Hungarian Exam 2022 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

How much is the sample

a) 0.1 ml for pour-plate
b) 1 ml for pour-plate
c) 1 ml for spreading
d) 0.1 ml for spreading

A

b) 1 ml for pour-plate

d) 0.1 ml for spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which one is a microbial
growth inhibition test?

a) ROSA test
b) Delvotest
c) KIS test
d) Snap test

A

b) Delvotest

c) KIS test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True to the 3-class sampling plan

a) It is mainly used for pathogenic microbes
b) It is characterized by satisfactory and unsatisfactory limits
c) Satisfactory, acceptable and unsatisfactory limit values
d) It can be used to assess the state of hygiene

A

c) Satisfactory, acceptable and unsatisfactory limit values

d) It can be used to assess the state of hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) In the CAMP test, Literia monocytogenes is positive for Rhodococcus equiv
b) In the CAMP test, Listera monocytogens reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
d) Salmonella breaks down urea

A

b) In the CAMP test, Listera monocytogens reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) Salmonella decarboxylates lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the basic EU regulations for controlling trade in food

a) 1169/2011/EU
b) 852/2004/EU
c) 178/2002/EU
d) 2017/625/EU

A

c) 178/2002/EU

d) 2017/625/EU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the focal points of official control in catering establishments

a) Avoid cross-contamination
b) Ensuring traceability
c) Check to ensure clean and dirty routes
d) Check for the presence of a factory and consumer sink

A

a) Avoid cross-contamination

b) Ensuring traceability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bse…

a) A symptomatic animal should only be slaughtered in the presence of an official veterinarian
b) All parts of the animal killed as a result must be disposed of as SRM material
c) All bovine animals must be sampled for testing
d) For the purpose of testing, samples must be taken at the slaughterhouse only in certain cases, because Hungary has a negligible risk classification for TSEs.

A

b) All parts of the animal killed as a result must be disposed of as SRM material
d) For the purpose of testing, samples must be taken at the slaughterhouse only in certain cases, because Hungary has a negligible risk classification for TSEs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which disease is zoonosis

a) Atypical tuberculosis in pigs
b) Swine fever
c) Swine Mycoplasma pneumonia
d) Porcine Actinobacillus pleuropnemonia

A

a) Atypical tuberculosis in pigs

b) Swine fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Paratubercolosis

a) In this case, wild game meat is always unfit for consumption
b) in the absence of systemic lesions, only the affected organs are unsuitable
c) It may cause abnormal emaciation, in which case the whole body must be declared unfit for consumption
d) In the case of microbial multiplication, no microbial multiplication occurs

A

b) in the absence of systemic lesions, only the affected organs are unsuitable
c) It may cause abnormal emaciation, in which case the whole body must be declared unfit for consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where may the slaughter of farmed game take place

a) Slaughterhouses approved by the Authority
b) In the holding of origin
c) Wildbread collection place
d) In a game processing plant

A

a) Slaughterhouses approved by the Authority

b) In the holding of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Select the CORRECT statements

a) The pH of fresh egg protein is slightly alkaline, which makes it more alkaline during storage.
b) The pH of the protein in fresh eggs is slightly acidic, which becomes more acidic during storage, protecting the yolk from bacteria.
c) Salmonella enteritidis can cause secondary contamination of the thymus by passing it through the faeces through the faeces through the faeces.
d) Campylobacter jejuni can cause secondary contamination of the thymus by passing it through the faeces through the faeces through the faeces.

A

a) The pH of fresh egg protein is slightly alkaline, which makes it more alkaline during storage.
c) Salmonella enteritidis can cause secondary contamination of the thymus by passing it through the faeces through the faec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which egg disinfection procedures can be used in the EU

a) Washing and drying
b) UV light
c) Chlorine
d) Ozone

A

b) UV light

d) Ozone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Deterioration of PSE meat has a shorter shelf life
b) DFD meat is more prone to deterioration and has a shorter shelf life
c) It is characteristic of DFD-type muscles that glycogen is rapidly degraded after cutting
d) PSE-type meat is characterized by the rapid degradation of glycogen after cutting

A

b) DFD meat is more prone to deterioration and has a shorter shelf life
d) PSE-type meat is characterized by the rapid degradation of glycogen after cutting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Animals showing signs of systemic disease or emaciation should be killed separately
b) Animals showing signs of systemic disease or emaciation may be slaughtered by emergency slaughter only
c) Tuberculosis-free bovine animals must be slaughtered separately in the case of a positive tuberculin test
d) In the case of a positive tuberculin test, bovine animals from a tuberculosis-free herd must be slaughtered in a closed slaughter

A

a) Animals showing signs of systemic disease or emaciation should be killed separately
c) Tuberculosis-free bovine animals must be slaughtered separately in the case of a positive tuberculin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What conditions must the milk meet immediately before processing

a) The temperature of the raw milk can be heated to a maximum of 6℃ before processing
b) The temperature of the raw milk can be heated to a maximum of 10℃ before processing
c) The germ count may not exceed 100.000 cells / ml immediately prior to processing
d) The germ count may not exceed 300.000 cells / ml immediately prior to processing

A

a) The temperature of the raw milk can be heated to a maximum of 6℃ before processing
d) The germ count may not exceed 300.000 cells / ml immediately prior to processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli is typically cause primary infection of raw milk
b) Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli typically cause secondary contamination of raw milk
c) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically cause primary infection of raw milk
d) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically cause secondary contamination of raw milk

A

b) Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli typically cause secondary contamination of raw milk
d) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically cause secondary contamination of raw milk

17
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Bacteria require less water activity than molds
b) Bacteria require more water activity than molds
c) Yeast generally requires more water activity than bacteria
d) Yeast generally requires less water activity than bacteria

A

b) Bacteria require more water activity than molds

d) Yeast generally requires less water activity than bacteria

18
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) A significant proportion of spoilage bacteria are psychrophilic
b) The vast majority of spoilage bacteria are thermophilic
c) A significant proportion of deteriorating molds are psychrophilic
d) Most spoilage molds are thermophilic

A

a) A significant proportion of spoilage bacteria are psychrophilic
c) A significant proportion of deteriorating molds are psychrophilic

19
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Nitroimidazoles are compounds authorized for drug treatment but prohibited for yield increase in food production in animals
b) Nitroimidazole may not be used for treatment or increase of yield in food producing animals
c) Nitrofurans re compounds that are permitted for therapeutic purposes but not for increase of yield in food producing animals
d) Nitrofuran shall not be used in food producing animals for therapeutic or yield enhancement purposes

A

b) Nitroimidazole may not be used for treatment or increase of yield in food producing animals
d) Nitrofuran shall not be used in food producing animals for therapeutic or yield enhancement purposes

20
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacteria
b) Yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacteria
c) Staphylococcus aureus is a psychrophilic bacteria
d) Staphylococcus aureus is a mesophilic bacteria

A

a) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacteria

d) Staphylococcus aureus is a mesophilic bacteria

21
Q

Select Correct Statements

a) Methylmercury is magnified in the dry food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators
b) Methylmercury is magnified in the aquatic food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators
c) Inorganic arsenic compounds are highly toxic
d) Organic arsenic compounds are highly toxic

A

b) Methylmercury is magnified in the aquatic food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators
c) Inorganic arsenic compounds are highly toxic

22
Q

Choose the correct statements

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
b) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main targe organ is the kidney
c) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

A

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

23
Q

What is the maximum temperature where poultry meat can be?

a) 3 C
b) 4 C
c) 7 C
d) 10 C

A

a) 3 C (offals)

b) 4 C (carcass)

24
Q

Which is hard cheese? (*New)

a) Cheddar
b) Edame
c) Parmesan
d) gouda

A

a) Cheddar

c) Parmesan

25
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for fish and crustaceans?

a) Fe
b) Pb
c) Hg
d) Cu

A

b) Pb

c) Hg

26
Q
  1. What do we put in the meat products? (*New)
    a) Pea protein
    b) Soy
    c) Milk protein
    d) Fish flour
A

a) Pea protein

b) Soy

27
Q
  1. Factors influencing deterioration (*New)
    a) Internal factor such as pH, redox potential, water activity
    b) External factors such as ph, redox potential, water activity
    c) Internal factors of temperature, humidity, airspace composition
    d) External factors of temperature, humidity, air space composition
A

a) Internal factor such as pH, redox potential, water activity
d) External factors of temperature, humidity, air space composition

28
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of calpains? (*New with other alternatives)
    a) Plays a role in aging of poultry meat
    b) Plays a role in ripening of fish meat
    c) Breakdown of connective tissue proteins
    c) Breakdown of sarcolemma proteins
A

a) Plays a role in aging of poultry meat

c) Breakdown of connective tissue proteins

29
Q
  1. In the antemortem examination we do? (*New)
    a) Rectal examination
    b) Visual inspection
    c) Temperature measurment
A

b) Visual inspection

c) Temperature measurment

30
Q

Trichinella:

a) The meat of an infected animal shall be declared unfit for human consumption
b) Test must be performed in all cases to be carried out during meat inspection of pigs
c) In case of local infection the body other than the masseter is fit for human consumption
d) For testing the sample should be taken from foreleg or tongue of the wild boar

A

a) The meat of an infected animal shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) For testing the sample should be taken from foreleg or tongue of the wild boar

31
Q

Factors affecting the deterioration of minced meat? (*New)

a) Anaerobic psychrophilic
b) Aerobic psychrophilic
c) Redox potential increase during deterioration
d) Redox potential decrease during deterioration

A

b) Aerobic psychrophilic

d) Redox potential decrease during deterioration

32
Q

In which food does a primary contamination occur? (*New)

a) Minced meat
b) Sausages
c) Eggs
d) Vegetables

A

c) Eggs

d) Vegetables

33
Q

Correct answer (*New)

a) Salmonella mainly in egg dishes
b) Salmonella mainly in raw poultry meat
c) Campylobacter mainly in eggs
d) Campylobacter mainly in raw poultry meat

A

a) Salmonella mainly in egg dishes

d) Campylobacter mainly in raw poultry meat

34
Q

What remains in the end of the butter churning (*New)

a) Butter
b) Whey
c) Buttermilk
d) Water

A

a) Butter

c) Buttermilk

35
Q

During butter production we are not left behind (*New)

a) Whey
b) Oil
c) butter
d) buttermilk

A

a) Whey

b) Oil

36
Q

Sour products:

a) Sour cream
b) Curd
c) Kefir
d) butter

A

a) Sour cream

c) Kefir

37
Q

Which is correct?

a) L. Monocytogenes acid resistant
b) L. Monocytogenes salt resistant
c) L. Monocytogenes temperature resistant
d) L. Monocytogenes can be eliminated by pasteurization

A

b) L. Monocytogenes salt resistant

d) L. Monocytogenes can be eliminated by pasteurization

38
Q

Heat treated milk can be secondary infected by..

a) Listeria
b) Aspergillus flavus
c) Yeast
d) Bacillus cereus

A

a) Listeria

d) Bacillus cereus

39
Q

In case of rabbit slaughter, when is it allowed to have the meat inspection?

a) During bleeding
b) During skinning
c) During evisceration
d) In the beginning of cooling

A

b) During skinning

c) During evisceration