigations:
= Elevated alpha-fetoprotein
= Elevated BHCG

347
Q

INCRETA is

A

Intermediate level, with placental villi extending beyond the confines of the endometrium and invading the myometrium

348
Q

PERCRETA is

A

Transmural extension of placental tissue across the myometrium with a serosal breach

349
Q

PLACENTA PREVIA is and path

A

Low lying placenta - close to, or covering the internal cervical os

The most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage

Cant make the diagnosis before 20 weeks

Classification:
1 - low lying placenta
Lies in the lower uterine segment, but lower edge 0.5 - 2.0cm from the internal os

2 - marginal placenta
Tissue reaches the margins of the internal cervical os, but doesn’t cover it

3 - partial previa
Partially covers the internal cervical os

4 - complete previa
Placenta completely covers the internal cervical os

350
Q

PLACENTAL ABRUPTION is and path

A

Premature separation of the normally implanted placenta after the 20th week of gestation, and before the 3rd stage of labour

Risk factors
- Pre-eclampsia and maternal hypertension
- Previous placental abruption
- Prolonged rupture of membranes
- Maternal age
- Maternal trauma
- Cigarette smoking

Clinical presentation
- Increased abdominal tone, contractions
- Pathology - unknown, likely rupture of a spiral artery with haemorrhage into the decidua basalis leading to separation of the placenta
- The small vessel disease seen in abruptio placentae may also result in placental infarction

Can be classified as:
- Marginal placental abruption
- Retroplacental abruption
- Preplacental abruption

351
Q

PRE-ECLAMPSIA is and path

A

A disorder of pregnancy involving new-onset hypertension and involvement of one or more other organ systems
- Systolic >140, diastolic >90

Affect up to 8% of pregnancies

Risk factors:
- DM
- Chronic hypertension
- Family history
- Nulliparity
- Advanced maternal age
- Obesity
- Antiphospholipid syndrome
- Pre-eclampsia in prior pregnancy

Occurs after 20wks gestation, and up to 4-6 wks postpartum, with one or more of:
- Proteinuria
- Thrombocytopenia
- Renal impairment
- Liver impairment
- Pulmonary oedema
- Headache or visual disturbance

The addition of tonic-clonic seizures = eclampsia

US may demonstrate IUGR, and mean UA PI >95th centile

352
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS is and path

A

A metabolic bone disease characterised by decreased bone mass and skeletal fragility

Defined as:
- BMD T-score < -2.5 SD
- Measured in post menopausal women and men at least 50yo
- Reference standard is the femoral neck, but other sites e.g. lumbar spine can be used

Essentially decreased bony tissue per unit volume of bone

There is no microstructural or biochemical change - as in osteomalacia or rickets
So the mineral-to-osteoid ratio is normal
- Decreased in osteomalacia

Can be localised or diffuse:

Primary - no cause identified
- Post menopausal (type 1): occurs in 50-65yo females,
- Disproportionate loss of cancellous bone as compared to cortical bone
- So more involvement of cancellous bone-rich areas e.g. vertebrae and ends of long bones
- Senile (type 2): in the elderly
- Proportionate loss of cortical and cancellous bones affecting long bones

Secondary (type 3): due to a range of causes, including:
- Endocrine disease - cushings, hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, DM
- Chronic illness - COPD, chronic liver disease, multiple sclerosis, coeliac disease
- Inflammation
- Medications - steroids, phenytoin
- Thalassaemia major
- Nutritional disturbances - malnutrition, anorexia
- Muscular dystrophies - duchenne muscular dystrophy

353
Q

HYPERPARATHYROIDISM is and path

A

Excess parathyroid hormone in the body

Can be primary, secondary or tertiary

Supported biochemically by either an elevated serum parathyroid hormone level or an inappropriately normal level in the setting of hypercalcaemia

Associations:
- MEN 1, 2A

Pathology:
- Increased levels of parathyroid hormone lead to increased osteoclastic activity
- The resultant bone resorption produces cortical thinning (subperiosteal resorption) and osteopenia

Subtypes:
Primary hyperparathyroidism
- Parathyroid adenoma ~80%
- Parathyroid hyperplasia 10-15%
- Parathyroid carcinoma 1-5%

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Caused by chronic hypocalcaemia with renal osteodystrophy being the most common cause
- Others - malnutrition, vitamin D deficiency
- Results in parathyroid hyperplasia

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
- Autonomous parathyroid adenoma, caused by the chronic overstimulation of hyperplastic glands in renal insufficiency

354
Q

HYPERPARATHYROIDISM imaging

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption
- Radial aspect of the proximal and middle phalanges of the 2nd and 3rd fingers
- Medial aspect of the tibia/femur/humerus

Subchondral resorption
- Lateral end of the clavicles
- Symphysis pubis
- Sacroiliac joints

Subligamentous resorption
- Ischial tuberosity
- Trochanters

Intracortical resorption - cigar/oval shaped or tunnel shaped radiolucency in the cortex

Terminal tuft erosion

Rugger-jersey spine

Osteopenia

Brown tumours

Salt and pepper sign in the skull

Chondrocalcinosis

355
Q

OSTEOMALACIA is and path

A

Bone softening due to insufficient mineralisation of the osteoid secondary to any process that results in vitamin D deficiency or defects in phosphate metabolism
- High remodelling rate - excessive osteoid formation with normal/little mineralisation
- Low remodelling rate - normal osteoid production with diminished mineralisation

Aetiology:
Vitamin D deficiency - most common
- Inadequate intake or absorption
- Dietary deficiency, lack of sunlight exposure, gastric surgery, small bowel disease - crohns/coeliac, or pancreatic insufficiency
- Deficiency of vitamin d metabolism
- Cirrhosis
- Chronic kidney disease
- Cytochrome P450 inducers

Phosphate deficiency
- Inadequate intake or absorption
- Renal phosphate wasting
- Hereditary hypophosphataemic rickets
- Fanconi syndrome
- Tumour induced osteomalacia - due to phsphaturic mesenchymal tumour

Decreased deposition of calcium in bone
- Bisphosphonates

Markers:
- 25(OH)D decreased
- Serum calcium - slightly decreased/normal
- Urinary calcium - decreased
- Serum phosphorus - decreased
- Serum alkaline phosphatase - elevated
- Serum parathyroid hormone - elevated

356
Q

OSTEOPETROSIS is and path

A

An uncommon hereditary disorder that results from defective osteoclasts

Bones become sclerotic and thick, but abnormal structure causes them to be weak and brittle

Clinical:
- Present with fractures, often with multiple areas of callous formation
- Crowding of the marrow > bone marrow function is affected, resulting in myelopthisic anaemia, extramedullary haematopoiesis and splenomegaly
- May terminate in acute leukaemia

Pathology:
- Localised chromosomal defects which result in defective osteoclasts and overgrowth of bone
- Disordered architecture results in weak and brittle bones
- Osteoclasts lack carbonic anhydrase, which may play a role in the pathophysiology

Types:
- Infantile autosomal recessive osteopetrosis
- Benign adults autosomal dominant osteopetrosis

Treatment:
- Bone marrow transplant

357
Q

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA is and path

A

A heterogenous group of congenital, non sex-linked, genetic disorders of collagen type I production, involving connective tissues and bones

The hallmark is osteoporosis and fragile bones which fracture easily, as well as, blue sclera, dental fragility and hearing loss

Occurs with equal frequency between males and females, races and ethnic groups

Associations:
- Congenital cataracts

Pathology:
- Disturbance in the synthesis of type I collagen, which is the predominant protein of the extracellular matrix of most tissues
- In bone, it results in osteoporosis
- It’s a major constituent of dentine sclerae, ligaments, blood vessels and skin

Genetics:
- A mutation in one of the two genes which carry instructions for making type 1 collagen
- COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes which encode the alpha2 polypeptide chains, and are responsible for >90% of all cases
- Depending on the type, the inheritance can be autosomal dominant (>95%), autosomal recessive (<10%) or by sporadic mutation

Types
- 1 - mild
- 2 - perinatal lethal
- 3 - progressive deforming
- 4 - 8 vary in severity, these are uncommon

358
Q

FIBROUS DYSPLASIA is and path

A

Non neoplastic, tumour like congenital process, manifested as a localised defect in osteoblastic differentiation and maturation, with replacement of the normal bone with large fibrous stroma and islands of immature woven bone

4 subtypes:
- Monostotic - single bone
- Polyostotic - multiple bones
- Craniofacial fibrous dysplasia - skull and facial bones alone
- Cherubism - mandible and maxilla alone - not true fibrous dysplasia

75% occur before the age of 30yo. The polyostotic form usually presents by age 10

Usually sporadic, but has a number of associations:
- McCune-Albright syndrome: 2-3% of cases with the polyostotic form
- Isolated endocrinopathy without the full McCune-Albright syndrome precocious puberty in girls
- Mazabraud syndrome

Pathology:
- Due to developmental dysplasia and focal arrest in normal osteoblastic activity secondary to a non-hereditary mutation which results in the presence of all of the components of normal bone with a lack of normal differentiation into their mature structures

Mono-ostotic: 70-80% of cases
- Becomes inactive after puberty, and the monostotic form does not progress to polyostotic form
- Location:
- Ribs - 30%, most common
- Proximal femur 25%
- Tibia > craniofacial bones > humerus

Polyostotic:
- Often unilateral and monomelic: one limb
- Femur 90%, tibia 80%, pelvis 80%, foot etc.

Sarcomatous dedifferentiation:
- Osteosarcoma - most common
- Fibrosarcoma
- Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
- Rarely chondrosarcoma
- More common in the polyostotic form

359
Q

mccune albright

A

cafe au lait
polyostotic fd
endocrinopathy

360
Q

mazabraud

A

polyostotic fd
intramuscular myxomas

361
Q

PAGET DISEASE is and path

A

A common chronic bone disorder characterised by excessive abnormal bone remodelling

Relatively common, may be male predilection

Pathology:
- The aetiology is not entirely known, but a disease of osteoclasts
- Viral infection in association with genetic susceptibility has been postulated

Three classically described stages, part of a continuous spectrum:
- Early destructive stages (incipient active, lytic): predominanted by osteoclastic activity
- Intermediate stages (active, mixed): osteoblastic as well as osteoclastic activity
- Late stage (inactive, sclerotic/blastic)

Markers:
- Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase
- Normal calcium and phosphorus levels
- Increased urine hydroxyproline

Complications:
- Osseous weakening resulting in deformity and pathological fractures
- Increased risk of osteoarthritis
- Hearing loss
- Sensorineural hearing loss
- Conductive hearing loss
- Neural compression
- Basilar invagination may occur in advanced cases with hydrocephalus or brainstem compression
- Secondary development of tumours
- Osteosarcoma ~1% of cases, highly resistant to treatment
- GCT of the skull
- High output congestive cardiac failure
- Hyperparathyroidism ~10%
- Extramedullary haematopoiesis

362
Q

OSTEONECROSIS is and path

A

A generic term referring to the ischemic death of the constituents of the bone

A wide variety of causes, and can affect any bone in the body

Historically
- Subchondral (epiphyseal) ON was called ischaemic and AVN
- Bone infarct - medullary (metaphyseal) ON
- ON is a general, more inclusive term

Pathology:
- Infarction begins when the blood supply to a section of bone is interrupted
- Once established, there is a central necrotic core surrounded by an ischaemic zone - with the inner portion being ‘almost dead’ and the outer portion being hyperaemic
- Beyond this is normal viable marrow
- Between the normal and ischaemic zone that demarcation occurs with the development of viable granulation separating dead tissue = double line sign on MRI
- Double line: T2 low outer sclerosis, with T2 bright inner (granulation tissue) line
- When the infarct is subcortical, a wedge of tissue is typically affected, the apex of which points towards the centre of the bone

Aetiology
- Trauma
- Caisson disease
- Haemoglobinopathies - sickle cell disease
- Pregnancy related
- Radiotherapy
- Connective tissue disorders
- Renal transplantation
- Corticosteroid excess
- Pancreatitis
- Gaucher disease
- Alcohol
- Cirrhosis
- Freiberg disease
- Chemotherapy

363
Q

OSTEOMYELITIS is and path

A

Inflammation of the bone due to infection, typically bacterial

Can occur at any age, particularly common age 2-12 and in males

Pathology:
- Results from haematogenous spread, or direct from trauma/ulcers etc.
- Bacteria multiple, localised inflammatory reaction results in localised cell death
- With time, the infection becomes demarcated by a rim of granulation tissue and new bone deposition
- No organisms are recovered in up to 50% of cases
- Staph Aureus is the most common

Other scenarios:
- E coli - IVDU and GIT infection
- Pseudomonas - IVDU
- Klebsiella
- HIB - neonate, and GB step

Location:
- Lower limb most common
- Vertebrae: lumbar > thoracic > cervical
- Radial styloid
- SI joints
- Neonates: metaphysis and/or epiphysis
- Children: metaphysis
- Adults: epiphyses and subchondral regions

364
Q

TB SPONDYLITIS is and path

A

Vertberal body osteomyelitis and IV discitis

Pathology: haematogenous spread via arteries and veins

Anterior involvement: spread through the anterior arterial arcade that richly supplies the subchaondral paradiscal bone, resulting in infection anterosuperiorly and anteroinferior - adjacent to the disc
- The disc is conspiciously spared due to sparse vascularity
- Subligamentous spread
- Gradual anterior collapse = acute kyphotic/gibbus deformity

Central involvement: spread via the venous plexus of Batson, typically resulting in infection arising centrally within the vertebral body
- More common in older patients

Posterior involvement - appendiceal pattern due to venous haematogenous spread via the posterior venous plexus

Cold abscess: large paraspinal abscess’ can develop without severe pain or frank pus, prominent inflammatory signs and symptoms

365
Q

MECONIUM ASPIRATION us and imaging

A

Small airways obstruction and a chemical pneumonitis

XRAY
Increased lung volumes
- Hyperinflated lungs with flattened hemidiaphragms
- Secondary to distal small airway obstruction and gas trapping

Asymmetric patchy pulmonary opacities
- Due to subsegmental atelectasis

Pleural effusions

Pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum

366
Q

SEQUESTRATION is and path

A

Refers to the aberrant formation of segmental lung tissue with no connection to the bronchial tree or pulmonary arteries

A bronchopulmonary foregut malformation

Extralobular more commonly presents in newborns as respiratory distress, cyanosis, or infection
- Venous drainage into systemic veins
- Separated from any surrounding lung by its own pleura

Intralobular presents in late childhood or adolescence with recurrent pulmonary infections
- Majority
- Venous drainage commonly occurs via the pulmonary veins, but can be through the azygos-hemiazygos system
- Closely connected to adjacent normal lung, doesn’t have a separate pleura

Prefer the lower lobes
- 60% affect the LLL, 40% the RLL
- Extralobar is always the LLL, and 10% can be subdiaphragmatic

Associations
- CPAM
- Congenital heart disease
- Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
- Scimitar syndrome

May show cystic spaces if infected

A triangular opacity in the affected segment

367
Q

HYALINE MEMBRANE DISEASE is and path

A

Results form insufficient production of surfactant in preterm neonates
- Uncommon after 36wks gestation

The lack of surfactant increases the surface tension in alveoli causing collapse.

A diffuse type of adhesive atelectasis

Reduced lung volumes are key on imaging.
- Diffuse ground glass changes - bilateral and symmetrical +/- air bronchograms

Treated with exogenous surfactant administration and supportive oxygen therapy

There is deposition of a layer of hyaline proteinaceous material in the peripheral airspaces of infants who succumb to this condition

Associations: male gender, maternal diabetes, and delivery by caesarean section

Fundamentally a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant
- Responsible for the reduction of surface tension
- Surfactant is produced by type II alveolar cells, accelerated after the 35th week of gestation
- Synthesis is modulated by a variety of hormones and growth factors.

Prophylactic surfactant treatments are given, as well as antenatal glucocorticoid therapy

368
Q

CONGENITAL PULMONARY AIRWAY MALFORMATION is and path

A

Multicystic mass of segmental lung tissue with abnormal bronchial proliferation

Part of a spectrum of bronchopulmonary foregut malformations

If large, can cause pulmonary hypoplasia with resultant poor prognosis

Pathology:
- Results from failure of normal bronchoalvoelar development with a hamartomatous proliferation of terminal respiratory units in a gland-like pattern (adenomatoid) without proper alveolar formation
- Histologically characterised by adenomatoid proliferation of bronchiole-like structures and macro- or microcysts lined by columnar or cuboidal epithelium and absence of cartilage and bronchial glands
- These have intracystic communications and, unlike bronchogenic cysts, can also have a connection to the tracheobronchial tree

Subtypes
1 - 4
Type 1 is most common
- 70% of cases
- Large cysts, one or more dominant cyst 2-10cm in size

2 - 15-20% of cases
- Cysts are <2cm in diameter
- Associated with other abnormalities
- Renal agenesis or dysgenesis
- Pulmonary sequestration
- Congenital cardiac anomalies

3 ~10%
- Microcysts, typically involve an entire lobe

4 - unlined cyst, typically affects a single lobe

0 - rare, lethal

Location
- Unilateral, involve a single lobe, and less frequently in the middle lobe

Associations:
- Hybrid lesions - CPAM and sequestration
- Renal agenesis
- Polyhydramnios
- Hydrops fetalis

369
Q

CONGENITAL DIAPHRAGMATIC HERNIA is and path

A

84% left sided, 13% right sided, 2% bilateral

Mortality is determined by the development of pulmonary hypoplasia due to mass effect on the developing lung

Diaphragm development is complete ~9th week of gestation

Pathology:
- Bochdalek - most common
- Posterolateral
- Morgagni
- Less common, anterior, presents later

Associations:
- Pulmonary hypoplasia
- LV hypoplasia
- Intestinal malrotation
- Bronchopulmonary sequestration

370
Q

PRUNE BELLY SYNDROME is and path

A

Eagle Barrett syndrome or triad syndrome

A rare anomy comprising of three major findings:
- Gross pelvicalyceal and ureteric dilatation with renal dysplasia
- Anterior abdominal wall underdevelopment
- Bilateral undescended testes in males

Associations:
Aneuploidic syndromic associations
- Trisomy 18, 13
Congenital cardiac anomalies
- VSD
- ASD
- TOF
Intestinal malrotation
Imperforate anus
Talipes equinovarus

Urinary tract abnormalities include:
- Bilateral hydroutereronephrosis - extremely dilated, tortuous ureters
- Varying degrees of renal dysplasia
- Enlarged urinary bladder, often with urachal diverticulum
- VUR is common
- Poor bladder contractility
- Dilated posterior urethra without urethral obstruction

371
Q

WILMS TUMOUR is and path

A

A malignant paediatric renal tumour

The most common renal mass, typically occurs in childhood 1-11yrs, with peak incidence 3-4yrs

Associations:
Overgrowth syndromes - WT2 gene
- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
- Perlman syndrome
- Sotos syndrome

Non-overgrowth - WT1 gene
- WAGR syndrome
- Denys-Drash syndrome
- Fasier syndrome
- Bloom syndrome

Isolated abnormalities
- Cryptorchidism
- Hemihypertropy
- Hypospadias
- Sporadic aniridia

Risk factors: nephroblastomatosis

Pathology:
- Typically arises from mesodermal precursors of the renal parenchyma
- Implicated genes on chromosome 11

372
Q

NEC is and path

A

Risk factors:
- Prematurity 50-80%
- Congenital heart disease
- Perinatal asphyxia
- Decreased umbilical flow in utero

Pathology:
- Usually idiopathic and multi-factorial
- A combination of ischaemic and infective aetiology
- Inflammation starts from the mucosal surface and progresses to haemorrhagic and coagulative necrosis
- Ensuing loss of mucosal integrity, transmural necrosis and perforation
- Can affect any part of the large or small bowel, most commonly the terminal ileum

373
Q

TESTICULAR GERM CELL TUMOUR general

A

These account for 90% of primary testicular tumours

The most common non-haematologic malignancy in men age 15-49yo

Divided into:
Testicular seminoma – 40%

Non-seminomatous – 60%
- Embryonal cell carcinoma
- Choriocarcinoma
- Yolk sac tumour
- Testicular teratoma
- Mixed germ cell tumour 15%

Testicular non-germ cell tumours – 10%
- leydig
- sertoli

374
Q

SEMINOMA is and path

A

Age 15-49

Risk factors
- Undescended testis 10-40x increased risk
- Previous tumour in the contralateral testis
- Family history

Bilateral are rare ~2% and almost always asynchronous

Pathology: pure seminoma on histo, and not associated with an elevated AFP
Otherwise classified as non-seminomatous

Three subtypes:
Classic: 85%,
- infrequent mitoses; monotonous sheet of large cells with abundant cytoplasm and round hyperchromatic nuclei, prominent nucleoli

Anaplastic: 10%,
- ≥3 mitotic figures per high-power field

Spermatocytic: 5%,
- older male patients above 60 years old, rarely metastasise; well-differentiated with cells resembling secondary spermatids

On gross examination, these are pale grey – yellow nodules that are uniform or slightly lobulated and often bulge form the cut surface

375
Q

NON SEMINOMATOUS germ cell tumours are and path (including types)

A

Occur in younger patients, late teens - twenties

The most common primary testicular malignancy

Tend to be more aggressive than seminomas, and frequently metastasise

Markers:
70% produce hormone markers
- AFP – elevated in yolk sac
- BHCG – elevated in choriocarcinoma
- Lactate dehydrogenase

Tend to be more heterogenous on US, and T2 – frequent cystic areas or calcification

Subtypes:
Embryonal cell carcinoma - rare
- Age 25-30yo

Choriocarcinoma
- Age 20-30yo
- Most commonly detected as a component of a mixed malignant germ cell tumour
- The pure form is rare
- BHCG elevated

Yolk sac tumour
- Most common childhood tumour 80%, most before 2yo
- Pure is rare in adults, but mixed GCT is commonly seen
- Aetiology: totipotent cells which later form extraembryonic fetal membranes give rise to yolk sac tumours
- Markers: AFP elevated in >90%
- Macroscopically, the testis is replaced by a gelatinous mass
- US: diffusely enlarged, heterogenous testis
- MRI: heterogenous testicular mass with post-contrast heterogenous enhancement, areas of haemorrhage/necrosis

Teratoma
- Often aggressive in its biological behaviour
- Often exists as part of a testicular mixed GCT
- Divided by the age of the patient and degree of differentiation
- Mature – well-differentiated, biologically indolent
- Consider aggressive in post-pubertal males
- Prepubertal are usually benign
- Immature are more common in the testis
- US Cystic, heterogenous, mixed mucinous or sebaceous material, with or without hair follicles

Mixed
- Consist of two+ types of GCT

376
Q

TESTICULAR SEX CORD/STROMAL TUMOURS are and path

A

~90% are benign, but cannot be differentiated from testicular malignancies on imaging

LEYDIG
- Most common, ~30% hormonally active
- Non-specific imaging, but serum hormone levels are abnormal
- Hypoestrogenism + gynaecomastia
- Virilisation
- Tend to be bimodal, one peak in paeds ~5-10yo, and one in adults ~20-30yo.
- Malignancy in ~10% of tumours
Pathology
- Arise from the interstitial cells of Leydig, adjacent to the seminiferous tubules

SERTOLI
- Less common than Leydig cell tumour
Pathology
- Large-cell calcifying - paeds
- Intratubular large cell hyalinising sertoli cell neoplasia
- Associated with paediatric males with Peutz-Jegher syndrome
- Sclerosing Sertoli cell tumour - adults
- Less likely to be hormonally active
- Associated with the Carney complex

377
Q

BILATERAL TESTICULAR NEOPLASTIC LESIONS

A

Lymphoblastic leukaemia (acute or chronic)

Lymphoma (Non-hodgkins)
- Primary testicular lymphoma is rare

Metastases

378
Q

PROSTATE CANCER is and path

A

The most common primary malignant tumour in men

Adenocarcinoma is the most common histological type

Primarily a disease of elderly men

PSA >1-4ng/dL is abnormal

Pathology
- 95% develop from the acini of the prostatic ducts
- Arise in the posterior/peripheral (70%) prostate gland more commonly than in the anterior gland and central zone (30%)
- Can spread by local invasion – bladder and seminal vesicles, lymphatic (pelvic > para-aortic > inguinal), or haematogenous
- Bone > lung > liver > pleura > adrenal glands

Histology
- Grading is using the Gleason score – the sum of the most prevalent and second most prevalent types of dysplasia, each on a scale of 1-5
- 5 is the most dysplastic

379
Q

PROSTATITIS is

A

Infection or inflammation of the prostate gland

A clinical diagnosis, but imaging is used for abscess formation

Subtypes:
- Acute bacterial
- Chronic bacterial
- Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome
- Granulomatous

380
Q

ADENOMATOID TUMOUR OF THE SCROTUM is and path

A

Benign, solid extratesticular lesions that can originate from the epididymis, tunica vaginalis or spermatic cord

3rd - 5th decade

Mesothelial origin

Most common extra testicular neoplasm, and the most common tumour of the epididymis
- Occur more often in the lower pole than the upper pole – 4:1

Usually an incidental finding, manifest as a small (<2cm) scrotal mass
- More frequently on the left

381
Q

BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERTROPHY is and path

A

Hyperplasia of stromal and glandular components

Predominantly located in the transitional zone of the prostate

50% prevalence in men age 51-60, increasing incidence with age

Location: transition (periurethral) zone of the prostate

Pathophysiology
- Proliferation of both stromal and epithelial cells, leading to new glandular budding and branching, with formation of nodules
- Central role of sex steroids and growth factors
- Aetiology unknown

Markers:
- Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Elevated but non-specific

382
Q

SCROTAL TUBERCULOSIS is

A

A rare manifestation of extrapulmonary tuberculosis

Infection usually affects the epididymis first, then can affect the testis if not treated

Believed to occur due to retrograde extension from the prostate and seminal vesicles, as well as haematogenous spread

383
Q

CRYPTORCHIDISM is and path

A

Absence of a testis in the scrotal sac

Testes develop in the abdomen, at 21 wks migrating towards the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring

The migration is complete ~30wks

The gubernaculum is the ligament which connects the testes to the scrotum

Under hormonal influence, the gubernaculum contracts, and the testes descend into the scrotum

Causes:
- Premature birth
- Intrauterine growth restriction
- Associations with smoking, alcohol intake during pregnancy
- Androgen insensitive syndrome
- Congenital syndrome
- Noonan syndrome
- Prune belly syndrome
- Gestational diabetes

384
Q

MELANOMA is and path

A

The most common subtype of malignant melanoma, a malignant neoplasm that arises from melanocytes

Melanocytes predominantly occur in the basal layer of the epidermis, but do occur elsewhere in the body

While a less common skin cancer, it causes majority of the skin cancer related deaths due to tendency to metastasise

Risk factors:
- Exposure to high level UV
- Genetic predisposition
- More than 50 naevi
- Immunosuppression, sun sensitivity and freckles may also confer a predisposition to development of malignant melanoma

Pathology:
- Melanocytes produce melanin - the pigment responsible for skin colour
- Arise from the neural crest in the embryo and migrate throughout the body.
- Majority end up in the dermo-epidermal junction of the skin, providing melanin for the epidermal keratinocytes
- Those that undergo malignant change show varied architectural patterns of growth

Metastatic melanoma:
- The most frequent site of involvement of metastatic disease is the lymphatic system, particularly the local and regional nodes surrounding the primary.
- Further LN involvement typically progresses in a contiguous fashion
- Detection of spread in the LN is the most important predictor of survival

385
Q

NF1 is and path, incl dx criteria and manifestaions

A

The most common phakomatosis

Autosomal dominant disorder

1:2500 – 3000, half are inherited the other are de novo mutation

Variable expression, but 100% penetrance by 5yo

Diagnostic criteria:
- >6 café au lait spots evident during one year
- 2+ neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma
- Optic nerve glioma
- Distinctive osseous lesion – e.g. sphenoid wing dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex +/- pseudoarthrosis
- 2+ iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules)
- Axillary or inguinal freckling
- A primary relative with NF1 with the above criteria

45% have learning disabilities

1% have hypertension due to renal artery stenosis

NF1 onset is earlier than schwannomatosis and NF2

Pathology:
- NF1 gene locus on chromosome 17q11.2. The gene product is neurofibromin – acts as a tumour suppressor of the RAS/MAPK pathway
- Inactivation of the gene predisposes to tumour development
- Primarily the disease is a hamartomatous disorder that involves the ectoderm and mesoderm

Three types:
- Localised - most common, dermis and subcut skin
- Diffuse - subcutaneous, usually head and neck
- Plexiform - considered pathognomonic, often neck, pelvis and extremities

Inactivation of a tumour suppressor gene > increased incidence of numerous tumours:
- Pheochromocytoma
- Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour
- Wilms tumour
- Rhabdomyosarcoma
- Renal AML
- Glioma:
- Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma ~20%
- Optic nerve glioma
- Diffuse brainstem glioma
- Spinal astrocytoma, spinal pilocytic astrocytoma
- Carcinoid tumours
- Leiomyomas
- Leiomyosarcoma
- Ganglioglioma
- Leukaemia

Other manifestations
CNS
- FASI
- Optic nerve glioma
- Sphenoid wing dysplasia
- Lambdoid suture defects
- Dural calcification at the vertex
- Moya-moya phenomenon
- Buphthlamos

Skeletal
- Kyphoscoliosis
- Posterior vertebral scalloping
- Hypoplastic posterior elements
- Enlarged neural foramina
- Ribbon rib deformity, rib notching and dysplasia
- Dural ectasia
- Tibial pseudoarthrosis, or ulnar pseudoarthrosis
- Bony dysplasia’s - esp of the tibia
- Severe bowing, gracile bones
- Multiple non-ossifying fibromas
- Limb hemihypertrophy

Thoracic
- Mediastinal masses
- Neurofibroma
- Lateral thoracic meningocele - typically on the convex side of scoliosis

386
Q

NF2 is and path

A

Autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder manifesting as a development of multiple CNS tumours

Rare, prevalence ~1:50 000, usually presents in young adults, age 18-24

50% of patients have an affected parent, and 50% have a de novo mutation

Pathology:
- NF2 gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 22 (22q12) and encodes the merlin protein - schwannomin
- Plays a role in contact inhibition of growth, with partial tumour suppressor function

Associations:
- Syringohydromyelia with lesions in the spine and cataracts

Imaging:
- Meningioma
- Schwannoma
- Usually from the inferior vestibular division of the vestibulocochlear nerve
- Can also be the facial nerve
- Ependymoma - usually spinal intramedullary

387
Q

TURNERS SYNDROME is and path

A

45XO, the most common of the sex chromosome abnormalities in females

Associations:
- Hypertension
- Glucose intolerance
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Hypothyroidism
- Horseshoe kidney
- Gonodal dysgenesis

Pathology:
- Absence of one X chromosome (45 XO), with the missing chromosome most frequently (2/3) being the paternal one
- Most occur spontaneously

Three main subtypes:
- Complete monosomy ~60% - most will spontaneously abort: ~70% at 16+ weeks
- Partial monosomy ~15%
- Mosaicism ~30%

There is no association with maternal age

Markers
- Serum AFP decreased
- Beta HCG Elevated if hydrops is present, decreased if no hydrops
- Serum inhibin Elevated if hydrops is present, absent if hydrops is absent

Complications
- In utero development of hydrops fetalis - usually secondary to lymphatic failure

388
Q

TURNERS SYNDROME imaging

A

Antenatal
- Cystic hygroma - may appear septate
- Increased nuchal thickness, increased nuchal translucency
- Coarctation of the aorta 15-20%
- Bicuspid aortic valve
- Pelvic kidney
- Mild IUGR
- Short fetal limbs

Postpartum
MSK
- Scoliosis
- Short 4th MCP
- Narrowed scapholunate angle - positive carpal sign
- Abnormal medial femoral condyle
- Decreased carpal angle - madelung deformity
- Valgus deformity of the elbow

Pelvis:
- Streaky uterus
- Streaky ovary

Cardiovascular:
- Aortic dissection

GI
- Pyloric stenosis

389
Q

TRISOMY 21 is and path (incl manifestations)

A

The most common trisomy, and commonest chromosomal disorder

Risk factors:
- Increased incidence with increasing maternal age
- Translocation down syndrome gene carriers
- Previous pregnancy with Down syndrome

Often diagnosed antenatally

Classic phenotype:
- Depressed nasal bridge
- Epicanthal folds
- Abundant nasal skin
- Macroglossia

Pathology:
- Chromosomal abnormality is trisomy of chromosome 21 due to meiotic non-disjunction (failure of a chromosome pair to separate)
- So the total chromosome count is 47 - maternal non-disjunction accounts for ~95% of cases

Neurology:
- Cerebellar and vermian hypoplasia
- Moyamoya syndrome
- Alzheimer disease
- Hippocampal volume loss
- Hearing loss: semicircular canal dysplasia and dehiscence, narrowed IAC, cochlear nerve canal stenosis, enlarged vestibular aqueduct

Cardiovascular:
- Congenital heart disease in 40%
- AVSD - most common
- Secundum ASD
- VSD

Respiratory
- Pulmonary hypoplasia
- Pulmonary cyst
- Pig bronchus

GI
- Anal, duodenal atresia
- Coeliac disease
- Hirschsprung disease
- Omphalocele
- Diaphragmatic herniation

MSK
- Eleven ribs
- Hypersegmented sternum
- Joint laxity/dislocations
- DDH
- Atlantoaxial subluxation and atlanto-occipital instability
- Hypoplastic posterior arch of C1
- “mickey mouse” pelvis with flaring of iliac wings

Endocrine
- Thyroid dysfunction - mostly hypothyroidism

Increased incidence of leukaemia

390
Q

TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS is and path

A

Phakomatosis characterized by the development of multiple benign tumours of the embryonic ectoderm

Most are sporadic

The pathognomonic triad – only seen in 30%
- Seizures: absent in ¼ of individuals
- Intellectual disability: up to half have normal intelligence
- Adenoma sebaceum: only present in ~¾ of patients

Pathology:
- Spontaneous mutations account for 50-66%, the rest are inherited as an autosomal dominant condition

Two tumour suppressor genes are involved:
- TSC1 – encoding hamartin, on chromosome 9q32-34
- TSC2 – encoding tuberin, on chromosome 16p13.3

391
Q

TS manifestations

A

Neurology:
- Cortical/subcortical tubers: 50% in the frontal lobe
- High T2, low T1 – 10% enhance, frequently calcify
- Subependymal hamartomas – 88% associated with calcification
- Variable signal, high T1, iso-high T2
- Variable enhancement
- Only serial growth is reliable to differentiate from SEGA
- Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
- Peak occurrence 8-18yo
- White matter abnormalities
- Radial bands – specific for TS
- Variable appearance – nodular, ill-defined, cystic and band-like lesions seen
- Retinal phakomas

Rarer findings:
- Cerebellar atrophy
- Infarcts
- Arachnoid cysts
- Chordoma

Abdominal
- Renal angiomyolipomas
- TS accounts for 20%
- Seen in 55-75% of patients with TS
- Tend to be multiple, large and bilateral
- Fat may not be visible in up to 4.5%
- Renal cysts: TSC2 gene is located adjacent to the PCKD1 gene
- 18-53% of patients with TS
- Renal cell carcinoma and oncocytomas
- RCC tends to occur earlier
- Retroperitoneal lymphangiomyomatosis
- Histologically identical to pulmonary LAM
- Retroperitoneal cystic lesions
- Chylous ascites, enlarged lymph nodes, dilataton of the thoracic duct
- GI polyps
- Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours
- Hepatic angiomyolipomas

Thoracic
- Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
- Rare
- 25-40% of female pts with TS
- Indistinguishable from sporadic LAM
- Pneumothorax and chylous pleural effusions are common
- ~80% 10yr survival
- Multifocal micronodular pneumocyte hyperplasia (MMPH)
- Rare
- Multicentric, well-demarcated nodular proliferation of type II pneumocytes
- Benign, non-progressive
- Differentials: miliary opacities

Cardiac rhabdomyomas
- Benign striated muscle tumour characterised by the presence of spider cells
- Seen in 50-65% of pts with TS
- 40-80% of patients with cardiac rhabdomyomas have TS
- Multiple or single
- Typically involve the ventricular septum
- Occur before the age of 1yo (75%)
- Spontaneous regression in 70% of children by age 4

Thoracic duct and aortic/pulmonary artery aneurysm

Myocardial fatty foci

MSK
- Sclerotic bone lesions 46-66%
- Hyperostosis of the inner table of the calvaria
- Periosteal new bone
- Scoliosis
- Bone cyst

Skin
- Cutaneous lesions in ~95% of cases
- Facial angiofibromas
- Hypopigmented macules – ash leaf spots
- Fibrous plaques on forehead
- Confetti lesions

392
Q

VHL is and path including manifestations

A

Numerous benign and malignant tumours in different organs, due to mutations in the VHL tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 3

Most are diagnosed with their first tumour in early adulthood

Abdominal:
Renal cell carcinomas
- Usually clear cell and bilateral
- 70% lifetime risk
- Present earlier in pts with VHL

Renal cysts
- Often bilateral and multiple
- Can be simple, complex or cystic RCC

Renal angiomyolipomas

Adrenal:
- Phaeochromocytomas 25-30%
- Extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma/paraganglioma

Pancreas – may be the earliest manifestation
- Pancreatic cysts ~40%
- Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours
- ~12.5% of patients
- Usually non-functional
- Frequently multiple
- Pancreatic serous cystadenomas: ~12.5% of patients
- Pancreatic adenocarcinomas

Liver
- Liver cysts

Urogenital
- Epididymal cysts
- Papillary cystadenoma of the epididymis
- Broad ligament cystadenomas

CNS
Haemangioblastomas ~70%
- Cerebellar ~60%
- Spinal cord ~30% - most commonly in the cervical and thoracic cord
- brainstem

Choroid plexus papilloma

Head and neck
- Retinal haemangioblastoma
- Most common presenting feature
- Vision loss
- Endolymphatic sac tumours
- Bilateral in 30%, pathognomonic for vHL

393
Q

Endocarditis is and path

A

Acute endocarditis
- High virulent organisms (e.g. staph aureus)
- Typically seeds a previously normal valve
- Necrotizing, ulcerating and invasive infections
- Clinical: rapid onset fever and constitutional symptoms
Morphology:
- Right heart valves more commonly affected than left valves in IV drug users
- Bulky vegetations with underlying valve destruction
- Invasion into adjacent myocardium or aorta can occur
- Distal embolization with septic infarcts and mycotic aneurysms can occur

Subacute endocarditis:
- Moderate to low virulence organisms
- Streptococcus viridans most common (50-60%)
- Enterococci
- HACEK group of oral comsensals:
- Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella
- Seeding of a previously abnormal or damaged valve
- Less valvular destruction
- Nonspecific clinical course, lower mortality rate than acute infective endocarditis
Morphology:
- Smaller vegetations
- Less likely to cause distal embolic phenomena due to their small size

Duke Criteria for infective endocarditis:
For diagnosis require:
2 major and 1 minor criteria
1 major and 3 minor criteria
5 minor criteria

Major criteria:
- Positive blood cultures
- Typical micro-organism cultured
- Persistently positive cultures: 2 blood cultures greater than 12 hours apart
- Evidence of endocardial involvement:
- Positive echocardiogram
- Oscillating intracardiac mass
- Abscess
- New partial dehiscence of a prosthetic valve
- New valvular regurgitation

Minor criteria:
- Predisposing heart condition or IV drug use
- Fever >38 degrees
Vascular phenomena:
- Major arterial emboli
- Septic pulmonary infarcts
- Mycotic aneurysm
- Intracranial haemorrhage
- Conjunctival haemorrhage
- Janeway lesions
Immunologic phenomena:
- Glomerulonephritis
- Osler nodes
- Roth spots
- Rheumatoid factore
Microbiologic evidence:
- Positive blood culture which does not meet major criteria
- Serological evidence of active infection with consistent organism
- Echocardiography findings consistent with infective endocarditis but not meeting major criteria

394
Q

Indian ink stain demonstrates

A

cryptococci with their thick gelatinous capsules

May show encapsulated yeasts of Cryptococci on India Ink or Cryptococcal antigen, or in tissue
sections by PAS, mucicarmine and silver stains (esp. frequent in debilitated or
immunocompromised patients)

395
Q

Schwannoma path

A

Focal growth, encapsulated
Cystic degeneration,
haemorrhage,
xanthomatous change common
Arise eccentrically from parent
nerve
Nerve fibres do not run through
tumour
Spindle cells (Antoni A) &
looser myxoid stroma (Antoni B)

schwann cells. nf2. common. cnviii and spinal nerves. no malignant degen.

396
Q

Neurofibroma path

A

Infiltrating growth
Unencapsulated
Necrosis & cystic change
uncommon
Nerve fibres run through tumour
Spindle cells, with intercellular
collagen fibrils in myxomatous
matrix

nf1. cutaneous and spinal. 5-10% malignant degen.

397
Q

CMV encephalitis path

A

Neurologic manifestations of CMV thus include acute or chronic meningoencephalitis, cranial neuropathy, vasculitis, retinitis, myelitis, brachial plexus neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy

The pathologic hallmark of CMV is the “owl’s eye,” an enlarged cell with a distended nucleus containing eosinophilic viral inclusions, surrounded by a halo, resulting in the characteristic appearance

The owl’s eye appearance can be seen in ependymal cells, subependymal astrocytes,
oligodendroglia, endothelial cells, and neurons.

Ependymal involvement is quite common.
Infrequently, CMV infection may result in extensive destruction of gray and white matter

Other typical histopathologic findings in the CNS include well-circumscribed microglial nodules,