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ATPL > Human Factors > Flashcards

Human Factors Flashcards

1
Q

At what temperatures is the body most comfortable in?

A

21-27 degrees

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2
Q

What humidity is human body most comfortable in?

A

40-60%

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3
Q

What temps can heat stress and cold stress take place?

A

Heat >32 degrees

Cold less than 10

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4
Q

What is the early indication of dehydration?

A

Drying of nasal passage

Prickly sensation of eyes

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5
Q

How long a period should be spent on the ground after making a blood donation?

A

24 hours

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6
Q

What is barotrauma?

A

Ear drum buldges inwards
Eustachian tube blocked
Pressure higher outside the ear then inside it

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7
Q

When is barotrauma likely to occur?

A

High rates of descent

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8
Q

What are some additional affects of barotrauma?

A

Burst ear drum

Pressure vertigo

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9
Q

What can relieve effects of barotrauma?

A

Valsalve Manoeuvre

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10
Q

What does Valsalve manoeuvre do?

A

Forces air to enter the eustachian tube to increase pressure in middle ear cavity, allowing it to become equal to outside pressure

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11
Q

If you have suffered an injury, what should you do?

A

Cease all flying

Notify DAME immediately

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12
Q

When should flying stop when pregnant?

A

After the 6th month

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13
Q

How can pilots assist airsick passengers?

A

Flying as smoothly as possible

Limiting the degree and rate of attitude changes (especially in pitch)

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14
Q

What can obesity lead to?

A

Hypertension, gout, diabetes, heart disease

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of pilot incapacitation in flight?

A

Gastro

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16
Q

How much water do you lose on average a day? What about on a hot day?

A

1 L average day

5 L hot day

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17
Q

What can the ingestion of too much salt lead to?

A

Hypertension

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18
Q

What sort of foods release more gas?

A

Green vegetabes

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19
Q

What can too little iron lead to?

A

Anaemia

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20
Q

Losing hearing as a result of age is likely to be affected in which frequency?

A

High frequency

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21
Q

The Eustachian tube links what part of the ears?

A

Middle ear to throat

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22
Q

During a descent with blocked Eustachian Tubes, what happens to the gas volume in the middle ear?

A

It decreases

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23
Q

What is the lowest temp at which signs of heat stress are likely to occur?

A

32 degrees

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24
Q

How long is a medical certificate valid for a ppl for student and private licences?

A

4 years for both if under 40

2 years if over 40+

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25
Q

How long is a medical certificate valid for CPL or higher?

A

1 year

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26
Q

When is another medical exam required ?

A

At the end of the period for re-issue of certificate

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27
Q

What is the majority of alcohol broken down by?

A

The liver

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28
Q

What is the average rate of alcohol broken down?

A

1 standard drink per hour for a man

Less than for a woman

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29
Q

How long can alcohol be present in the brain cells after drinking?

A

24 hours

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30
Q

What is CASA’s requirement for alcohol before a flight?

A

Total abstinence by pilot from any alcohol for a period of 8 hours before departure of aircraft

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31
Q

What is the maximum recommended standard drinks in one week for a man and woman?

A

21-28 for man

14-21 for woman

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32
Q

What is the general recommended period away from flying if on antibiotics?

A

24 hours

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33
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation caused by?

A

Reduction of acidity of the bloody due to loss of C02

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34
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A 
Lightheadedness
Dizziness
Sweating
Rapid heart beat
Tingling (hands or feet)
Numbness (hands or feet)
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35
Q

How should hyperventilation be treated?

A

Make a conscious effort to slow down rate of breathing

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36
Q

By what height has atmospheric pressure halved?

A

18000 feet

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37
Q

What is the recommended rest after a scuba dive not requiring decompression stops?

A

4 hours at sea level

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38
Q

What is the recommended rest after a scuba dive which requires decompression stops but is less than 4 hours?

A

12 hours at sea level

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39
Q

What is the recommended rest after a scuba dive which requires decompression stops but is more than 4 hours?

A

48 hours

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40
Q

What is a side effect of antihistamines?

A

May induce drowsiness

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41
Q

If necessary to take sleeping tablets, how long a period should be waited before flying?

A

24 hours

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42
Q

At a depth of about 30 feet, what is the underwater pressure compared to sea level atmospheric pressure?

A

2 times normal sea level

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43
Q

What is decompression sickness caused by?

A

Dissolved nitrogen from the blood during rapid ascent from deep water

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44
Q

When suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection, what is a pilot likely to suffer from?

A

Pressure vertigo

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45
Q

When can analgesics be used?

A

Only for short term pain relief

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46
Q

What are the two functions of the ear?

A

Hearing

Balance

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47
Q

What is the function of the outer ear?

A

Canal which prevents intrusions (dust, insects etc) and protects eardrum from heat/cool

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48
Q

What does the ear drum do?

A

Forms an airtight seal protecting middle ear from contamination

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49
Q

What happens to sound?

A

Eardrum vibrates to sound waves arriving via the canal.

Hammer, anvil and stirrup amplify and conduct those vibrations to the cochlea

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50
Q

What does the stirrup connect and do?

A

Connects to the cochlea at the ‘oval window’

Mechanical energy of vibration begins conversion to electrical energy of nerve impulese

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51
Q

How is sounds carried to brain?

A

Via the cochlear nerve

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the Eustachian tube?

A

Vents atmosphere to/from middle ear to equalise pressure either side of ear drum

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53
Q

What does the cochlea do?

A

Processes vibrations arriving at oval window

Converts them to electrical signals and send to brain as nerve impulses via cochlea nerve

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54
Q

Where are the semi circular canals?

A

Mounted above cochlea in inner ear

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55
Q

What does semi circular canals do?

A

Detect acceleration in pitch, roll and yaw (sense of balance)

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56
Q

What is the cochlea filled with?

A

Fluid called Endolymph

Tiny hair like cells

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57
Q

What is in the semi circular canals?

A

Endolymph

Hair like cells (cupula)

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58
Q

What does cupula respond to?

A

Initial change in angular acceleration only (turning or rolling)

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59
Q

What organ senses linear acceleration?

A

Otolith organs

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60
Q

What organ senses angular acceleration

A

Semi circular canals

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61
Q

What is the otolith organ made up of?

A

Utricle and saccule

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62
Q

What does the utricle and saccule do?

A

Utricle lies horizontally and detects horizontal accelerations
Saccule lies vertically and detects vertical accelerations

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63
Q

What is the dominant organ in maintaining a sense of balance?

A

Eyes

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64
Q

At what intensity will prolonged exposure cause temporary or permanent damage to the ear?

A

85dB

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65
Q

At what intensity will exposure cause ear pain?

A

140dB

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66
Q

At what intensity will exposure cause ear discomfort?

A

120dB

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67
Q

As a rough guide, hearing protection should be worn if you have to yell to be heard from a distance of?

A

Half a metre

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68
Q

What does a decibel measure?

A

Intensity or loudness of a sound

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69
Q

What does a Hertz measure?

A

The frequency or pitch of a sound

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70
Q

Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when eustachian tube is blocked?

A

Middle ear

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71
Q

If the eustachian tube is blocked, where is the blockage likely to occur?

A

At the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage

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72
Q

Which component of the inner ear senses changes in speed with constant direction?

A

Otholith organ

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73
Q

Which part of the ear acts as a linear accelerometer?

A

Otolith

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74
Q

What is the function of the hammer, anvil and stirrup?

A

Transfer vibrations from ear drum to inner ear

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75
Q

What does the cornea do?

A

Transparent film though which light first enters the eye
Protects rest of eye from outside world
Helps lens focus light onto retina

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76
Q

What is the cornea supported and held in shape by?

A

Aqueous humour

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77
Q

What is the iris?

A

Coloured part of the eye

Changes shape in response to intensity of the light

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78
Q

Where are rods and cones found?

A

Interior surface of the retina

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79
Q

Where are cones located and what do they do?

A

Centrally located

Colour perception and fine detail

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80
Q

What sort of lighting is required by the cones?

A

Bright lighting

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81
Q

Where are the rods and what do they do?

A

Arranged concentrically around the cones

Responsible for night vision

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82
Q

What sort of lighting is required by rods?

A

Best in low light

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83
Q

Are rods sensitive to light or colour?

A

Light

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84
Q

How does the eye adapt to different lighting?

A

Adjusting the iris to change the diameter of the pupil by chemical changes in the light sensitive cells on the retina

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85
Q

Where is the most sensitive area on the retina?

A

The fovea

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86
Q

What is the fovea used for?

A

Fine details

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87
Q

What is the blind spot?

A

Junction of the optic nerves

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88
Q

What happens to light falling on the blind spot?

A

Will not be registered by the brain

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89
Q

What is the ‘priming’ substance for dark adaptation?

A

Rhodopsin

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90
Q

How long does rhodopsin take to reach its full concentration?

A

30 to 40 mins

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91
Q

How can you assist focus at night?

A

Look slightly to ones side of the object so light is focused onto rods and not the cones

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92
Q

Prolonged exposure to strong glare can cause what to night vision?

A

30 to 50% reduction in night vision for up to one week

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93
Q

What colour lighting has almost no effect on process of dark adaptation of rods?

A

Red light

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94
Q

What is flicker vertigo?

A

Bright light flickering when passing through an IDLING prop blade. Can also be induced by strobe light in cloud

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95
Q

When can empty field myopia occur?

A

Flying at high altitude or above unbroken layer of cloud when there is nothing to focus on

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96
Q

What is the resting distance of the eye?

A

1-2 m

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97
Q

How can empty field myopia be countered?

A

Occasionally focussing on wingtips, cloudtops or ground features

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98
Q

What are refractive errors>

A

Abnormalities in the lens that can usually be fixed with glasses

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99
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

Longsightedness

Distant objects seen clearly but closer objects fall behind retina

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100
Q

How can hyperopia be corrected?

A

Convex lenses

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101
Q

What is myopia?

A

Shortsightedness

Near objects seen clearly but distant objects fall short of retina

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102
Q

How can myopia be corrected?

A

Concave lenses

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103
Q

What is astigmatism?

A

Irregularities in the cornea and/or lens causing distortion of objects

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104
Q

How can astigmatism be corrected?

A

Cylindrical lenses

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105
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Natural deterioration of eyes due to ageing .

Lens becomes less flexible

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106
Q

If on a collision course, what will another plane look like?

A

Remain stationary on the windscreen

107
Q

What is saccades?

A

Eyeballs moving in a series of little jerks taking about 0.3s

108
Q

How is it best to scan?

A

Move head about 10-15 degrees at a time

109
Q

At what height can night vision deteriorate?

A

4000ft AGL

110
Q

What is the function of the ciliary muscle in the eye?

A

Alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances

111
Q

When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the?

A

Retina

112
Q

Where is the blind spot?

A

Junction of the optic nerve and retina

113
Q

What is the maximum distance at which a healthy eye in good light could ID a circle 1m in diameter?

A

2nm

114
Q

What affect would heavy rain do to objects viewed through window?

A

Appear further away then they actually are

115
Q

Night vision is enhanced by looking slightly off centre, why is this?

A

Concentration of rods in the retinal periphery

116
Q

Which part of the eye focuses the visual image onto the retina?

A

Lens

117
Q

The eye adapts to changes in light by adjusting what?

A

Iris to change shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina

118
Q

Light is focused onto the retina by what?

A

Cornea and the lens

119
Q

What is the Coriolis Illusion?

A

Pilot moving head forward during turn creating differing signals from semicircular canals
Creates tumbling sensation

120
Q

What is the autokinetic illusion?

A

Focusing on single light against dark background, appears to be moving

121
Q

What is the somatogravic illusion?

A

Acceleration mistaken for steep climb

122
Q

On a super clear day, what can the incorrect impression be on final?

A

Objects closer then they actually are and you are overshooting

123
Q

On a foggy day, what may the incorrect assumption be on final?

A

You are too low (i.e.undershooting)

124
Q

What can a build up of water on the windscreen do to approach?

A

Make angle to runway threshold appear steeper then it is (may think overshooting)

125
Q

What is the illusion landing on a wider then normal runway?

A

Believe you are lower then normal

Round out and hold off too high

126
Q

What illusion will there be landing on a narrower runway?

A

Illusion that too high

Late round out and heavy landing

127
Q

What is the illusion for terrain sloping up from threshold?

A

Pilot feels too low

Tendency to remain high, arrive at runway too high and/pr fast

128
Q

What is the illusion for terrain sloping down from thershold?

A

Pilot feels too high

Tendency to fly lower and flatter approach requiring extra power on final

129
Q

What is the illusion if runway is sloping up?

A

Appear to be too high

Flatter approach

130
Q

What is the illusion if runway is sloping down?

A

Appear too low

Higher approach and overshoot/overspeed

131
Q

On a clear night, what illusions can there be with the lights?

A

Lights appear closer then they are

Impression approach is too high

132
Q

On a hazy/foggy night, what illusions can there be with the lights?

A

Lights appear further away

Impression approach is too low

133
Q

What effect does black hole effect give?

A

Too high causing undershoot

134
Q

What physical things can increase disorientation?

A

Head colds
Flu
Sinus infection
Exhaustion/discomfort

135
Q

What mental things can increase disorientation?

A 
Anxiety
Stress
Mental fatigue
Fear/panic
Preoccupation with other tasks
136
Q

What does the proprioceptive system generate sensation from?

A

Skeletal muscles, joints and tendons

137
Q

When viewed from the cockpit, what will a small town approx 5nm away seem?

A

Closer then it actual is on dark night

138
Q

On a long wide runway which slopes down to landing threshold, what illusion may occur?

A

Low on approach

Tendency to overshoot

139
Q

On a approach to land at night overwater approach, pilot may perceive what?

A

Runway closer then actually is

Approach too high causing undershoot

140
Q

What sort of approach is likely to be made on a shorter then normal runway?

A

Approach too low

141
Q

When will the average person experience grey out?

A

3.5 G

142
Q

What is grey out?

A

Low O2 levels leading to partial loss of vision
Peripheral vision to fade
Still conscious

143
Q

When does blackout occur?

A

5 G

144
Q

What is black out?

A

Vision becomes black

Conscious but can still see

145
Q

What is GLOC?

A

Loss of consciousness

146
Q

What factors can decrease tolerance to G loads?

A

Hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar)
Heat stress
Hypoxia
Respiratory infection

147
Q

What are some techniques for improving G tolerance?

A

More reclined seat
Tensing stomach muscles
Being physically fit

148
Q

Does grey out and black out occur in negative g manoeuvres?

A

No

149
Q

What is red out?

A

High sustained negative G

Force bottom eyelid over the eyeball

150
Q

What is the most likely immediate effect of negative G?

A

Rupturing of small blood vessel of face and eyes (bloodshot eyes and red blotches on face)

151
Q

What is the safe negative G limit?

A

-3G

152
Q

What engine is carbon monoxide more present?

A

Piston engines

153
Q

What does carbon monoxide do?

A

Enters blood stream by combining with haemoglobin in the blood, taking place of oxygen

154
Q

What are the initial symptoms of carbon monoxide?

A

Slight headache
Fatigue
Mild discomfort in breathing

155
Q

As carbon monoxide levels increase, what are the intermediate symptoms?

A

Impairment of vision
Mental confusion
Severe headache
Vomitting

156
Q

What is the most common cause of carbon monoxide in the cockpit of a light aircraft?

A

Leaking exhaust (cabin heat)

157
Q

If carbon monoxide is suspected, what should be done?

A

Cabin heat off
Fresh air vents opened
Use O2 if available
Land ASAP

158
Q

What is the process of oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood?

A

Oxygen delivered to brain and rest of body, deoxygenated blood returns to heart where it passes through system of valves, arteries and veins

159
Q

What does heart do with deoxygenated blood?

A

Directs it to the lungs where it gives up its CO2 and collects fresh supply of O2

160
Q

What is haemoglobin?

A

Iron rich pigment which is main component of red blood cell.
Carries oxygen

161
Q

Does the brain monitor O2 or C02 levels in the body?

A

CO2 levels

162
Q

What is the composition of atmosphere?

A

78% nitrogen
20% Oxygen
2 % other gases

163
Q

What does transfer of oxygen into blood stream depend on?

A

Partial pressure within the lungs

164
Q

What are the early symptoms of hypoxia?

A

NO feeling of suffocation
Mild intoxication
Marked reduction in night vision

165
Q

What are the later symptoms of hypoxia?

A

Slowed thinking
Impaired judgement
Feeling of euphoria
Cyanosis (blue lips and fingernails)

166
Q

At 20000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person undertaking moderate activity?

A

10 mins

167
Q

At 20000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person sitting quietly activity?

A

20 mins

168
Q

At 25000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person undertaking moderate activity?

A

3 mins

169
Q

At 30000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person undertaking moderate activity?

A

1 min

170
Q

At 25000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person sitting quietly activity?

A

5 mins

171
Q

At 30000 feet, what is the useful time of consciousness for person sitting quietly activity?

A

3 mins

172
Q

For a normal person, what height does night vision degradation occur>

A

4000 feet

173
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Similar to hypoxia
Light headedness
Tingling of arms and hands

174
Q

What can help hyperventilation?

A

Holding breath
Voluntarily decreasing rate of breathing
Breathing into paper bag

175
Q

Supplemental oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot at all times above what height?

A

10000ft

176
Q

Above which altitude does it first become necessary for the pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breath pure 100% oxygen?

A

33700 ft

177
Q

Above which altitude does it first become necessary for the pilot of an unpressurised aircraft to breath pure 100% oxygen under pressure?

A

40000 ft

178
Q

A regular smoker at sea level can be assumed to be at an effective altitude of?

A

8000ft

179
Q

What does the sensory memory do?

A

Info from visual, audio, vestibular and proprioceptive sources is first directed here to be sorted

180
Q

What happens to info in the sensory memory?

A

Some triggers reflex
Some passed to short term memory
Some is discarded

181
Q

How long is visual info held for in the sensory memory?

A

0.5-1s

182
Q

How long is auditory info held for in the sensory memory?

A

4-8 seconds

183
Q

How long does short term memory hold info for?

A

7 items for about 30s

184
Q

How long does long term memory last

A

1 min to a lifetime

185
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Contains past events that occur with their outcomes

186
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Assigning meaning to symbols, codes or words such as logos or flags

187
Q

What is motor skills memory?

A

Complex individual tasks which have been linked through training and practice and become skills. Once learnt, little conscious effort is required

188
Q

What is required in the decision making process?

A

Sensory memory
Short term memory
Long term memory

189
Q

What can our attention be?

A

Selective or divided

190
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Attention is focussed on those input data which are specific to particular task at hand to exclusion of irrelevant data

191
Q

What is divided attention?

A

Requires us to perform separate tasks simultaneously

192
Q

What sort of pilot is preferable?

A

P+G+ (person directed, goal directed)

193
Q

How is information processed?

A

Sensation
Perception
Decision
Response

194
Q

What is attitude?

A

Predisposition to response in certain way to particular person or situation

195
Q

What can attitude incorporate?

A

Belief (cognitive)
Feeling (affective)
Action (behavioural)

196
Q

What is the average retention span of the short term memory?

A

15-30s

197
Q

The duration for sensroy memory for sounds is?

A

4-8s

198
Q

What is the main function of semantic memory?

A

Recognise visual symbols, codes or logos

199
Q

What is the main function of episodic memory?

A

Remember episodes of cause and effect that have occurred in the past

200
Q

Cool headed self assurance would be an example of what?

A

Stable introvert

201
Q

Which stage does motor program have difficut with?

A

Initiation

202
Q

How is a person best able to recall info from short term memory?

A

Audible and clustered

203
Q

What are the physical indicators of stress?

A 
High pulse
Dry mouth
Sweating
Hot flushes
Sleeplessness/bad dreams
Ulcers
Head aches
204
Q

What are the three stages for dealing with stress?

A

Alarm
Resistance
Collapse

205
Q

What are coping strategies for stress?

A

Action coping
Cognitive coping
Symptom directed coping

206
Q

What is action coping?

A

Taking action such as removing source of stress or removing yourself from stressful situation

207
Q

What is cognitive coping?

A

Mind over matter.
Rationalisation along with intellectual or emotional detachment from situation
Councelling

208
Q

What is symptom directed coping?

A

Seeking professional help/prescription drugs/recreational drugs

209
Q

Which category of stress coping strategies does meditation and exercise fall under?

A

Symptom directed coping

210
Q

What areas in your life should be investigated when dealing with stress?

A

Behaviour
Attitude
Fitness

211
Q

How long is the circadian rhythms?

A

24 hours and 11 mins +/- 16 mins (approx 25 hours)

212
Q

What happens to body rhythms when travelling east?

A

Body rhythms must advance

213
Q

What happens to body rhythms when travelling west?

A

Body rhythms must retard

214
Q

After a non stop flight through a 90 degrees change in longitude, the time required for the body rhythms to fully readjust to destinations local time would be?

A

4 days

215
Q

What is the average rate at which the body resyncs’ to local time after travelling through a large change in longitude?

A

1.5 hours per day

216
Q

Tasks are more likely to be affected by fatigue as the become more or less monotonous and complicated?

A

More monotonous

More complicated

217
Q

What is the order for the decision making process?

A 
Consider the facts
Define problem
Consider solution
Act
Consider result
218
Q

What is the typical length of time a pilot will maintain vigilance?

A

30 mins

219
Q

What is the error cause removal approach?

A

Encourage pilots to ID potential sources of error to prevent problems in the future

220
Q

What is chronic fatigue likley to be cause by?

A

Long period of poor health

221
Q

When conducting a procedural approach, a pilot uses what sort of behaviour?

A

Rule based

222
Q

A pilot sitting 1 inch below DEP will lose how much forward visibility?

A

Approx 40m

223
Q

What standard does DEP ensure?

A

Distance equal to 3s at approach speed is visible beyond cut off point and within 1200m visibility circle

224
Q

What are linear strip displays ideal for?

A

Monitoring the performance of several similar systems (i.e. engines)

225
Q

What are threats?

A

Originate in the environment outside the aircraft or in the cockpit that are not directly attributable to something the crew did/did not do
Promotes opportunity for pilot error

226
Q

What are some examples of threats/

A

Poor weather
Wind shear
High pilot work load

227
Q

What are errors?

A

Pilot actions or inactions that have potential to adversely affect safety of flight

228
Q

What is undesired aircraft state?

A

Flight condition or attitude not intended by operating crew

229
Q

What are some examples of undesired aircraft state?

A

Inappropriate flap
Flight above/below desired altitude
Airspeed too high/low
Unintentional spins/stalls

230
Q

What are some examples of external threats

A 
Distractions by passengers/crew
Weather
Heavy traffic
Unfamiliar aerodrome
Pressure to meet schedule
Unexpected request/query from ATC
Maintenance issues
Missed approach
Inflight diversion
System failure
231
Q

What can external threats be divided down to?

A

Anticipated
Unexpected
Latent

232
Q

What is examples of anticipated external threats

A

Weather
Heavy traffic
Unfamiliar aerodrome

233
Q

What are examples of unexpected external threats?

A

Distractions from passenger/crew
Inflight diversion
Missed approaches

234
Q

What are examples of latent external threats?

A

Poor cockpit design/layout
Company policies
Optic illusions

235
Q

What are examples of internal threats?

A 
Pilot fatigue
Language/cultural issues
Pilot experience/personality
Team familiarity
Health/fitness
Pilot recency/proficiency
236
Q

What are examples of environmental threats?

A

Weather
Airspace communication problems
Ground environments (signage, birds, obstructions
Terrain
Operational pressures such as late arrivals or unservicabilities

237
Q

What are examples of organisational threats?

A

Documentation errors

Tour of duty problems

238
Q

A pilot under pressure form his employer to get back to base before his duty expires is what sort of threat?

A

Latent

239
Q

What are the types of errors?

A

Handling
Procedural
Communication

240
Q

When are handling errors likely to occur?

A

Pilot has limited total aero experience

241
Q

What are some examples of handling errors?

A 
Rounding too high/too late
Failure to maintain track/heading
Failure to maintain height
Excess speed during taxi
Harsh braking
Poor crosswind technique
242
Q

What are some examples of procedural errors?

A

Failure to use written checklist
Failure to fly RHC when required by ERSA
Failure to stop at holding point
Failure to conform to track/heigh limitations during instrument approach
Incorrect flight planning or weight and balance

243
Q

What are some examples of communication errors?

A

Use of non standard terminology
Poor quality reception
Over transmission by third party
Unfamiliar accents or rapid speech

244
Q

What is systematic error?

A

Definite pattern

All other elements of task are error free but error occurs regular in one particular element

245
Q

What is random error?

A

No specific pattern.

Error occurs at different stage each time

246
Q

What is sporadic error?

A

All elements of task performed satisfactorily most of the time.
Occasionally a serious error is made in one element

247
Q

What are systemic countermeasures?

A

Built into the aircraft system to prevent threats and errors

248
Q

What are some examples of systemic countermeasures?

A

Stall warning device
GPWS
Vacuum pump failure warnings

249
Q

What are some planning countermeasures?

A

Preflight brief

250
Q

WHat are some examples of execution countermeasures?

A

Monitoring systems in flight
Cross checking instruments
Workload/systems management

251
Q

What are some examples of review countermeasures?

A

Monitoring progress of flight

252
Q

A pilot who fails to apply carby heat during a glide has committed what?

A

Handling error

253
Q

After being distracted by a difficult radio you deviate from your assigned level in CTA. What counter measure should you have taken?

A

Execution countermeasure requiring you to manage the workload

254
Q

A pilot who resorts to assertiveness to address a problem is doing what?

A

Review countermeasure

255
Q

Pilot planns to cruise at 5500 but given clearance to climb to 4500 in CTA but because of poor reception reads back 5500. What is this

A

Communication error

256
Q

A pilot who is running late misses a NOTAM, and flies into it. What counter measure could have prevented this?

A

Planning countermeasure

257
Q

What countermeasure would cross checking instruments fall under?

A

Execution countermeasure

258
Q

What are the three types of undesired aircraft states?

A

Aircraft handling states
Ground navigation states
Aircraft configuration states

259
Q

What are some examples of aircraft handling states?

A

Aircraft control (deviation in pitch, roll/yaw)
Altitude, track or speed deviations
Placing A/c in hazardous situation (weather or violation of CTA or CTAF)
Exceeding structural load factor/speed limits
Poor technique in flying the approach

260
Q

What are examples of ground nav states?

A

Attempting to use wrong taxi way/runway

Taxiing too fast

261
Q

What are examples of aircraft config states?

A 
Inapproporate flap or speed brake selections
Incorrect autopilot mode
Incorrect GPS/nav aid programming
Incorrect fuel distribution
Incorrect weight distribution
262
Q

What would regularly practicing forced landings be with regards to countermeasures and TEM?

A

Systemic countermeasure employed to manage an unexpected threat

263
Q

What are the three levels of situational awareness?

A

Perception
Comprehension
Projection

ATPL (6 decks)

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