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ATPL > Aerodynamics and Systems > Flashcards

Aerodynamics and Systems Flashcards

1
Q

When the bank angle increases to 60 degrees, what happens to G force and stall speed?

A

G force approx 2 G

Stall up about 40%

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2
Q

Where does weight act through?

A

Centre of gravity

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3
Q

Where does lift act through?

A

Centre of lift

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4
Q

What happens if centre of lift is ahead of centre of gravity?

A

Aircraft suffer nose up pitch

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5
Q

What happens if centre of lift is behind centre of gravity?

A

Aircraft suffer nose down pitch

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6
Q

Longitudinal stability is about what plane?

A

Pitching plane

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7
Q

Lateral stability is about what plane?

A

Roll plane

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8
Q

What will increase lateral stability?

A

Dihedral

Swept back wings

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9
Q

What is dihedral?

A

Wing tips higher than wing root

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10
Q

What does dihedral do to stability?

A

Increases lateral stability

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11
Q

What is anhedral?

A

Wing tips lower than the root

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12
Q

What does anhedral do to stability?

A

Reduce lateral stability and increase turning stability

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13
Q

What is the chord?

A

Longitudinal distance between leading and trailing edge

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14
Q

What is the mean chord?

A

Average length of chord

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15
Q

What is the wing span?

A

Distance from wing tip to wing tip

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16
Q

What is aspect ratio?

A

Relationship of span to average chord.

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17
Q

What would a wing look like if it had high aspect ratio?

A

Long and thin

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18
Q

What would a wing look like if it had low aspect ratio?

A

Short and thick

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19
Q

What does a high aspect ratio wing do to drag?

A

Produces less induced drag

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20
Q

What is maximum thickness for aerofoil?

A

Point on wing where it is thickest.

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21
Q

What is camber?

A

Relationship between chord and thickness.

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22
Q

What a high camber wing section look like?

A

Thick wing and short chord

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23
Q

What is mean camber?

A

Average thickness compared to average chord

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24
Q

What is MAC?

A

Mean aerodynamic chord.

Position of centre of gravity within an imaginary rectangular wing chord.

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25
Q

What is angle of incidence?

A

Angle between chord line of aerofoil and fore/aft datum line of aircraft

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26
Q

What is angle of attack?

A

Angle between chord line and relative airflow

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27
Q

What is upwash?

A

Motion of relative airflow as approaches leading edge

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28
Q

What is downwash?

A

Motion of relative airflow as it leaves trailing edge

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29
Q

What is the separation point?

A

Point in front of the wing at which approaching air is separated by approaching wing

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30
Q

What is the boundary layer?

A

Thin area above surface of wing that is stationary

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31
Q

What does a thick boundary layer do to drag?

A

Increases drag

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32
Q

What is the transition point?

A

Flow instability develops.
Turbulent flow starts
Drag increases

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33
Q

What is centre of pressure?

A

Point through which lift pressure foces act

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34
Q

When is induced drag highest?

A

Just before the stall.

Also at minimum steady flight

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35
Q

How would we get CAS?

A

IAS corrected for pressure and instrument errors

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36
Q

How would we get EAS?

A

CAS less compressibility error

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37
Q

How would we get TAS?

A

EAS corrected for air density error

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38
Q

What is the biggest influence in the speed of sound?

A

Temperature

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39
Q

When is speed of sound faster, warm or cold air?

A

Warm

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40
Q

When at high altitudes and cold temps, what is the speed of sound, faster or slower?

A

Slower

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41
Q

What is the approx speed of sound?

A

662 knots

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42
Q

The Mach number defines the relationship between what?

A

TAS to speed of sound

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43
Q

Mach numbers values are written as a percentage of seed of sound, true or false?

A

True

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44
Q

If you were flying at the speed of sound, what would the Mach number be?

A

M1

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45
Q

What happens to TAS if climbing at fixed Mach number?

A

TAS will reduce

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46
Q

What is Vmo/Mmo?

A

IAS for max normal operating speed and Maximum Mach normal operations speed

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47
Q

Where would you find figure for Vmo/Mmo?

A

Flight manual

Vmo/Mmo needle on ASI (known as Barbers Pole)

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48
Q

If you are climbing at IAS just below Vmo, what will eventually happen to Mmo?

A

Will be eventually exceeded

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49
Q

What is the True OAT always equal to with relation to Total Air Temperature?

A

Equal to or colder than TAT

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50
Q

What is does Vmcg stand for and what is it?

A

Minimum control indicated airspeed on ground.
Minimum speed pilot can maintain direction control of aircraft with one engine becoming inoperative during take off roll using aerodynamic controls only.

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51
Q

What aircraft config is found with Vmcg?

A

Flaps and trim in takeoff config
Critical engine failed
Take off power on available engine
CoG rear

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52
Q

When using Vmcg, what is assumed with the wheels?

A

Nose wheel no longer on ground.

Main wheels are still on ground

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53
Q

What will forward CoG do to Vmcg?

A

Lower it

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54
Q

What does a low Vmcg speed do?

A

Gives us greater asymetric control

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55
Q

What factors will reduce Vmcg?

A 
High density
Reduced take off thrust
Large tail fin area
Large rudder area
Forward CoG
Short distance from engine to fuselage
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56
Q

What does Vmca stand for?

A

Minimum control indicated airspeed in air.

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57
Q

What does Vmca assume the aircraft is doing?

A 
Completely clear of ground.
Sudden loss of critical engine
CoG rear
Max available take off thrust remaining engine
AoB no more 5 degrees
Trim in take off position
Out of ground effect
Landing gear retracted
Windmilling prop
Max sea level take off weight
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58
Q

If one engine were to fail, what is the pitching and yawing tendency?

A

Pitch down

Yaw towards dead engine

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59
Q

What will moving the CoG forward do to controls with one engine out?

A

Assist with control

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60
Q

What is the critical engine?

A

Engine that if failed will produce most adverse yaw couple

Down going blade closest to fuselage

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61
Q

To reduce performance loss during critical engine failure, wha should be done?

A

Slight bank towards live engine

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62
Q

What factors reduce Vmca?

A 
Fuselage mounted engines
Reduced thrust
Large tail fin area
Large rudder area
Forward CoG
Short distance from engine to fuselage
Banking towards live engine
High altitude
High density altitude
Dihedral and fuselage blanket of wing
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63
Q

What is the risk of loss on engine at high altitude?

A

Aircraft likely to be close to stall speed.

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64
Q

What actions should be taken at high altitude following engine failure

A

Descent to more suitable engine one level

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65
Q

The area on the aerofoil where smooth streamline airflow beginning to break up and become turbulent is know as what?

A

The transition point

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66
Q

With increased curvature (camber) of surface what happens to speed and pressure above the surface?

A

Speed increases
Pressure decreases
(This is Bernoullis theory

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67
Q

What happens to lift as angle of attack increase?

A

Lift increases until stall AoA then decreases

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68
Q

What does a laminar flow wing do?

A

Reduces drag, has laminar flow over entire wing (no turbulent flow at all

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69
Q

What are the characteristics of a super critical wing section?

A

Section thickness and camber further aft
More gradual camber
Reflex curve on underside near trailing edge

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70
Q

What is the primary purpose of super critical wing?

A

To increase Mach number at which shockwaves form which delays shockwave drag rise

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71
Q

Will aircraft that fly at high Mach numbers be more efficient with swept back wings or straight wings?

A

Swept back

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72
Q

Where do swept back wings tend to stall first and why?

A

At the tips.

Air approaching leading edge of wing deflected upwards (upwash)

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73
Q

In swept back wings what happens to the transition point as approaching stall?

A

Transition point moves forwards and inwards

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74
Q

What is the tendency of the nose during a swept back wing stall?

A

Nose pitch up

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75
Q

What is generally done to ensure a pitch down at stall?

A 
Washout (twist of wing so incidence angle at tips less than root)
Leading edge slat deployment
Wing fences
Saw/dog tooth
Vortex generators
Shark teeth
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76
Q

What do leading edge slat devices do?

A

Extend when within certain AoA/speeds.
Energises the flow over the top surface
Delay break up of streamline flow
Improves aileron effectiveness near stall

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77
Q

What do wing fences do?

A

Prevent span wise flow.

Rotates opposite direction to usual wing tip trailing vortex

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78
Q

What do leading edge slots do?

A

Re-energise airflow above wing by injecting high pressure air from below into leading upper surface.
This delays airflow separating into turbulent flow.
Creates greater lift at higher angle of attack

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79
Q

What do leading edge slats do?

A

Device that moves forward from leading edge to create a slot.
Directs high energy air onto upper wing leading edge to re-energise boundary layer.
Increases camber of wing
Increases stall angle

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80
Q

What does deployment of leading edge slats do to pitch?

A

Causes a pitch up moment

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81
Q

When are leading edge slats most effective?

A

High angles of attack

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82
Q

What do leading edge flaps do?

A

Helps air flow at leading edge overcome early stall

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83
Q

What do Krueger leading edge flaps do?

A

Increase camber of aerofoil (but dont incorporate a slot)
Increase drag at all speeds
Produces nose pitch up
Increase lift

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84
Q

What do Droop Snoot leading edge flaps do?

A

Leading edge of wing pivots forward and down to increase camber and wing area which increases lift.

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85
Q

All leading edge devices contribute to lift best at what angle of attack?

A

High angle of attack

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86
Q

What happens to AoA and approach speed if leading edge devices are not deployed?

A

Lower AoA

Higher approach speed

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87
Q

What do leading edge flaps do to camber, wing area and stall speed?

A

Increase camber
Increase wing area
Decrease stall speed

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88
Q

Do leading edge flaps feature slots or re-energise boundary layer?

A

No

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89
Q

What are the main effect of deploying trailing edge flaps?

A 
Increase camber of wing
Increase drag
Increase in lift at all AoA
Stall AoA reduced
Stall speed reduced
Nose down pitch
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90
Q

On the wing, what do speed brakes (spoilers) do?

A

Reduce lift
Creating drag
Providing roll control
Increase descent gradient

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91
Q

What do tail mounted speed breaks do to drag and lift?

A

Increase drag

Don’t spoil lift

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92
Q

What can be done with spoilers if requiring a roll to the right?

A

Spoilers on right wing deflect upwards, spoilers on left wing remain down

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93
Q

What happens when the spoilers are set to armed?

A

Spoilers will raise all spoiler panels automatically when aircraft touches down

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94
Q

Apart from the lift and drag benefits, why use spoilers and inboard ailerons

A

Helps reduce fatigue on wings/outboard ailerons at high speeds

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95
Q

What is the Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?

A

Free stream Mach number at which first shock waves forms
Any part of ac reaches Mach 1 (supersonic)
Marks beginning of transonic range

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96
Q

What happens to drag if you fly faster than Mcrit?

A

Increase in drag

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97
Q

What is Mfs?

A

Freestream Mach number

Mach number of aircraft through the air

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98
Q

When do shockwaves form?

A

After reaching a value greater than mach 1, it reduces back to mach 1, that is when shock wave forms

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99
Q

Where do shock waves tend to form first, thick or thin parts of aerofoil?

A

Thick

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100
Q

What is the pitch tendency with shockwave?

A

Nose pitch down

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101
Q

What is the Mach trimmer for?

A

To counter the nose pitch down tendency after shockwave

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102
Q

What happens to centre of lift with shockwave as speed increases?

A

Centre of lift moves rearward (pitch down)

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103
Q

What happens to lift and drag after upper shockwave forms?

A

Lift reduces

Drag increases

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104
Q

What is Mdet?

A

Detachment Mach number.

When bow shockwaves attach to leading edge

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105
Q

What is all flow above Mdet?

A

Supersonic

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106
Q

What angles does a normal shockwave form and where?

A

At right angles to the wing surface

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107
Q

What angles does oblique shock form and where?

A

Bends backwards on bow wave and tail wave

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108
Q

Why is flying at the aerodynamic ceiling not recommended?

A

High drag created and significant increase in fuel flow required to maintain speed (reducing range)
Tailplane becomes less effective if stalled

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109
Q

What is Mcdr?

A

Critical drag rise

Mach number where drag increases significantly due to shockwave formation

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110
Q

Which is higher, Mcdr or Mcrit?

A

Mcdr

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111
Q

What three things can be done to increase Mcrit and Mcdr values?

A

Wing sweep
Low thickness/chord ratio
Supercritical wing sections

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112
Q

What speed and altitude is wing sweep most effective at?

A

High speed

High altitude

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113
Q

Compared to a swept back which, what angle of attack does maximum lift occur on a straight wing?

A

Less angle of attack

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114
Q

A swept wing has less lift at all AoA than a straight wing, true or false?

A

True

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115
Q

What does increased sweep do to dutch roll tendency?

A

Increases it

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116
Q

What does increased sweep do to flap effectiveness?

A

Decreases it

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117
Q

As Mcrit is reached, what happens to lift?

A

Peaks just as Mcrit is reached and drops thereafter to M1

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118
Q

What do thin wings do to Mcrit and Mcdr? What about to lift?

A

Increase Mcrit and Mcdr

Reduce lift

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119
Q

Where is the point of max camber on a supercritical wing?

A

About 40-45% along

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120
Q

What does supercritical wing do to acceleration of airflow over upper surface?

A

Reduces it

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121
Q

What do vortex generators do to shockwaves?

A

Weaken the shockwave that develops and inhibit the thickening of boundary layer behind shockwave.
Increases the Mcdr

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122
Q

What happens in the intake cycle?

A

Piston moves down

Sucks in mixture of air and fuel

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123
Q

What happens in compression cycle?

A

Piston moves up

As piston reaches top, spark is supplied which causes ignition of mixture

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124
Q

What happens in the power cycle?

A

Piston goes down

Explosion/expansion of mixture forces piston down

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125
Q

What happens in the exhaust cycle?

A 
Piston moves up.
Expels burnt(spent) fuel through exhaust valve
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126
Q

Describe the BGT and the basic steps of BGT

A
  • At intake end of engine is compressor which is attached to turbine at exhaust end. These are rotating parts of engine
  • When rotated, the compressor squeezes air and passes compressed air to combustion chamber
  • At combustion chamber, fuel is added and mixture ignited by spark plug
  • Explosion causes gases to expand inside combustion chamber
  • Expansion converted into velocity through Convergent duct
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127
Q

How much of the energy is required by the compressor to rotate the turbine? How much is used for remaining thrust?

A

75% rotate

25% thrust

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128
Q

What are some advantages of turbine engines to piston?

A 
Can develop more power and thrust
Lighter (better power to weight ratio)
More compact
Less drag
More reliable
Cheaper fuel
Greater time between overhauls
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129
Q

What is the pure jet type?

A

Allow all residual gas stream velocity to exit the exhaust

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130
Q

What is the turboprop?

A

Additional turbines which extract more residual energy and feed it to a prop through connecting shaft

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131
Q

What is the turbofan?

A

Additional turbines which extract more residual energy and feed it to a multibladed fan through connecting shroud

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132
Q

What is turboshaft type?

A

Using horsepower from rotating shaft and drive a pump or electric generator to pump fluids or create electricity

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133
Q

What is convergent duct?

A

Distance across duct narrows

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134
Q

Where is speed greatest in convergent duct?

A

At narrowest point

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135
Q

At the convergent duct, what is the velocity, pressure and temp?

A

Velocity increases
Pressure decreases
Temp decreases

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136
Q

At the divergent duct, what is the velocity, pressure and temp?

A

Velocity decreases
Pressure increases
Temp increases

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137
Q

What is the policy for engine intake anti ice?

A

Turn on if OAT is +10C or below when operating in presence of visible moisture

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138
Q

What are the advantages of centrifugal compressors?

A

More robust than axial
Resist damage from foreign objects
Less complex

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139
Q

What are the disadvantages of the centrifugal compressor?

A

Lower compression ratio
Prone to gas leaks
Prone to compressor surges

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140
Q

What sort of engines are centrifugal type engines suited to, large or small?

A

Small

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141
Q

What are the advantages of axial flow compressors?

A 
Greater thrust
Greater fuel economy
Less chance of surging
Reduced engine diameter
Less drag
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142
Q

What are stators?

A

Mounted additional blades between each row of the compressor blade that don’t rotate

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143
Q

What do stators do?

A

Convert increased velocity into increased pressure

Guide gas stream so it’s angle of attack is optimum

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144
Q

When is surging most likely?

A 
Low RPM
Thrust opened/ closed too quickly
AoA at intake too great
Turbulence
High altitude
Compressor blades damaged
Heavy rail or hail
Reverse thrust ops
Aircraft side slipping
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145
Q

What are compressor stall indications?

A

Rising EGT
Steadying or reducing fuel flow
Steadying or reducing engine RPM
Engine popping, vibration and banging

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146
Q

How can you cure compressor stall?

A

Reduce throttle
Lower nose
Increase forward airspeed

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147
Q

What are the advantages of twin spool types?

A

Develop high compression ratios while reducing compressor stall
Faster spool up times then single
Greater operator flexibility

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148
Q

What are the advantages of 3 spool types?

A

Shorter in length
Suffer less flexing
Less prone to surging
Spool up fast

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149
Q

What are the advantages of turbofans over pure jet?

A

Better fuel economy
Reduced noise
Greater thrust
Lighter core components

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150
Q

What are the disadvantages of turbo fans over a pure jet?

A

Increase drag due to increased frontal area

Increased diameter may affect design of undercarriage

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151
Q

When is lean flame out likely to occur?

A

Low fuel pressure
Low engine speed
High airspeed
High altitude

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152
Q

When is rich flame out likely to occur?

A

Over rich mixture

Rapid engine acceleration

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153
Q

How many separate primary control actuation systems must there be and why?

A

3

In case of failure

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154
Q

As speed increases, what do aileron lockout devices do?

A

Restrict the movement of outboard ailerons, leaving inbound ailerons and spoilers to effect roll at high speed

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155
Q

Where do the speed signal inputs come from for the aileron lockout device?

A

CADC (Central Air Data Computer)

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156
Q

What is the aileron powered by and how many?

A

2 hydraulic systems

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157
Q

What would an aileron lockout failure at low speeds indicate?

A

One or both of the lockouts have failed to unlock the outboard ailerons

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158
Q

What are the implications if aileron lockout failure occurs during approach?

A

Decrease ability of low speed roll characteristics

Reduce crosswind landing capability

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159
Q

How many hydraulic systems power the rudder acutator?

A

3

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160
Q

What are yaw dampers for?

A

Reduce dutch roll

Assist in turn co-ordination

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161
Q

Where does the yaw damper get info for speed?

A

From the CADC (central air data computer) which is blended from Ring laser gyro that is part of Inertial reference unit (IRU)

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162
Q

What happens if one yaw damper is lost?

A

Flight crew need to restrict forward speed and altitude to within published yaw damper inoperative limits

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163
Q

How many spoiler panels are there on each wing? How many hydraulic actuators are allocated for the spoiler panels?

A

12 spoiler panels in total, 6 per wing (4 outter, 2 inner)

Each spoiler panel has its own hydraulic actuator

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164
Q

What are the spoiler panels used for in the air?

A

Slow aircraft in flight
Steepen descent gradient
Reduce lift
Increase drag

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165
Q

What are the spoiler panels used for on the ground?

A

Spoil any lift

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166
Q

What controls the spoilers?

A

Speed brake lever

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167
Q

What are the different positions of the speed brake?

A

Down (spoilers stay down, even after landing)
Armed (spoilers automatically deploy to full up once landing gear bogie has levelled on touch down)
Up (allows spoiler panel to be used as speed brakes in flight)

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168
Q

If the speedbrake lever is NOT in the armed position, but all three conditions are met and reverse thrust is applied, what happens to spoilers and speedbrake lever?

A

Spoilers will automatically extend and speedbrake lever will move to up position

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169
Q

How many elevator panels are there and how many hydraulic systems power them?

A

Two elevator panels

3 hydraulic systems

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170
Q

What is the mach trimmer?

A

Nose up trim application when operating around transonic speeds

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171
Q

Where does the mach trimmer get its speed info from?

A

CADC (central air data computer)

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172
Q

What does the flap/slat asymmetry monitoring system do?

A

Stops flaps being extended further should one wing high lift devices extend at different rate than the other

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173
Q

What does the flap load relief system do?

A

Prevent exceedance of flap limit speed when flaps are set to 25 by retracting flaps to previous stage.
COCKPIT FLAP LEVER WILL NOT MOVE WHEN THIS HAPPENS.
When speed is reduced to below the speed limit, the flap will automatically extend to previous settings

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174
Q

Which is always greater, CAS or EAS?

A

CAS

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175
Q

Can you intentionally fly above Vmo/Mmo?

A

No

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176
Q

What will flying above Mmo do?

A

Creation of shockwaves

Pilot will feel buffet through elevator (stalling)

177
Q

What is Vdf? Is it IAS or TAS?

A

Max demonstrated dive flight speed

IAS

178
Q

What is Vs?

A

Stall speed

Minimum control speed for level flight with 2 engines

179
Q

What are the most adverse conditions for Vs?

A 
Power off
Forward CoG
1G
Out of ground effect
Max take off weight
180
Q

As the speed of sound decreases, what happens to coefficient of lift?

A

Decreases

181
Q

If you lose one engine, how much performance is lost?

A

80%

182
Q

What power and speed is the asymmetric condition worsened>

A

High power

Low speed

183
Q

Do aircraft with counter rotating props have a critical engine?

A

No

184
Q

The speed of sound varies according to what?

A

Environment temperature

185
Q

As airflow moves from supersonic to subsonic, what happens to temp, pressure, velocity, mach number, density and flow direction?

A 
Temp rise
Pressure rise
Velocity drop
Mach number drop
Density rise
Flow direction NO CHANGE
186
Q

What will the difference be in Mcrit value for low thickness/chord ratio compared to high?

A

Low will have a higher Mcrit

187
Q

The overall drag for thin wings is less that for straight wings at all speeds, true or false?

A

True

188
Q

What is static stability?

A

Initial tendency for an object to return to equilibrium after a disturbance

189
Q

What is positive static stability?

A

Tendency to return to equilibrium

190
Q

What is negative static stability?

A

If object tends to continue in direction of distrubance

191
Q

What is neutral stability?

A

When object is displaced from equilibrium it stays in new position

192
Q

What is dynamic stability?

A

Resulting motion with time after disturbance

193
Q

What is positive dynamic stability?

A

If the amplitude of motion decreases with time after disturbance

194
Q

What is negative dynamic stability?

A

If the amplitude of motion increases with time after distrubance

195
Q

What is neutral dynamic stability?

A

If amplitude of motion remain unchanged after initial disturbance

196
Q

What happens to controllability with increased stability?

A

Lower the controlability

197
Q

What is positive longitudinal stability?

A

Aircraft will return to trimmed position after being displaced in pitch

198
Q

What position of centre of gravity will positive longitudinal stability occur?

A

When centre of gravity is ahead of centre of lift

199
Q

Where would centre of gravity be if there was negative longitudinal stability?

A

Centre of gravity behind centre of lift

200
Q

What will engines below the wing do to static longitudinal stability when power is increased?

A

Reduce longitudinal stability

201
Q

Which axis is directional stability about?

A

Normal axis

202
Q

What factors affect the longitudinal stability?

A 
CoG
Wing
Engine nacelle and fuselage
Thrust line
Power
203
Q

What does a large fin surface area that is displaced aft of CoG do to directional stability?

A

Increases it

204
Q

What do aft body strakes do to directional stability at high and low speeds?

A

Increase directional stability at both high and low speeds and

205
Q

What happens to directional stability at high airspeed and high altitude?

A

Direction stability is lower

206
Q

What is the effect of dorsal fin extension on directional stability?

A

Preserves directional stability at large side slip angles

207
Q

What contributes for to direction stability, swept or straight wing?

A

Swept

208
Q

If the prop or jet inlet is ahead of the centre of gravity, what does an increase in power do to directional stability?

A

Decreases it

209
Q

When are the destabilising affects of power most noticeable?

A

High power at low speed

210
Q

If the nose yawed to the right what would the positive lateral stability do?

A

Sideslip to the right

Cause greater lift on down going (right) wing, rolling aircraft to the left

211
Q

What does a large dihedral wing do to lateral stability?

A

Increases it

212
Q

What does high velocity slipstream behind the props do to lateral stability?

A

Decreases it

213
Q

What does deployment of flaps do to lateral stability?

A

Reduces effective dihedral and therefore reduces lateral stability

214
Q

When does dutch roll occur?

A

High lateral stability and low directional stability

215
Q

What happens to stability as altitude increase?

A

Spiral stability increases

All other stability decreases

216
Q

At what height and speed is dutch roll tendency the highest?

A

Highest at high altitude and high speeds

217
Q

What is the formula for calculating rate one turns?

A

(TAS / 10) + 7 = xx bank angle degrees

218
Q

Does aircraft weight affect the turn radius?

A

No

219
Q

What does the mach trimmer do?

A

Automatically trims nose up during transonic speed range

220
Q

What is the airflow velocity, static pressure, density, total pressure and temp with normal and oblique shockwave?

A 
Reduction in velocity to subsonic
Rise in static
Rise in Temp
Less total pressure
Rise in density
221
Q

What is the airflow velocity, static pressure, total pressure and temp with expansion wave?

A

Increase in velocity
Increase in static pressure
increase in temp
No change in total pressure

222
Q

What happens to Pressure, density and velocity in divergent ducts with sub sonic flow?

A

Pressure and density increase

Velocity decrease

223
Q

What happens to Pressure, density and velocity in divergent ducts with supersonic flow?

A

Pressure and density decrease

Velocity increase

224
Q

What happens to Pressure, density and velocity in convergent ducts with sub sonic flow?

A

Pressure and density decrease

Velocity increase

225
Q

What happens to Pressure, density and velocity in convergent ducts with supersonic flow?

A

Pressure and density increase

Velocity increase

226
Q

What happens to shockwave, COP, nose position, controls, Clift and Cdrag when passing Mcrit?

A 
Shockwave forms
COP moves aft
Nose down
Control buffet
Clift decreases
Cdrag increases
227
Q

What speeds would aileron reversal occur in?

A

Transonic range

228
Q

What is spiral stability?

A

Ability to recover from spiral dive after yaw input

229
Q

What is spiral instability?

A

Tendency to enter spiral dive

230
Q

What does increase spiral stability lead to?

A

Dutch roll

231
Q

What does spiral stability increase with?

A

Increase in altitude

232
Q

What does dutch roll tendency increase with?

A

Increase in altitude

233
Q

What happens to lateral, longitudinal and spiral stability as altitude increases?

A

Lateral decreases
Longitudinal decreases
Spiral increases

234
Q

Where do aileron lock out warning messages illuminate?

A

EICAS

235
Q

When are inboard ailerons active?

A

ALWAYS

236
Q

What are yaw dampers used for?

A

Used to reduce dutch roll

237
Q

What is ram effect?

A

Air compressed (higher density -greater mass airflow) at the engine intake due to high forward velocity

238
Q

What happens to ram effect as airspeed increase?

A

Ram effect will increase

239
Q

What happens to thrust with increase in speed?

A

Decreases

240
Q

Does ram effect recover all thrust lost with increase in speed>

A

No, only partial

241
Q

What happens in the intake cycle for BGT?

A

Direct turbulent free airflow to compressor

Increase potential energy of air

242
Q

What happens to static pressure and velocity (dynamic pressure in compressor)?

A 
Increasing static pressure
Decrease velocity (dynamic pressure)
243
Q

What happens to pressure in combustion?

A

Pressure slightly decreases as temp increases

244
Q

What happens in exhaust stage of BGT?

A

Energy converted to kinetic energy to rotate shaft connecting to compressor
Remaining energy used to thrust ac

245
Q

What does EPR measure?

A

Thrust indicating system, to adjust thrust output of engine

246
Q

What shape is the intake duct?

A

Divergent

247
Q

What is intake duct divergent?

A

Decreases airflow velocity

Increases static pressure

248
Q

What is the primary purpose of the compressor?

A

To increase total pressure

249
Q

When is compressor surge likely?

A 
92-98% RPM
Thrust levers opened too quickly
AoA of intake too high
Turbulence
Altitude
Heavy rain or hail
Reverse thrust
Side slipping
Compressor blades damaged
250
Q

How can you prevent compressor stall?

A

Variable inlet guide vanes
Variable stator vanes
Bleed valves
Multi spool compressors

251
Q

What do bleed valves do?

A

Compressed air tapped from compressor to increase air flow over rotor blades maintaining optimum angle of attack

252
Q

When is fuel added in BGT?

A

Combustion cycle

253
Q

What is the entrance to the combustion cycle?

A

Divergent

254
Q

How much % of air goes through snout and flare?

A

20% (12 to snout for swirl and 8 to flare to mix fuel and air)

255
Q

How much % of air is not directed to snout?

A

80%

256
Q

Of the air not directed to snout, what % goes to later part of primary combustion zone?

A

20% of 80%

257
Q

What % of air the dilution zone?

A

20% of 80%

258
Q

What % of air not directed to snout is for cooling?

A

40%

259
Q

Where is the hottest section of combustion chamber?

A

1st 1/3rd (primary zone)

260
Q

What are the main causes of flameout?

A

Turbulent weather (turbulent inlet air)
High altitude
Slow acceleration during manoeuvres
High speed manoeuvres

261
Q

What is lean flame out?

A

Low engine speed and low fuel pressure. Generally low powered descent

262
Q

What is rich flame out?

A

High powered climb where over rich mixture increase pressure in combustion chamber

263
Q

What are the advantages of the annular chamber?

A

Weight and space saver
Better combustion propagation
Reduced pressure reductions

264
Q

What are the disadvantages of the annular chamber?

A

Entire system has to be removed for maintainance

265
Q

What are the advantages of the multiple chamber?

A

Simple to construct and maintain

266
Q

What are the disadvantages of the multiple chamber?

A

Takes up a lot of space

Uneven delivery of air loads to turbine

267
Q

What is the primary function of turbines?

A

Transform heat into kinetic energy

268
Q

What do nozzle guide vanes do? (NGV)

A

Direct flow onto moving turbine blades in correct direction

269
Q

What do nozzle guide vanes do to pressure and velocity?

A

Decrease pressure

Increase velocity

270
Q

What is fitted to nozzle guide vanes to avoid tip leakage?

A

Shrouds

271
Q

What are shrouds and where are they located?

A

Caps on tips of turbine blades to reduce leakage, vibration and increase strength

272
Q

What is blade creep?

A

Length of the blade increases due to centrifugal forces acting on blade and the temp at which it operates

273
Q

What are the different blade creep types?

A

Primary, secondary and tertiary

274
Q

What is primary creep?

A

Process of manufacture

Considerable change in materials shape

275
Q

What is secondary creep?

A

Occurs over lift of blade

276
Q

What is tertiary creep?

A

Deterioration of blade rapidly until failure. Shouldn’t be fitted to engine

277
Q

What is primary function of exhaust?

A

Develop thrust

Discharge gas to atmosphere

278
Q

What direction is exhaust duct?

A

Convergent

279
Q

What are exhaust struts??

A

Straighten out airflow from exhaust

280
Q

How do high bypass engines reduce noise?

A

Mixing of coo and hot air prior to exhaust

281
Q

How do blocker doors assist with reverse thrust? Are they internal or external?

A

Divert coldstream airflow

Internal

282
Q

How do clampshell doors assist with reverse thrust? Are they internal or external?

A

Change direction of all air
External
Pneumatically operated

283
Q

Can reverse thrust be used in the air?

A

No

284
Q

Why don’t we use thrust reverse at low speed?

A

Less effective and prone to foreign object damage

285
Q

What frequency noise travels great distances and creates large noise foot print?

A

Low frequency

286
Q

What do negative torque systems do?

A

Sense negative torque (when prop begins to rotate faster than reduction gear and drives the engine)

287
Q

What does negative torque system do to blade angle

A

Coarsens blade angle to reduce stress

288
Q

How long does negative torque system alter the blade angle?

A

Coarsens blade until negative torque no longer sensed or until full coarse stop

289
Q

What happens to NTS when reaches full coarse stop?

A

Disengage reduction gear from engine and then reconnect automatically once negative torque no longer sensed

290
Q

What is the prop brake used for?

A

Prevent prop windmilling in flight when feathered

Holds blade during shutdown (engine still be running while blade is stationary)

291
Q

What is TSS and what does it do?

A

Thrust sensitive signal or autofeather

Automatically feathers prop if required after takeoff

292
Q

When does TSS work?

A

System must be armed prior to take off.

Once prop develops more than 500lbs of thrust, system will feather prop if output drops below this mark

293
Q

What is primary purpose of APU?

A

Provide bleed air for pneumatics

aircon, engine start without GPU, anti ice

294
Q

Where is APU located?

A

In the tail

295
Q

What are some conditions that lead to APU automatic shutdown?

A 
Low oil pressure
High oil temp
High EGT
Over speed
Duct overheat
296
Q

Where in engine is fire detection located?

A

Engine cowl

297
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed in the engine nacelle

A

Two

298
Q

What is the basic sequence for undercarriage retraction?

A 
Sequence valve ensure doors open first
Undercarriage downlocks removed
Indicators go from green to red
Wheels come up
Uplocks come in
Doors close and lock
Transit light goes out
299
Q

What is the ground lock?

A

Prevents inadvertent retraction of gear on ground

300
Q

How does the gear lock work?

A

Safety switch is opened in gear circuit if aircraft is on ground and allows spring loaded pin in solenoid to block gear selector movement

301
Q

In the 767, how are uplocks operated?

A

Electrically operated solenoids

302
Q

What is the most common tyre tread and why?

A

Ribbed tyre

Offers low rolling resistance, good directional stability and water displacement

303
Q

What are advantages of tubeless tyres over tubed tyres?

A

Lighter
Less chance of puncture
Cooler (less friction)
Fusible plugs (protects from blowing out)

304
Q

What is the power source for the brake system?

A

Hydraulic system pressure of 3000psi

305
Q

What does Brake control valve do?

A

(BCV)
Reduces hydraulic pressure to operating range (1500psi)
Regulates flow of return fluid

306
Q

Which system does anti skid system work in conjunction with?

A

Auto brake system

307
Q

What does anti skid provide?

A

Touch down protection
Skid protection
Locked wheel protection
Hydroplane protection

308
Q

If a skidding wheel is detected, what happens to pressure on the brake for that wheel?

A

Pressure is reduced (NOT REMOVED)

309
Q

What is the formula for hydro plane speed for static wheel

A

7.7 square root (Tyre pressure psi)

310
Q

What is the formula for hydro plane speed for rotating wheel?

A

9 square root (tyre pressure psi)

311
Q

Which tyres are more prone to hydroplaning?

A

Forward tyres

312
Q

What will cause auto brakes of 767 to disarm?

A 
Pilot hits brakes hard enough (>750psi)
Retraction of speed brake lever to down
Selector switch to disarm or off
Advancing throttle
INS u/s
Anti skid u/s
313
Q

What are the degrees of steering for rudder pedals and tiller wheel?

A

Rudder +/- 7 degrees

Tiller +/-65 degrees

314
Q

Can different hydraulic fluids be mixed?

A

NO

315
Q

What does the hydraulic reservoir do?

A 
Allows for variations in fluid level
Provides reserve  for leaks
Provides space for returning fluid
Allows for changing temp and volume
Provides positive pressure to pumps to avoid cavitation
316
Q

What pressure does hydraulic pump provide up to?

A

3000psi

317
Q

What is EDP and what does it do?

A

Engine driven pump

Primary source of pressure for hydraulic system

318
Q

How does EDP provide pressure for hydraulic system?

A

Constant or variable displacement pumps

319
Q

What do hydraulic pressure relief values do?

A

Ensure pressure in system isn’t exceeded

320
Q

How do hydraulic pressure relief valuves work?

A

Spring loaded valve being forced by high pressure fluid which allows excess to pass back into a return line to reservoir.

321
Q

What do check valves do?

A

Allows fluid to flow in one direction only

322
Q

Where are check valves located?

A

Downstream of the pump

323
Q

What are shuttle valves?

A

Enable services to be provided with hydraulic pressure from one of two sources. Whichever line has greater pressure allows that line to provide fluid

324
Q

What are selector valves and how are they operated?

A

Controlling valve which opens to allow high pressure oil into actuating hydraulic actuator.
Electrically operated

325
Q

In the 767, what hydraulic systems are there?

A

Left, centre right

326
Q

What power sources are used by LEFT hydraulic system?

A

EDP (engine driven pump)

ACMP (alternating current motor pump)

327
Q

What power sources are used by CENTRE hydraulic system?

A

2ACMP (alternating current motor pump)
ADP (air driven pump)
RAT (ram air turbine-emergency)

328
Q

What power sources are used by RIGHT hydraulic system?

A

EDP (engine driven pump)

ACMP (alternating current motor pump)

329
Q

What is RAT?

A

Ram air turbine

330
Q

What does RAT do?

A

Provides emergency hydraulic power using ram air

331
Q

How can RAT be deployer?

A

Automatically or manually

332
Q

When can RAT be retracted?

A

Only on ground

333
Q

Where is hydraulic pressure displayed?

A

Centre of EICAS panel

334
Q

What are advantages of pneumatics?

A 
Lighter
Cheaper
Low fire risk
Once used, air can be dumped over board
Easily compressed
335
Q

What are disadvantages of pneumatics?

A

Air must be dried
Components must have separate lubrication system
More prone to leaks

336
Q

What are the advantages of hydraulics system?

A 
Uses incompressible hydraulic fluid
Self lubricating
Fewer problems with water or water contamination
Easy to find leaks
Faster response times
337
Q

What are the disadvantages of hydraulic systems?

A

High fire risk
Requires coolers
Hydraulic oil can destroy electrical insulation surfaces, finishes and seals
Hydraulic oils cant be mixed

338
Q

In 767, how do we control leading edge slats and double slotted fowler flaps?

A

Flap lever which sends signal to three power drive units (PDU)

339
Q

What happens to the flap and flap lever if airspeed exceeds set limitation?

A

Flaps automatically retract

FLAP LEVER DOES NOT MOVE

340
Q

What type of pressure is kept in the cabin compared to outside?

A

Higher pressure

341
Q

Should the pressure in the cabin be less than the atmospheric pressure?

A

No

342
Q

Where is the outflow valve located and why?

A

Rear of cabin to draw pollutants away from the flight crew

343
Q

What are the three functions of the outflow valve?

A

Isobaric control (maintaining cabin altitude)
Differential pressure protection (ensuring max pressure not exceeded)
Negative pressure differential (prevents negative pressure being exceeded)

344
Q

What pressure is maintained by the pressure controller sensors during climbs and descent?

A

500fpm for climb

300fpm for descent

345
Q

What do safety valves do?

A

Provide positive and negative over pressure protection
Automatically dump remaining cabin pressure on landing
Allow emergency dump during rapid decompression

346
Q

Where is the negative pressure relief valve located?

A

Cargo doors

347
Q

When will negative pressure relief valve open?

A

Any time when outside pressure exceeds cabin pressure

348
Q

What is the source of pressurisation?

A

Engine or APU bleed air and atmospheric air mix

349
Q

What must pilot enter in the system for automatic pressurisation of system?

A

Destination elevation

350
Q

When will pressurisation system warnings be displayed on EICAS?

A

If cabin altitude exceeds 10000

O2 masks drop if cabin altitude exceeds 14000

351
Q

What systems typically use electrical anti ice?

A 
Pitot static probes
Angle of attack vanes
Total air temp probes
Engine probes
Mach probes
Windscreens
Inner sections of prop
Engine intakes
352
Q

Can rain repellent be used on a dry windscreen?

A

No

353
Q

What will the use of thermal protection do to engine performance? When is it most noticeable?

A

Reduce engine performance as air sourced from output of engine (engine bleed air).
During high power settings at take off and climb

354
Q

How are the de-icing boots used?

A

Pneumatically

355
Q

What are the de-icing boots?

A

Slightly raises black areas on leading edge of wings, comprised of rubber material that inflate cracking any ice

356
Q

What fuel is typically used in Australia for jets?

A

JETA1

357
Q

What type of additives can be found in turbine fuel?

A 
Anti static (required if refuelling with pax on board)
Anti oxidants
Anti fungal
Anti freeze
Lubricating additive
358
Q

What could be an indicator of icing detected in the fuel system? And what should be done to rectify?

A

Low filter pressure.

Pilot select bypass generally for short periods (1min)

359
Q

What is incorporated in the fuel tank to prevent CoG changes when turning?

A

Baffles

360
Q

What is the purpose of the LP pump?

A

To provide uninterrupted flow of fuel to high pressure pumps

361
Q

How many booster pumps are used during takeoff? Landing? Cruise? Descent?

A

Take off 2
Landing 2
Cruise 1
Descent 1

362
Q

What does HP pump do?

A

Supplies pressure to fuel manifold

363
Q

What is the most common HP pump type?

A

Variable displacement

364
Q

Where does FCU (fuel control unit) receive its inputs from?

A

Altitude
Throttle position
Inlet air temp
Speed of N2

365
Q

What is the function of the circuit breakers?

A

Provide circuit protection and isolation from excessive amps

366
Q

What power do batteries supply?

A

Power for start and emergency power

367
Q

What does IRS use?

A

3 gyros and 3 accelerometers

368
Q

Outside of what latitudes will RDMII display true heading? In this case what happens to VOR flag?

A

73N 60S

VOR flag inoperative

369
Q

Where is input for RDMI from?

A

IRS (inertia reference system)

370
Q

Where do inputs for VSI come from?

A

ADC and IRS

371
Q

What level do radar altimeters operate?

A

0-2500 ft AGL

372
Q

The FMS systems managers which flight path?

A

LNAV and VNAV (lateral and vertical flight paths)

373
Q

How should entries be made in the CDU?

A

One CDU used to enter data, one used to cross check

374
Q

What do the boxes represent on CDU?

A

Must have info

375
Q

What do the dashes represent on CDU?

A

Requested info

376
Q

What is done on the IDENT page?

A

Preflight, first page to have data entered.

377
Q

Which page allows present position of plane to be supplied to IRS and can consist of LAST POS, REF AIRPORT or GATE?

A

Position initialisation page

378
Q

What is the RTE page?

A

Route page.

Enables crew to enter route into FMC

379
Q

How would pilots display possible departure routes?

A

Go to SID entry and then select DEP/APR button

380
Q

Where would gross weight, ZFW, fuel reserves, cost index and cruise altitude be entered?

A

Performance initialisation page

381
Q

Where would the crew enter the V1, VR and V2 speeds?

A

Take off reference page

382
Q

Where can the crew monitor the flight plan of the aircraft through the CDU? What else can be monitored on this page?

A

Progress page.

Last waypoint, next waypoint, destination, speed, TOPD, wind

383
Q

What does the Electronic flight instrumentation system (EFIS) consist of?

A 
EADI
EHSI
Symbol generator
Control pannel
FMS
384
Q

The captains RDMI and VSI are supplied by what ?

A

RDMI by R - IRS

VSI by L - IRS

385
Q

The first officers RDMI and VSI are supplied by what ?

A

RDMI by L - IRS

VSI by R - IRS

386
Q

What display modes are the on the EDSI?

A

MAP, PLAN, ILS and VOR

387
Q

What are the different colour indications for MAP mode?

A 
Green = engaged flight mode
White = present status situation
Cyan = non active and background info
Red = warning
Amber = cautionary info
Black = blank areas OFF condition
388
Q

What does expanded VOR mode show?

A

VOR nav info
Weather radar
TCAS available

389
Q

What does expanded ILS mode show?

A

ILS info
Weather radar
TCAS available

390
Q

What does PLAN mode show?

A

Static true north orientated map of flight planned route.

No weather radar

391
Q

Which of the modes use track? Which use heading?

A

MAP and PLAN use track

VOR and ILS use HDG

392
Q

Is the flight director manual or automatic?

A

Can be both

393
Q

Will manual position of lever disengage autothrottle?

A

No

394
Q

How many autopilots are required for Approach mode?

A

2

395
Q

Which modes will autopilot are with approach mode?

A

Glide Slope and LOC

396
Q

How many autopilots does 767 use?

A

3

397
Q

How many autopilots does AFDS require?

A

1

398
Q

When can you use more than one autopilot?

A

During precision approach

399
Q

How many autopilots are required for autoland?

A

2

400
Q

What does fail operational mean?

A

Means system has adequate redundancy to allow approach to continue if one of three autopilots fails

401
Q

What does fail passive mean?

A

If a fault is detected in one of the autopilots.
Landing is being done with 2 autopilots
A/C unable to conduct auto landing in extreme low visibility

402
Q

What happens as altitude decrease to 1500 ft during landing?

A

LOC and GS have been capture and APP modes will be armed

403
Q

When is FLARE mode active?

A

45 ft

404
Q

When is ROLLOUT mode activated?

A

5 ft

405
Q

At what height does pilot assume command of rudder?

A

1500 feet

406
Q

What happens at 500 feet during landing?

A

Runway align submode becomes active. (reduces crab with cross wind)

407
Q

Between what heights will aircraft automatically introduce increment of nose up trim in preparation for flare?

A

330-100ft

408
Q

What happens at 15ft during landing?

A

SPD mode on auto throttle becomes IDLE

409
Q

How long will rollout mode continue?

A

Until aircraft comes to fullstop OR autopilots are disengaged

410
Q

What are the three types of message displayed on EICAS?

A

Warning (red)
Caution (yellow)
Advisory (yellow)

411
Q

What does the CANCEL switch do?

A

Removes displayed cautions and advisories (warnings not affected)
Shows next page of messages

412
Q

What does RECALL switch do?

A

Recalls cancelled cautions and advisories

Goes to page 1 of messages

413
Q

Which direction does GPWS mode operate in?

A

Vertically only

414
Q

What are the soft warnings for mode 1 excessive descent rate?

A

Aural: Sink rate sink rate
Visual: GND prox light

415
Q

What are the hard warnings for mode 1 excessive descent rate?

A

Aural: Whoop whoop pull up
Visual: Pull up light

416
Q

What are the soft warnings for mode 2 excessive terrain closure rate?

A

Aural: Terrain, terrain

VisualL GND Prox light

417
Q

What are the hard warnings for mode 2 excessive terrain closure rate?

A

Aural: Whoop whoop, pull up
Visual: Pull up light

418
Q

What does extension of flaps do if the hard warning for mode two is being heard?

A

Replaced with terrain terrain

419
Q

What are the soft warnings for mode 3 altitude loss after take off/go around?

A

Aural: Don’t sink
Visual: GND prox light

420
Q

What are the hard warnings for mode 3 altitude loss after take off/go around?

A

Aural: Too low terrain

421
Q

What are the soft warnings and when do they occur for Mode 4 unsafe terrain clearance in config?

A

Below 190 kts at 500ft
Aural Too low gear
Visual: GND prox light

422
Q

What are the hard warnings and when do they occur for mode 4 unsafe terrain clearance in config?

A

Above 190 kts below 1000

Aural: Too low terrain

423
Q

What does the TCAS rely on?

A

Interrogation of other a/c SSR transponder

424
Q

Does TCAS use ground SSR?

A

No, totally independent of any ground based SSR

425
Q

How long after TCAS messages does pilot have before impact?

A

20-35s

426
Q

What colour are TA and how long do you have?

A

Amber circle

20-48 s

427
Q

What colour are RA and how long do you have?

A

Red square

less than 25s

428
Q

What is proximate traffic?

A

Cyan diamond, is neither TA or RA but within 6nm and has 1200ft separation

429
Q

What is other traffic for TCAS?

A

Hollow cyan diamond.

Above and separated by more than 2700ft

430
Q

What does +## symbol mean in TCAS?

A

Indicated traffic is above you (i.e +05 is 500 ft above)

431
Q

What does - signal mean in TCAS?

A

Indicated traffic is below you

432
Q

What does up arrow indicate in TCAS?

A

Traffic is climbing

433
Q

What does down arrow indicate in TCAS?

A

Traffic is descending

434
Q

What does TA 6.8-1.1 Up arrow mean?

A

No bearing info. Intrudering aircraft is 6.8 nm away 1100 ft below and climbing

435
Q

What conditions will cause TCAS to fail?

A

Mode S transponder fail
Barometric altitude sources fails (TCAS OFF)
Radio altimeter fails

436
Q

What time do you have to action preventative TCAS advice? What about Corrective?

A

5s for preventative

2.5 for corrective

437
Q

What warnings override the TCAS?

A

GPWS and Stall

438
Q

How many parameters and for how long does DFDR record?

A

300 parameters

25 hours

439
Q

Where is the DFDR located?

A

Tail

ATPL (6 decks)

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