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Food Hygiene Final > Exam 2021 > Flashcards

Exam 2021 Flashcards

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1
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent
at 121.1°C for the applied heat treatment procedure
b) The F0 value is a microbiological characteristic which expresses the thermal death time at
121.1°C
c) According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes
d) According to the 12D principle the food microbiological safety requirement is F
- 0.21 minutes

A

a) The F0 value is a technological characteristic expressing the thermal death time equivalent
at 121.1°C for the applied heat treatment procedure

c) According to the 12D principle, the food microbiological safety requirement is F 2.52 minutes

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2
Q

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a) The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
b) The D value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal
death time
c) The Z value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count
d) The Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal
death time

A

a) The D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count

d) The Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal
death time

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3
Q

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a) In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
b) In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotocin in the GI tract
c) In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d) In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

A

a) In case of food poisoning, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
d) In case of toxico-infection, the causative agent produces exotoxin in the GI tract

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4
Q

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a) The HACCP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
b) The GHP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
c) The GHP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by HACCP
d) The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP

A

a) The HACCP plan should be establishment- and product-specific
d) The HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by GHP

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5
Q

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a) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms reduces as the water activity decreases
b) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
c) The heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the pH optimum of their growth
d) The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

A

b) In general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as the water activity decreases
d) The heat resistance of microbes is the highest at the pH optimum of their growth

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6
Q

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a) In general, the water activity demand of gram positive bacteria is higher than the gram
negative ones
b) In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria is higher than the gram
positive ones
c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than the yeasts
d) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is lower than the yeasts

A

b) In general, the water activity demand of gram negative bacteria is higher than the gram
positive ones

c) In general, the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than the yeasts

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7
Q

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a) In food processing plants water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well
b) In food processing plants water of drinking water of non-polatble quality can be used for
hand washing and cleaning
c) Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and
disinfect
d) Equipment surfaces coming into contact with food shall be sterile

A

a) In food processing plants water of drinking water quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well

c) Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and
disinfect

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8
Q

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a) The redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of the minced meat
b) The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
c) In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is lower than that of moulds
d) In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

A

b) The redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat
d) In general, the pH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

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9
Q

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a) The efficacy of iodophores is increased by the elevation of temperature
b) The efficacy of iodophores is decreased by the elevation of temperature
c) The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
d) The anion-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

A

b) The efficacy of iodophores is decreased by the elevation of temperature
c) The cation-active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

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10
Q

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a) Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
b) Food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
c) Food safety includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our
foods
d) Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our
foods

A

a) Food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
d) Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods

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11
Q

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a) In case of drinking water, the test for E.coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
b) In case of drinking water, the test for C. perfringens as faecal indicator is obligatory
c) The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfection is increased by the elevation of temperature
d) The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfection is decreased by the elevation of temperature

A

a) In case of drinking water, the test for E.coli as faecal indicator is obligatory
d) The efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfection is decreased by the elevation of temperature

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12
Q

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a) Food chain of animal foodstuffs does not include the farm and the feed industry
b) Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
c) Food safety is based primarily on consumer’s expectations
d) Food quality is based primarily on consumer’s expectation

A

b) Food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and the feed industry
d) Food quality is based primarily on consumer’s expectation

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13
Q

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
b) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producer
c) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality
d) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

A

a) The primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities
d) The conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

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14
Q

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a) Food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
b) Food quality is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food hygiene
c) Food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production
d) Food hygiene requirements and tools do not refer to the primary production

A

a) Food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
c) Food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production

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15
Q

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a) The infective dose of campylobacters is high, at least 10,000 cells are needed to induce
diseases in humans
b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause
disease in humans
c) The infective dose of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
d) The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

A

b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans
d) The infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

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16
Q

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a) The infective dose of salmonellae is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c) The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains
d) The infective dose of EHEC strains is higher than that of other E. coli strains

A

b) The infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 organisms may induce disease in humans
c) The infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains

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17
Q

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a) Botulinumtoxin is a neurotoxin that cause a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b) Botulinumtoxin is an emetic toxin that cause gastrointestinal signs
c) The emtic toxin of Bacillus cereus is a heat sensitive
d) The diarrhoeic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

A

a) Botulinumtoxin is a neurotoxin that cause a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
d) The diarrhoeic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

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18
Q

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a) Campylobactgers usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
b) L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces
c) The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
extraintestinal signs
d) The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
intestinal signs

A

b) L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces

c) The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
extraintestinal signs

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19
Q

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a) Listeria monocytogenes is psychrophilic bacterium
b) Listeria monocytogenes is a mesophilic bacterium
c) Salmonella enteritidis is a psychrophilic bacterium
d) Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium

A

a) Listeria monocytogenes is psychrophilic bacterium

d) Salmonella enteritidis is a mesophilic bacterium

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20
Q

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a) Yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacterium
b) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium
c) Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause extraintestinal signs in humans
d) Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans

A

b) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychrophilic bacterium

d) Yersinia enterocolitica typically cause intestinal signs in humans

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21
Q

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a) Verotoxin-producing E.coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome is humans
b) Listeria monocytogenes may cause haemolutic uraemic syndrome is humans
c) Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
d) Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in piglets

A

a) Verotoxin-producing E.coli may cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome is humans
c) Verotoxin-producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves

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22
Q

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a) Campylobactgers usually form a biofilm on the surfaces
b) L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces
c) The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by extraintestinal signs
d) The clinical symptoms by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by
intestinal signs

A

b) L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surfaces

c) The clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterized mostly by extraintestinal signs

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23
Q

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a) Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms
b) Salmonellae are thermophilic organisms
c) Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria
d) Campylobacters are mesophilic bacteria

A

a) Salmonellae are mesophilic organisms

c) Campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria

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24
Q

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a) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in
humans
b) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans
c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in
humans
d) Salmonella gallinarum is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in
humans

A

b) The serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are not capable of inducing disease in humans

c) Salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that causes the most foodborne salmonellosis in
humans

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25
Q

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a) The toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that causes a flaccid paralysis of the muscles
b) The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c) The toxins produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling
d) The botulinumtoxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

A

b) The toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one
c) The toxins produced by S. aureus in the food is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

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26
Q

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a) The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E.coli strains
b) The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is lower than other E.coli strains
c) The “hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E.coli
d) The “hamburger disease” is caused by Listeria monocytogenes

A

a) The acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E.coli strains
c) The “hamburger disease” is caused by verotoxin-producing E.coli

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27
Q

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a) Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
b) Zearalenone may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
c) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on oilseeds
d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize

A

a) Patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged kernels of maize

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28
Q

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a) Dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissues of the consumer
b) Dioxins accumulate in the kidneys of the consumer
c) Dioxins are widely used compounds in different industrial processes
d) Significant sources of dioxins include waste incineration or the forest fires

A

a) Dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissues of the consumer

d) Significant sources of dioxins include waste incineration or the forest fires

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29
Q

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a) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) can be generated during the frying of foods of
high carbohydrate content
b) Acrilamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
c) Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate
content
d) Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

A

b) Acrilamide can be generated during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d) Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

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30
Q

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a) Ciguatera toxins accumulate in shellfish
b) Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
c) Scombrotoxin is histamine
d) Scombrotoxin is a shellfish poison

A

b) Ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish

c) Scombrotoxin is histamine

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31
Q

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a) Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae
b) Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by molds
c) Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes
d) Solanine mainly occurs in stone-fruits

A

a) Phycotoxins are biotoxins produced by microalgae

c) Solanine mainly occurs in potatoes

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32
Q

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a) Chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c) Pyretroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
d) Pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids

A

b) Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors

c) Pyretroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins

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33
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in
the environment
b) Organophosphates are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in the
environment
c) Pyretroids are persisting compounds in the environment
d) Pyretroids do not persist in the environment

A

a) Chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid-soluble compounds with a tendency to persist in
the environment

c) Pyretroids are persisting compounds in the environment

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34
Q

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a) Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce
toxins under these climatic conditions
b) Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in central Europe and can also produce
toxins there due to the climatic change
c) Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climate conditions
d) Ochratoxins can also produced under temperate climate conditions

A

b) Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in central Europe and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic change
d) Ochratoxins can also produced under temperate climate conditions

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35
Q

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a) Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
b) Scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin
c) Patulin is a mycotoxin
d) Solanine is a mycotoxin

A

a) Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine

c) Patulin is a mycotoxin

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36
Q

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a) Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone beef
b) Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone pork
c) Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw
or underdone pork
d) Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw
or underdone poultry meat

A

b) Human diseases caused by Yersinia enterocolitica are mainly due to the consumption of raw or underdone pork

d) Human diseases caused by Campylobacter jejuni is mainly due to the consumption of raw
or underdone poultry meat

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37
Q

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a) Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be
generated in the stomach
b) Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be
generated in the intestines
c) PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials
d) Nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

A

a) Nitrosamines can get into the organism of the consumer with foods, but can also be
generated in the stomach

c) PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

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38
Q

Choose the correct statements

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
b) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main targe organ is the kidney
c) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

A

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the liver
d) Ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidney

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39
Q

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a) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for
production of animal feedstuffs
b) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for
production of animal feedstuffs
c) Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs
d) Carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilized for production of animal
feedstuffs

A

a) Carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for
production of animal feedstuffs

c) Carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for production of animal
feedstuffs

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40
Q

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a) Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
b) Plants take up lead from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues
c) Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high
concentrations in predators
d) Methyrmercury is bioaccumulated in the terrestrial food chain and may reach high
concentrations in predators

A

a) Plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues

c) Methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high
concentrations in predators

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41
Q

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a) In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used for
therapy in food-producing animals
b) In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
c) Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for therapy
d) Beta-agonists are not allowed for use in food-producing animals, at all.

A

b) In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food-producing animals
c) Beta-agonists are illegal growth promotants, but can be used for therapy

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42
Q

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a) The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
b) The dissolution of lead from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH
c) Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough
washing
d) Cadmium mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by
thorough washing

A

a) The dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of pH

c) Lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed by thorough
washing

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43
Q

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a) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
b) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing
c) Meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
d) Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

A

a) The water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
d) Meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

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44
Q

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a) Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept
b) Combined preservation is based on the hazard analysis concept
c) In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and
nitrogen
d) In protective atmosphere packaging, carbon dioxide is partly replaced by oxygen and
nitrogen

A

a) Combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept

c) In protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partly replaced by carbon dioxide and
nitrogen

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45
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food
b) Spoilage is a profound safety change of the food
c) Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds
d) Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and viruses

A

a) Spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food

c) Microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds

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46
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psycrotrophic bacteria
b) The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria
c) The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high
water activity requirement
d) The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a low
water activity requirement

A

a) The spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by aerobic psycrotrophic bacteria

c) The spoilage of raw, cured meat products is mostly caused by microorganisms with a high
water activity requirement

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47
Q

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a) Moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly
moulds become dominant
b) Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in
spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavorable for bacteria
c) Yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly
moulds become domiant
d) Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in
spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

A

b) Moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in
spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavorable for bacteria

d) Yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in
spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

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48
Q

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a) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
b) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to oxymyoglobin
c) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing salt may be used
d) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

A

a) The typical, lasting red colour of cured meat products is due to nitrosomyoglobin
d) For slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate-containing curing salt may be used

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49
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy all forms of pathogenic bacteria
b) The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c) Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100°C
d) Pasteruisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature above 100°C

A

b) The primary objective of pasteurization is to destroy the vegetative forms of pathogenic bacteria
c) Pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100°C

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50
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Redox potential of foods is characterized by the aw value
b) Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value
c) Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria
d) Moulds and yeasts prefer a more alkalinic pH than bacteria

A

b) Redox potential of foods is characterized by the Eh value

c) Moulds and yeasts prefer a more acidic pH than bacteria

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51
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
b) Nitrates can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
c) Cold smoking is more effective against moulds than against bacteria
d) Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

A

a) Nitrites can enter into reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
d) Cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

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52
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Water activity means the total water content of foods
b) Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) Water activity of foods is characterized by the aw value
d) Water activity of foods is characterized by the Eh value

A

b) Water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) Water activity of foods is characterized by the aw value

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53
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) For quick curing, nitrate-containing salt mix is used
b) For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used
c) The products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
d) The products prepared by quick curing are microbiologically more stable

A

b) For quick curing, nitrite-containing salt mix is used
c) The products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable
d) ??

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54
Q

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a) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
b) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria
c) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes
d) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 0.21 minute

A

a) Heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar to that of mesophilic bacteria
c) Based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilization equivalent is 2.52 minutes

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55
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and
inactivating tissue enzymes
b) Freezing is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganmisms and
inactivating tissue enzymes
c) Spoilage bacteria can grow even down to -18°C
d) Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

A

a) Heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and
inactivating tissue enzymes

d) Spoilage moulds can grow even down to -18°C

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56
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
b) After heat treatment at very high temperature (ESL) the milk is packed aseptically
c) UHT-treated milk needs cold storage
d) Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

A

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically

d) Milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

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57
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 100 000/ml
b) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ml
c) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000/ml
d) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 400 000/ml

A

b) The maximum allowed somatic cell count in raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ml
c) The total plate count at 30°C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000/ml

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58
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) L. monocytogenes is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
b) L. monocytogenes Is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
d) S. aureus is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization

A

b) L. monocytogenes Is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
c) S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization

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59
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from
pasteruised milk
b) Cheeses made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those mase from
pasteurized milk
c) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
d) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms

A

a) Cheeses made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from
d) Early blowing of semi-hard cheeses resulting in many small holes are caused by coliforms

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60
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Caseins are produced in the udder
b) Caseins originate from the blood
c) Caseins remain in solution during sour coagulation
d) Whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation

A

a) Caseins are produced in the udder

d) Whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation

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61
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
b) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats
c) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia
d) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by coliforms

A

a) Cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins

c) Late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes are caused by clostridia

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62
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Skimming increases the density of milk
b) Skimming decreases the density of milk
c) Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk
d) Mastitis usually reduces the electrical conductivity of milk

A

a) Skimming increases the density of milk

c) Mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

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63
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
b) C. burnetii is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurization
c) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
d) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

A

a) Coxiella burnetii is rather resistant to heat, it can survive the pasteurization
d) Zoonotic EHEC strains are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

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64
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high-
temperature short-time (HTST) pasteurization
b) Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurization
c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds
d) Peroxidase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds

A

b) Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurization
c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivated at 72°C within 15 seconds

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65
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
b) A decreased potential acidity degree indicated the souring of milk
c) The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal
d) The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically higher than normal

A

a) An increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
c) The potential acidity degree of mastitic milk is typically lower than normal

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66
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles
b) Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
c) Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules
d) Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

A

b) Milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules
d) Caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

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67
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Campylobacters are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
b) Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurization
c) Salmonellae are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurization
d) Salmonellae are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurization

A

b) Campylobacters are sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurization
d) Salmonellae are rather sensitive to heat, they are killed by pasteurization

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68
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
b) The fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
c) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at high temperature for 2-3
minutes
d) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperature without holding

A

a) The fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria

c) For manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurized at high temperature for 2-3
minutes

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69
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at low temperature without holding
b) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at high temperature with holding
c) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteruisation are due to technological aspects
d) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects

A

b) For manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurized at high temperature with holding
d) For manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurization are due to food safety aspects

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70
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Category 1 wastes shall be disposed by incineration
b) Category 1 wastes can be used for manufacture of pet food
c) Blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human
consumption
d) Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

A

a) Category 1 wastes shall be disposed by incineration

d) Blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

71
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
b) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of bovine animals
c) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be identified
d) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified

A

a) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed at a minimum of 10% of pigs
c) As a part of the ante mortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be identified

72
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
b) Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
c) Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse
d) Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

A

b) Broilers infected with Salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately
d) Cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

73
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) One of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human
consumption
b) The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c) In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the
application of the identity mark
d) In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the
application of the health mark (meat stamp)

A

b) The meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment

c) In poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the
application of the identity mark

74
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Rigor mortis develops because of the reduction of pH
b) Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c) The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate
d) The inadequate reduction of pH makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate

A

b) Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

c) The lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate

75
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
b) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in poultry
c) The meat ageing in cattle is faster than in pigs
d) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

A

a) The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs

d) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

76
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamps)
b) In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
c) In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamps)
d) In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark

A

a) In pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamps)
c) In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamps)

77
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) PSE-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
b) DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage
d) PSE meat is more prone to spoilage

A

b) DFD-type meat ageing is a consequence of a less-than-average pH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

78
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a comuunity regulation
b) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states
d) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation shall be
adopted by the individual Member states

A

a) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a comuunity regulation
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states

79
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
b) During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins increases due to the pH reduction
c) After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster to the final pH than in pigs
d) After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle

A

a) During meat ageing, the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to the pH reduction
d) After bleeding, the pH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster to the final pH than in cattle

80
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals being suspected of infection
b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c) Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected on infection
d) Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals

A

b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c) Immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected on infection

81
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In cattle, the last 4 metres of the ileum and the caecum are classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
b) In cattle, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
c) In sheep, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
d) In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

A

a) In cattle, the last 4 metres of the ileum and the caecum are classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
d) In sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

82
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
b) Identification marking shall be applied directly on the poultry carcase
c) Every poultry carcase shall be tested for surface Salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse
d) Once a week, minimum 15 poultry cascases shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

A

a) Identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of the poultry carcass
d) Once a week, minimum 15 poultry cascases shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

83
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Broilers are usually scalded at higher temperature than waterfowl
b) Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
c) Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene
d) Immersion chilling is superior to air chilling in terms of hygiene

A

b) Waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperature than broilers
c) Air chilling is superior to immersion chilling in terms of hygiene

84
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
b) The head of pigs is removed during the slaughtering process
c) In pigs, the bleding is performed by the two-knife method
d) In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method

A

a) The head of cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
d) In cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two-knife method

85
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed visually
b) The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle (<8 months old), the
retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced
d) In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

A

b) The routine meat inspection of young bovine animals (<8 months) shall be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision
d) In young cattle (<8 months old), the retropharyngeal lymphnodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

86
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The routine post-mortem meat inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
b) The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymphnodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis
d) In pigs, the submaxillary lymphnodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

A

b) The routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
d) In pigs, the submaxillary lymphnodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

87
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Cattle is stunned by carbon dioxide stunning
b) Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning
c) At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by mechanical stunning
d) At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

A

b) Cattle is stunned by mechanical stunning

d) At the slaughterhouse, pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

88
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Food chain information must be prepared by the veterinarian performing the antemortem
inspection
b) Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours
d) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the
slaughter shall be banned

A

b) Food chain information must be prepared by the operator of the farm
c) If the food chain information is missing at the time of decision about the slaughter, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained for maximum 24 hours

89
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
b) In cattle over 12 months, the skull including the head meat is classed as SRM
c) In cattle, the spleen is classed as SRM
d) In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

A

a) In cattle over 12 months, the skull is SRM, but the head meat may be used for human consumption
d) In sheep, the spleen is classed as SRM

90
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbial
regulation of the EU
b) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis
regulation of the EU
c) Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the salmonella process
hygiene checks performed at the slaughter house
d) Carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process hygiene tests at the slaughterhouse
must not be put on the market

A

a) Salmonella-contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbial
regulation of the EU

c) Carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the results of the salmonella process
hygiene checks performed at the slaughter house

91
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) When applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 16°C
b) When applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4°C
c) Chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP
d) Evisceration is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

A

b) When applying immersion chilling, the maximum water temperature at the point of outlet is 4°C
c) Chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

92
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the liver shall be inspected by incision
b) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the liver shall be inspected visually
c) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise
d) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be inspected visually

A

a) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the liver shall be inspected by incision
c) As a part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the trachea shall be opened lengthwise

93
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymphnodes shall be sliced
b) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and mediastinal lymphnodes shall be sliced
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways
d) As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the heart shall be opened lengthways

A

b) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the bronchial and mediastinal lymphnodes shall be sliced
c) As part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways

94
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Small capacity slaughterhouses need not be approved only registered by the authority
b) Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c) At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position
d) In a small capacity slaughterhouse, pigs can also be bled in a horizontal position

A

b) Small capacity slaughterhouses need also be approved by the authority
c) At the slaughterhouse, pigs shall only be bled in a suspended position

95
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of < 4°C
b) After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of < 7°C
c) After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 7°C
d) After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 4°C

A

b) After slaughter, the carcasses of mammals should be chilled to a temperature of < 7°C
d) After slaughter, the carcasses of poultry should be chilled to a temperature of < 4°C

96
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
b) Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be slaughtered separately
c) Emaciated animals shall be slaughtered separately
d) Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered

A

a) Animals showing the signs of a systemic disease must be killed separately
d) Emaciated animals must not be slaughtered

97
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Pigs can be health-marked before the results of trichinella test are available
b) Pigs must not be health-marked before the results of trichinella test are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) Poultry meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared
unfit for human consumption

A

a) Pigs can be health-marked before the results of trichinella test are available
c) Pig meat placed on the market without health (meat stamp) marking shall be declared unfit for human consumption

98
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
b) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in poultry
c) The meat ageing in cattle is faster than in pigs
d) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

A

a) The meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs

d) The meat ageing in pigs is faster than in cattle

99
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Rodding means the ligation of the esophagus before the rumen
b) Rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent fecal contamination
c) In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM irrespective of the animal’s age
d) In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months old

A

a) Rodding means the ligation of the esophagus before the rumen
d) In cattle, the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals >12 months old

100
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
b) The hunted large game shall be skinned in the game collection centre
c) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals
d) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals only

A

a) The hunted large game must not be skinned in the game collection centre
c) In the game collection centre, the post mortem meat inspection of large games shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

101
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
b) S. aureus may survive in chocolates, but cannot produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c) Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey
d) Due to the low water activity and low pH of honey, even bacterium spores are unable to germinate in it

A

a) S. aureus may survive in chocolates and may produce enterotoxins posing a food safety risk
c) Clostridium botulinum spores may germinate and produce toxins in the honey

102
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) The official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish
b) The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c) Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria
d) Scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in the flesh

A

b) The official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only
c) Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria

103
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Surface contamination of eggs shall be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
b) Surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c) Candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market
d) Candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption

A

b) Surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres
c) Candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market

104
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
b) Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestines of infants
c) Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it
d) Depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in the wine posing a food safety risk

A

a) Clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxico-infection in infants
c) Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it

105
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulation 853/2004/EC
b) Live bivalve molluscs must not contain mycotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulation 853/2004/EC
c) Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging
d) Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an health mark on the packaging

A

a) Live bivalve molluscs must not contain marine biotoxins exceeding the limits described in regulation 853/2004/EC
c) Live bivalve molluscs placed on the market for retail sale via a dispatch centre shall be marked with an identification mark on the packaging

106
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcase and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
b) The post mortem meat inspection of hunted large games is performed by the hunter itself
c) The post mortem meat inspection of hunted small games is performed by the hunter itself
d) The hunter shall present the carcase of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection

A

a) Having eviscerated the large game, the hunter shall present the carcase and viscera to a trained person or a veterinarian for inspection
d) The hunter shall present the carcase of the hunted small game to a trained person or veterinarian for inspection

107
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Live bivalve molluscs collected from Class “A” areas are suitable for human consumption after treatment only
b) Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class “A” areas can be collected for direct human consumption
c) The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of faecal contamination
d) The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination

A

b) Live bivalve molluscs deriving from Class “A” areas can be collected for direct human consumption
d) The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are classified based on the level of marine biotoxin contamination

108
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed
by the trained person
b) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed
by an official veterinarian
c) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games
shall be performed by the official veterinarian on skinned animals
d) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games
shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

A

b) In the game processing establishment, the meat inspection of hunted game is performed
by an official veterinarian

d) In the game processing establishment, the post mortem meat inspection of large games
shall be performed by the official veterinarian on unskinned animals

109
Q

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a) After killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
b) In case of small games, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only
d) For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection shall be done on each single animal

A

b) In case of small games, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot
c) For small game, the official veterinarian’s meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only

110
Q

Choose the CORRECT answers!

a) In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as the live animals
b) In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered an unprocessed product such as the fresh meat
c) Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by a veterinarian
d) Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

A

a) In the food law, the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as the live animals
d) ) Ante mortem inspection of the hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

111
Q

Choose the Correct answers!

a) Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
b) The hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre
c) The hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
d) The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot

A

a) Any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
d) The hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot

112
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it
b) Campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it
c) Salmonella enteritidis cannot get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it
d) Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it

A

a) Campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it
d) Salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it

113
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Cracked eggs must not be used for human consumption
b) Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
c) Eggs containing blood or meat spots must not be used for human consumption at all
d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

A

b) Cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products
d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

114
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Class “A” eggs shall be cooled to a temperature <5°C in the egg packing centre in order to prevent bacterial contamination
b) Class “A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all
d) Broken eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

A

b) Class “A” eggs must not be cooled artificially in the egg packing centre
c) Broken eggs must not be used for human consumption, at all

115
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be slaughtered according to the rules of the immediate slaughter
b) If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
c) The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the strong zoonotic potential of its causative agent
d) The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

A

b) If foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse, all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed
d) The meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

116
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
b) Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection shall be slaughtered separately
c) If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be
declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) Animals suspected for Campylobacter infection can be slaughtered unconditionally
c) If any form of yersiniosis is diagnosed at meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

117
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
b) If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned
c) If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

A

a) If paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) If leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

118
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) In case of localized, singe-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
b) In case of localized, singe-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption without treatment
c) Classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animal health significance
d) Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

A

a) In case of localized, singe-cyst cysticercosis in cattle, only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
d) Humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

119
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection, the whole carcass shall
be condemned
b) If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c) If hydatid cysts of Echinoccocus granulosus are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned
d) If hydatid cysts of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for consumption

A

b) If trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection, the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c) If hydatid cysts of Echinoccocus granulosus are found in the liver, only the affected organ shall be condemned

120
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) If the meat inspection reveals a generalized infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
b) If the meat inspection reveals a generlised infection, the decision depends on the causative agent detected
c) If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption
d) If we detect trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) If the meat inspection reveals a generalized infection, the meat is unfit for human consumption irrespective of the causative agent
c) If we detect Trueperella pyogenes from one single organ, only the affected organ shall be condemned and the other parts of the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption

121
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
b) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect the surface
contamination of the carcasses at the slaughterhouse
c) If the meat inspection reveals a generlised infection, the meat of the concerned animal
can only be used for human consumption after heat treatment
d) If the meat inspection reveals a generlised infection, the meat of the concerned animal is unfit for human consumption

A

a) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims to detect conditions associated with bacterial dissemination
d) If the meat inspection reveals a generlised infection, the meat of the concerned animal is unfit for human consumption

122
Q

Choose the correct anwers!

a) In case of suspected anthrax infection, an immediate slaughter of the affected animals shall be ordered
b) In case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered
c) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected can be
slaughtered unconditionally at the slaughterhouse
d) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be
slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

A

b) In case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered

d) In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be
slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

123
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The meat of emaciated animals can be used for human consumption after heat treatment if the causative agent is non-zoonotic
b) The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
c) In case of sex odour of pork the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d) In case of sex odour of pork the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

b) The meat of emaciated animals is unfit for human consumption irrespective of other aspects
d) In case of sex odour of pork the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

124
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
b) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in pigs
c) If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

A

a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
d) If Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, the whole carcass shall be condemned

125
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
b) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of two samples taken from the neck skin
c) If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d) If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) The complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
d) If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

126
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
b) In goats, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
c) In cattle, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
d) In pigs, characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness due to painful foot lesions

A

a) In sheep, the most characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness
d) In pigs, characteristic sign of foot and mouth disease is mild lameness due to painful foot lesions

127
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In sheep, foot and mouth disease (FMD) is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
b) In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c) In cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation
d) In pigs, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

A

b) In goats, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth without salivation
c) In cattle, FMD is characterized by vesicle formation in the mouth with salivation

128
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments
before the meat gets in the retail shops
b) The health mark must not be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets in the retail shops
c) In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the wre-rapping establishments
d) In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification marking

A

a) The health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishments
c) In re-wrapping centres, the re-wrapped product shall be marked with the identification marking of the wre-rapping establishments

129
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In restaurants, raw milk can only be used after boiling
b) In restaurants, raw milk can also be served
c) In restaurants, hunted, unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment
has the necessary license
d) In restaurants it is not allowed to process hunted, unskinned wild games

A

a) In restaurants, raw milk can only be used after boiling

c) In restaurants, hunted, unskinned wild games can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary license

130
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Basic documents of the intra-community trade of foodstuffs in the EU is the common
Health Entry Document (CHED)
b) Basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third contries is the common health entry document (CHED)
c) Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European union through border inspection posts only
d) Foodstuffs of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only

A

b) Basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs imported from third contries is the common health entry document (CHED)
c) Foodstuffs of animal origin can enter the territory of the European union through border inspection posts only

131
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be marked with an identification marking
b) In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c) Restaurants belong to the retail establishments
d) Restaurants belong to the wholesale establishments

A

b) In the inra-Community trade, the fresh meat of pigs or cattle shall be health marked (meat stamp)
c) Restaurants belong to the retail establishments

132
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
b) All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authority
c) Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit
d) Registration process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

A

a) Establishments operating under the scope of the regulation 853/2004/EC shall be approved
c) Approval process of a food establishment needs a previous on-site visit

133
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the GHP aduit
b) Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c) The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
d) The poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

A

b) Control of the proper identification of critical control points is a major element of the HACCP audit
c) The poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

134
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Retail supermarkets are subject of approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
b) Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
c) Mass caterers are subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
d) Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC

A

b) Retail supermarkets are not subject of approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC
d) Mass caterers are not subject to approval according to the regulation 853/2004/EC

135
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
b) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
c) The health mark (meat stamp) shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment, but it is not included in the identification marking
d) Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of
the concerned establishment

A

a) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution

d) Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of
the concerned establishment

136
Q

Choose the correct answers

a) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
b) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through heat treatment at
temperatures exceeding 100°C
c) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 7°C
d) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 4°C

A

a) Any food intended for mass catering shall be prepared through safe heat treatment
d) Offal from pigs shall be stored in a catering establishment at < 4°C

137
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
b) According to the corresponding EU legislation, food processing establishments shall be
controlled at least annually
c) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
d) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

A

a) The EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with the critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

138
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) HACCP is a food-quality risk analysis and management system
b) HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis and management system
c) The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice
d) The good hygiene practice is based on the HACCP concept

A

b) HACCP is a food-safety risk analysis and management system
c) The HACCP concept is based on the good hygiene practice

139
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In most European countriesa single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
c) In most European countries a single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

A

b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain control authority
d) In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

140
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) The rules of small-scale production of foods of animal origin are regulated on EU level
b) The rules of small-scale production fo foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c) Mass catering belongs to retail operations
d) Mass catering belongs to wholesale operations

A

b) The rules of small-scale production fo foods of animal origin shall be determined nationally
c) Mass catering belongs to retail operations

141
Q

Choose the correct statements (practical 1)

a) Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
b) Only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement
c) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria
d) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria

A

a) Only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
c) The endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria

142
Q

What applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for Enterobacterium multiplication based on practice? (Practical 1)

a) 60°C for 30 min
b) 80°C for 20 min
c) 90°C for 5 min
d) Only boiling water

A

a) 60°C for 30 min

b) 80°C for 20 min

143
Q

Choose the right solutions (practical 1)

a) The ‘c’ value means the sample number
b) The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between M
c) If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in the meat product is higher than 105
cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin
d) If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the
product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin

A

b) The ‘c’ value means the number of sample units giving values over m or between M
d) If the coagulase-positive Staphylococcus count in cheese is higher than 105 cfu/g, then the product must also be tested for the presence of staphylococcus enterotoxin

144
Q

Which organic acid and what pH was applied successfully during our practice? (practical 1)

a) Formic acid
b) pH 6.5
c) Sorbic acid
d) pH 4.5

A

c) Sorbic acid

d) pH 4.5

145
Q

Mark the correct answers (Practical 1)

a) In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes gives a positive reaction with Rhodococcus equi
b) In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) Salmonella decarboxylates lysine
d) Salmonella digest urea

A

b) In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) Salmonella decarboxylates lysine

146
Q

What is the sample size? (Practical 1)

a) 0.1 ml for pour-plate
b) 1 ml for pour-plate
c) 1 ml for spreading
d) 0.1 ml for spreading

A

b) 1 ml for pour-plate

d) 0.1 ml for spreading

147
Q

Markt the correct answers (Practical 1)

a) Escherichia coli is indole-positive
b) Escherichia coli uses citrate as the only carbon source
c) Escherichia coli performs mixed acid fermentation
d) Escherichia coli performs butanediol fermentation

A

a) Escherichia coli is indole-positive

c) Escherichia coli performs mixed acid fermentation

148
Q

What is the maximum number of colonies that can be counted? (Practical 1)

a) 150 colonies/petri dish
b) 300 colonies/petri dish
c) 150 colonies/membrane
d) 300 colonies/membrane

A

b) 300 colonies/petri dish

c) 150 colonies/membrane

149
Q

Choose the correct answers! (practical 2)

a) The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
b) During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400°C
c) During smoking, the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400°C
d) The durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

A

a) The use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product

d) The durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

150
Q

Choose the correct answers! (Practical 2)

a) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not heat treated, therefore they cannot be eaten cold
b) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated, therefore they can be eaten cold
c) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are not always heat treated
d) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience

A

b) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated, therefore they can be eaten cold
d) The frankfurters distributed in shops/supermarkets are already heat treated, we heat them up only for better consumer experience

151
Q

At what stage of the food analytical procedure may a veterinarian be responsible? (Practical 2)

a) Sampling
b) Sample preparation
c) Determining the analytical strategy, carrying out the analaysis
d) Interpretation of results

A

b) Sample preparation

d) Interpretation of results

152
Q

For which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures of the previous year? (Practical 2)

a) Swine
b) Cattle
c) Broiler chicken
d) Honey

A

c) Broiler chicken

d) Honey

153
Q

Which product belongs to the primary production? (Practical 2)

a) Raw milk
b) Dairy products
c) Egg
d) Sausage

A

a) Raw milk

c) Egg

154
Q

Choose the correct answers (practical 2)

a) Lactoscan equipment is used to perform microbial growth inhibition test
b) Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein, which is important by the price quotation of the milk
c) Lactoscan equipment is used to determine the toal plate count of the received raw milk
d) Lactoscan equipment is not just for raw milk useful, but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during manufacture of dairy products

A

b) Lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein, which is important by the price quotation of the milk
d) Lactoscan equipment is not just for raw milk useful, but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during manufacture of dairy products

155
Q

Which food can be contaminated during the primary production? (Practical 2)

a) Egg
b) Sausage
c) Vegetable
d) Minced meat

A

a) Egg

c) Vegetable

156
Q

What are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods? (Practical 2)

a) More reliable qualitative analysis
b) More sensitive quantitative analysis
c) More cost-effective procedures
d) All statements are true

A

a) More reliable qualitative analysis

b) More sensitive quantitative analysis

157
Q

Which of these cheese types are hard and full-fat? (practical 3)

a) Cheddar
b) Mozzarella
c) Feta
d) Emmental

A

a) Cheddar

d) Emmental

158
Q

Which methods may be used for determining the water added to the milk (possible food adulteration)? (Practical 3)

a) Alcohol test
b) Density measurement
c) Peroxidase test
d) Measuring the freezing point

A

b) Density measurement

d) Measuring the freezing point

159
Q

Choose the right solutions. (Practical 3)

a) The whipped cream must be matured
b) The churning is a phase reversion process
c) Butter rancidity is the result of protein breakdown
d) Rancing is caused by microbial activity

A

b) The churning is a phase reversion process

d) Rancing is caused by microbial activity

160
Q

Please select the right statements! (Practical 3)

a) Yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria
b) Yoghurt is made with mesophilic starter culture
c) Yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type
d) After yoghurt fermentation there is no need for aging in the fridge

A

a) Yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria

c) Yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type

161
Q

Which information is part of the producer code on the eggshell? (Practical 3)

a) The approval number of the egg packing centre
b) The registration number of the laying hen farm
c) EC (European community)
d) The code of the housing method

A

b) The registration number of the laying hen farm

d) The code of the housing method

162
Q

What is typical for Hungarian trappist cheese made also during the practice? (Practical 3)

a) Rennet-coagulated
b) Acid-coagulated
c) Prepressing under whey
d) Irregular holes

A

a) Rennet-coagulated

c) Prepressing under whey

163
Q

What is true for appropriately manufactures set-type yoghurt? (Practical 3)

a) It is runny
b) It is spoonable
c) It has a final pH between pH 4.6-4.3
d) It has a final pH between pH 5.0-5.3

A

b) It is spoonable

c) It has a final pH between pH 4.6-4.3

164
Q

Choose the correct answers! (Practical 3)

a) Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
b) Buttermilk cannot be separed by washing
c) Physical ripening of cream results sour bitter
d) Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

A

a) Buttermilk is a byproduct of churning

d) Biological ripening of cream results sour butter

165
Q

What is the role of nitrite in cured meat products (Practical 4)

a) It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium botulinum
b) It causes a red color to the cured meat, which is NOT heat resistant
c) It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity
d) It has no role since it is not allowed to apply in EU

A

a) It is prohibiting the growth of germs of Clostridium
botulinum

c) It has antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity

166
Q

What are the advantages of natural casings? (Practical 4)

a) Preparation time is fast as it is easy to handle
b) They are permeable for smoke and water vapor
c) Microbiological contamination is negligible
d) They are digestable

A

b) They are permeable for smoke and water vapor

d) They are digestable

167
Q

Which of the following statements are true for the Trichinella examination? (Practical 4)

a) Faecal samples are used
b) Muscle samples are used
c) The basis of the examination is the detection of the trichinella larvae
d) In the slaughterhouse maximum 5 animals must be sampled on each day

A

b) Muscle samples are used

c) The basis of the examination is the detection of the trichinella larvae

168
Q

What were the applied technology steps during peasant sausage manufacture in Technology lab? (Practical 4)

a) Inoculation of meat with starter culture
b) Stuffing
c) Smoking
d) Heat treatment (cooking)

A

b) Stuffing

c) Smoking

169
Q

Which investigation must be performed during the official control of live bivalves? (Practical 4)

a) Faecal contamination of the production area
b) Measurement of histamine concentration
c) Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves
d) Measurement of mercury concentration

A

a) Faecal contamination of the production area

c) Biotoxin content of the flesh of live bivalves

170
Q

Which substance can be measured in the fishery product if there is doubt for freshness? (Practical4)

a) Total volatile basic nitrogen
b) Ciguatoxin
c) Tetrodotoxin
d) Trimethylamine-nitrogen

A

a) Total volatile basic nitrogen

d) Trimethylamine-nitrogen

171
Q

In which cases is the carcass unfit for human consumption? (practical 4)

a) Leanness
b) Icterus/Jaundice
c) Insufficient bleeding
d) DFD meat

A

b) Icterus/Jaundice

c) Insufficient bleeding

172
Q

What curing methods were demonstrated in the Technology lab? (practical 4)

a) Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
b) Wet curing with injection: 8% sodium nitrite solution was injected
c) Dry salting: meat was covered with pure sodium chloride
d) Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing

A

a) Dry curing method: meat was covered with curing/pickling salt
d) Tumbling: tumbler was applied to perform fast curing

173
Q

Which of the following statements are true? (Practical 4)

a) The official veterinarian must be present when the animals are loaded onto the vehicle before the transportation to the slaughterhouse
b) After separate killing, the carcass can be used in food processing
c) The official veterinarian must inspect the Food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d) Vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorized

A

c) The official veterinarian must inspect the Food chain information whenever new cargo arrives at the slaughterhouse
d) Vehicles used for the transportation of livestock animals must be authorized

Food Hygiene Final (4 decks)

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