Human Anatomy practice questions Flashcards
- A group of cells join to form an organ
True or False
False
- Anaphase is the second stage of mitosis
True or False
False 4th phase of mitosis
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telephase
- Mitochondria supply the cell with its energy
True or False
True
- Support and secretion are important functions of a cell
True or False
False
- Lymphoid tissue is a type of connective tissue
True or False
True
- Osmosis describes the movement of water through the cell membrane from an area of high concentration until the concentration is equal on both sides
True or False
True
- Cell multiplication is known as mitosis
True or False
True
- Columnar epithelium are cells which line the respiratory system
True or False
False
- Ribosomes produce proteins to use within the cell
True or False
True
- After fertilisation the sperm and the egg fuse together to form an embryo
True or False
False form a zygote
- The cell divides into 2 cells in the metaphase of mitosis
True or False
False
- Ribosomes destroy harmful bacteria and worn out parts of the cell
True or False
False
- The nucleus is known as the control centre of the cell
True or False
True
- Adipose and areolar tissue are types of connective tissue
True or False
True
- ATP is formed within the mitochondria and is responsible for the production of protein
True or False
False
- Simple epithelium consists of a single layer of thin, flattened cells attached to a basement membrane
True or False
True
- Chromosomes are formed during the anaphase
True or False
True
- A group of tissues join to form a system
True or False
False form a organ
- A zygote has 23 chromosomes
True or False
False
46 chromosomes
- Fibrous tissue is found in the lining of the heart
True or False
False
- Yellow elastic cartilage is found in areas where flexibility is needed
True or False
True
- Sex cell division is known as meiosis
True or False
True
- Non keratinised stratified epithelium is found on dry surfaces, e.g. nails
True or False
False
- Diffusion occurs when small molecules pass through tiny pores in the cell membrane.
True or false
True
- The cytoplasm controls what substances are passed out of the cell such as carbon
True or False
False
- Ciliated epithelium have fine, hair like projections called cilia attached to its surface
True or False
True
- Smooth ER and rough ER are types of endoplasmic reticulum
True or False
True
- The cell is the basic unit of life
True or False
True
- Ribosomes are empty spaces within the cytoplasm
True or false
False
- Squamous epithelium lines the alveoli of the lungs
True or False
True
- The cytoplasm surrounds the cell membrane supplying it with nutrients for growth and repair
True or False
False
- Simple and compound are 2 types of epithelial tissue
True or False
True
- Yellow elastic cartilage forms the intervertebral discs of the spine
True or False
False
- Centrioles play an important part in cell division and are contained within the golgi apparatus
True or false
False
- Adipose tissue helps to form tendons which attach muscle to bone
True or False
False
- Filtration occurs when there is a difference in pressure on each side of the membrane, causing the movement of water and dissolved substances across the membrane
True or False
True
- Telophase is the third phase of mitosis
True or False
False its the final or 5th phase
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telephase
- Columnar epithelium is found in the kidney tubules, ovaries, thyroid gland and salivary glands
True or false
False
- Histology describes the study of cells and tissues
True or False
True
- The term catabolism refers to the chemical breakdown of large, complex substances into smaller, simpler ones
True or False
True
- Cells which help to move unwanted particles away from the lungs, keeping passageways clear=?
Ciliated
- Tissue which is protective, provides insulation and is an energy reserve=?
Adipose tissue
- A type of cartilage that contains chondrocytes and is found on the surfaces of the end of bones that form joints=?
hyaline cartilage
- The most solid of all connective tissue, it supports and protects the body=?
Bone
- Epithelium which provides lubrication=?
non keratinised
- Tissue which helps to protect the body from infection=?
lymphoid
- Cells involved in the secretion and absorption of mucus=?
columnar
- A type of epithelium whose cells can change shape when they are stretched =?
transitional
- A strong tissue made up of collagen fibres that forms tendons and ligaments and provides a protective outer covering for organs=?
white fibrous
- A flexible cartilage, which maintains its shape=?
yellow elastic
- A type of epithelial with flattened cells that line the alveoli of the lungs=?
Squamous
- A type of connective tissue that is found in most parts of the body=?
areolar
- A type of tissue that contains neurones and is responsible for coordinating and controlling the body’s activities=?
nervous
- Stratified epithelium that protects the underlying tissues and prevents them from drying out =?
keratinized
- Tissue where elasticity is required to enable the stretching of various organs=?
yellow elastic
- A liquid connective tissue that transports nutrients throughout the body, fights infection and forms clots=?
blood
- a type of simple epithelium that is responsible for the absorption and secretion of substances=?
cuboidal
- Tissue which maintains posture and moves the body=?
muscle
- Cartilage that forms the intervertebral disc=?
White fibrous
- under the skin and in the alimentary canal=?
Areolar
- Intervertebral discs=?
White Fibrocartilage
- Lymph nodes, spleen and tonsils=?
Lymphoid
- At the ends of long bones that form joints=?
Hyaline cartilage
- Inside the mouth and conjunctiva of the eyes=?
non keratinized
- Linning of the heart and blood vessels=?
squamous
- Bladder and uterus =?
transitional
- The respiratory system=?
ciliated
- Ligaments=?
white fibrous
- Stomach and small intestine=?
columnar
- Hair, nails and skin=?
keratinized
- Pinna and epiglottis=?
yellow elastic
- Kidney tubules and ovaries =?
cuboidal
- During the metaphase of mitosis, the ___ ____ disappears completely
Nuclear membrane
- The stomach and intestines are lined with ___ epithelium
Columnar
- ATP is the main provider of ___ within the cell
Energy
- The ___ ___ stores the protein received from the endoplasmic reticulum and later transports it out of the cell
Golgi Apparatus
- The telophase is the ___ of mitosis
4th
- During the ___ of mitosis the chromatids are stretched further apart, moving to each end of the cell
Anaphase
- ___ ___ tissue enables organs to be stretched and returned to their original shape
Yellow Elastic
- A group of cells join together to form ____
tissue
- Human cells contain ____ chromosomes
46
- During the prophase of mitosis, pairs of ___ become visible
Chromosomes
- Fatty tissue is aka ___ tissue
adipose tissue
- Ciliated epithelium lines the ___ system
Respiratory
- Vacoules contain ___ spaces within the cytoplasm
Empty
- The ____ is known as the brain of the cell, controlling the cell’s activities
Nucleus
- the ___ is the first phase of mitosis
Prophase
- During which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes align themselves in the middle of the cell, each attached to the spindle fibre by its centromere?
metaphase
- What type of epithelium has one layer of cells connected to a basement membrane?
simple
- What type of tissue forms tendons and ligaments?
White fibrous
- What part of the cell digests all parts of the cell that are old and worn out?
lysosomes
- What does a group of organs join to form?
system
- What is the 2nd phase of mitosis?
metaphase
- What type of connective tissue provides heat protection and acts as energy reservoir?
adipose tissue
- what type of stratified epithelial provides lubrication?
non keratinized
- What part of the cell is used for storage?
vacoules
- What do a group of systems join together to form ?
organism
- During what stage of mitosis does a new nuclear envelope form around each set of chromosomes ?
telophase
- What type of simple epithelial lines the heart?
squamous
- What tissue of the body provides support and protection?
connective tissue
- Pairs of microtubules that sit at right angles next to each other, moving towards the opposite ends?
centrioles
- What type of stratified epithelial prevents underlying layers of cells from drying out before they reach the surface of the skin?
keratinized
- What type of endoplasmic reticulum manufactures steroids and lipids?
A. smooth
b. columnar
c. Ciliated
D. Rough
a
- What part of the cell contains enzymes which destroy bacteria and wastes?
a. chromatin
B. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. vacuoles
c
- Which of the following is a function of a cell?
a. growth
b. maintain posture
c. secretion
d. absorption
a
- A group of tissues that join to form
a. cell
b. organ
c. system
d. nucleus
b organ
- Squamous epithelium
a. are cube shaped cells
b. are tall, cylindrical shaped cells
c. are flat, thin cells
d. are columnar shaped cells
c
- How is glucose transferred through the cell membrane?
a. osmosis
b. filtration
c. dissolution
d. active transport
d
- Which of the following is a type of connective tissue ?
A. Nervous
b. muscular
c. chromosomes
d. lymphoid
d
- What is the final stage of mitosis?
a. telophase
b. anaphase
c. prophase
d. metaphase
a
- define anabolism
a. the process of which complex substances are broken down into simpler substances
b. the process of larger substances which cannot pass through the cell membrane are dissolved
c. the process of which simpler molecules are built up into complex molecules
d. the process by which water moves through the cell membrane from an area of high to low concentration is equal on both sides
c
- What supplies the cell with energy?
a vacuoles
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondria
d. golgi apparatus
c
- what is the control center of the cell?
a. cytoplasm
b. nucleus
c. mitochondria
d. ribosomes
b nucleus
- Which type of compound epithelium is found lining the alveoli of the lungs?
a. columnar
b. cuboidal
c. ciliated
d. squamous
d
- During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes formed?
a. metaphase
b. anaphase
c. prophase
d. telophase
c
- What is responsible for the formation of ribosomes?
a. nucleolus
b. lysosomes
c. nucleus
d. chromatin
a
- Where is all genetic information stored?
a. ATP
b. DNA
C. RNA
D. EAC
b
- What is the correct order of mitosis?
A. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase
B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase,
c. anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase,
d. prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b
- a protein found in the skin, hair, nails
a yellow elastic
b. hyaline
c. squamous
d. keratin
d keratin
- where can yellow elastic cartilage be found in the body?
a. hip and shoulder sockets
b. nose and trachea
c pinna and epiglottis
d heart and kidney tubules
c
- What is the most general type of connective tissue found in the body?
a. Areolar
b. lymphoid
c. adipose
d. yellow elastic
a
- Simple epithelial consists of
a. A single layer of cells
b. several layers of cells
c. 2 layers of flattened cells
c. 2 layers of cuboidal cells
a
- which one of the following is not a way in which substances can pass in and out of cells?
a. osmosis
b. dissolution
c. filtration
d. mitosis
d
- where would you find centrioles?
a. within centrosomes
b. within smooth ER
c within mitochondria
d. within chromosomes
a
- A jelly like substance composed mainly of water;
a) Cell membrane
b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria
d) Epithelium
B
- What is the most common type of cartilage?
a) Yellow elastic
b) White
c) Hyaline
d) Fibrocartilage
C
- What does the golgi apparatus store?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Tissue
c) Protein
d) DNA
C
- What is the function of ribosomes?
a) To control the growth of the cell
b) To manufacture protein
c) To destroy bacteria
d) To supply the cell with energy
B
- What part of the cell produces energy?
a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Nucleus
B
- Centrioles separate and move toward the end of the cell during what stage of mitosis?
a) Prophase
b) Telophase
c) Anaphase
d) Metaphase
A
- Which connective tissue connects skin to underlying skin and muscles?
a) Lymphoid
b) Bone
c) White fibrous
d) Areolar
D
- What are the empty spaces within the cytoplasm called?
a) Lysosomes
b) Centrioles
c) Vacuoles
d) Nucleolus
C
- What is the largest organelle in a cell?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleolus
c) Mitochondria
d) Nucleus
D
- What types of cells are found in lymphoid tissue?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Fibrocytes
c) Mast cells
d) Red blood cells
A
- What type of cartilage is flexible?
a) Yellow elastic
b) Hyaline
c) Fibrocartilage
d) Synovial
A
- What protects the cell’s contents?
a) Nucleus
b) Cell membrane
c) Chromatin
d) Cytoplasm
B
- A fluid connective tissue;
a) Areolar
b) Adipose
c) Bone
d) Blood
D
- The process by which small molecules pass through the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is known as;
a) Active transport
b) Filtration
c) Diffusion
d) Osmosis
C
- Where can non keratinised stratified epithelium be found?
a) Hair
b) Bladder
c) Lining of the mouth
d) Nails
C
- How many chromosomes are in a cell before fertilisation?
a) 23
b) 46
c) 18
d) 22
A
- Where can transitional epithelium be found?
a) Heart
b) Bladder
c) Pharynx
d) Thyroid gland
B
- Which one of the following is a function of connective tissue?
a) Movement
b) Secretion
c) Lubrication
d) Protection
D
2.1.1 The basal cell layer is known as the stratum germinativum T/F
True
2.1.2 Milia are commonly found on oily, greasy skin T/F
False
2.1.3 Impetigo is a contagious bacterial infection T/F
True
2.1.4 Protection is a function of the skin T/F
True
2.1.5 Desquamation occurs in the stratum lucidum T/F
False
2.1.6 Apocrine glands are located on the palms of the hands T/F
False
2.1.7 the skin is the largest organ in the body T/F
True
2.1.8 Vitiligo is a pigmentation disorder in which the skin and hair cannot produce melanin T/F
False
2.1.9 Melanin is produced by melanocytes in the stratum germinativum T/F
True
2.1.10 The temp of the body should be constantly maintained at 36.8 degrees C T/f
True
2.1.11 The reticular layer of the dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers T/F
True
2.1.12 Ephelides are also called blackheads T/F
False
2.1.13 Acne vulgaris is a viral infection T/F
False
2.1.14 The epidermis is the layer of the skin that we can see and touch T/F
True
2.1.15 It takes approximately 2 wks for the cell to travel from the stratum germinativum to the stratum corneum T/F
False
2.1.16 Psoriasis is an inflammation of the skin with itchy, flaky skin with red patches which may blister and bleed T/F
False
2.1.17 Lentigo is also known as butterfly mask T/F
False
2.1.18 A boil is bacterial infection T/F
True
2.1.19 Fibroblasts and mast cells are found in the dermis T/F
True
2.1.20 The dermis is made up of adipose tissue T/F
False
2.1.21 Sweat and sebum mix together to form a film on the surface of the skin call the acid mantle T/F
True
2.1.22 The UV rays in sunlight penetrate the layers of skin, converting chemical ergosterol into Vitamin D T/F
True
2.1.23 Herpes zoster us a viral infection describing cold sores T/F
False Herpes simplex
2.1.24 Collagen keeps the skin supple and elastic T/F
False
2.1.25 The stratum lucidum is known as the granular layer of the epidermis T/F
False
2.1.26 Folliculitis is a bacterial infection of the hair follicle and sebaceous glands T/F
True
2.1.27 Vasodilation occurs when the body becomes cold T/F
False
2.1.28 Sebum is a fatty substance produced by the sebaceous glands T/F
True
2.1.29 The papillary layer of the dermis contains nerve endings, blood vessels and lymphatic capillaries. T/F
True
2.1.30 The subcutaneous layer of the skin is situated below the epidermis T/F
False
2.1.31 People with dry skin would suffer with couperose skin T/F
False
2.1.32 Body odor is produced when the sweat from eccrine glands is down by bacteria T/F
False
2.1.33 Milia are produced when the sebum becomes trapped in the hair follicle with no surface opening T/F
True
2.1.34 Certain medications and essential oils can penetrate the layers of the skin T/F
True
2.1.35 Keratinization occurs when the cells are living with a nucleus T/F
False
2.1.36 Mast cells secrete histamine T/F
True
2.1.37 Tinea corporis is another term for ringworm T/f
True
2.1.38 A papule is a small elevation on the skin containing pus T/F
False
2.1.39 A dry skin lacks oil and a dehydrated skin lacks moisture T/F
True
2.1.40 Sensation is a function of skin T/F
True
2.1.41 Mitotic activity occurs in the matrix of the hair T/F
True
2.1.42 Paronychia described the forward growth of the cuticle T/F
False
2.1.43 Onychorrhexis is the term given to ingrown toe nails T/F
False the name is onychocryotisis or unguis incarnates.
2.1.44 Anagen is the growing stage of the hair T/F
True
2.1.45 The cortex is the outer layer of the hair T/F
False the cuticle is the outer most layer of hair.
2.1.46 Vellus hair is found all over the face and body T/F
True
2.1.47 The connective tissue sheath supplies the hair and follicle with blood and nerves T/F
True
2.1.48 The eponychium is the cuticle found under the free edge T/F
False the eponychium is the thickened layer of skin at the base of the nail that protects the area between the nail and epidermis from bacteria.
2.1.49 Koilonychia is the term used to describe spoon shaped nails T/F
True
2.1.50 The subcutaneous layer is located above the dermis
False the subcutaneous layer is the deepest layer of the skin.
The epidermis
Dermis
Hypodermis/ subcutaneous
2.8.1 Which of the following provides a source of nourishment for the hair?
A) Inner root sheath
B) Connective tissue sheath
C) Outer root sheath
D) Erector pili muscle
B Connective tissue sheath
2.8.2 What part of the hair is responsible for making the hair stand upright when we are cold?
A) Erector pili muscle
B) Dermal papilla
C) Apocrine gland
D) Inner root sheath
A Erector pili muscle
2.8.3 What layer of the epidermis contains dead, flat, keratinized cells?
A) Prickle cell layer
B) Stratum germinativum
C) Stratum corneum
D) Stratum spinosum
C Stratum corneum
2.8.4 What layer of the dermis contains collagen fibers?
A) Corneum
B) Granular
C) Papillary
D) Reticular
D reticular
2.8.5 What cells found within the dermis destroy harmful wastes and bacteria?
A) Mast cells
B) Phagocytes
C) Fibroblasts
D) Histiocytes
B Phagocytes part of the immune system
2.8.6 Which of the following disorders of the skin would be aggravated by spicy food?
A) Acne rosacea
B) Acne vulgaris
C) Folliculitis
D) Herpes simplex
A rosacea
2.8.7 What is the term used to describe when living cells change to dead cells?
A) Ossification
B) Cell regeneration
C) Keratinization
D) Mitosis
C Keratinization is a process of cyto differentiation which the keratinocytes undergo when proceeding from their post germinative state to hardened cell
2.8.8 which of the following is a function of keratin ?
A) to provide nourishment
B) to provide blood supply
C) to eliminate waste
D) to provide protection
D
2.1.9 What happens to the blood capillaries when the body is cold?
A) They contract
B) they dilate
C) they become wider
D) they stretch
A
2.8.10 During vasodilation, what helps cool the body?
A) the body hair stands on end
B) sweat evaporates on the skins surface
C) shivering
D) blood capillaries contract
B evaporation helps cool the body the rest of the answer are for when the body is cold
2.8.11 What helps to protect the deeper layers of the skin from UV damage?
A) keratin
B) melanin
C) sebum
D) latic acid
B
2.8.12 what layer of the epidermis has fully keratinized cells?
A) stratum germinativum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum corneum
D) stratum spinosum
C stratum corneum
2.8.13 What type of skin disorder does dermatosis papulosa nigra fall under?
A) pigmentation
B) bacterial
C) viral
D) fungal
A pigmentation
2.8.14 Define keloid scars;
A) an overgrowth of tissue on an existing scar
B) a mark remaining on the skin after injury
C) a growth on the skin which is pigmented
D) a round smooth lump of tissue on the skin
A an overgrowth of tissue on an existing scar
2.8.15 Stretch marks are known as ;
A) Cellulitis
B) striae
C) macules
D) fissue
B striae
2.8.16 An abnormal sac, found on the skin, that may contain fluid or a semi solid material ;
A) papule
B) macule
C) fissue
D) cyst
D cyst
2.8.17 which one of the following is a bacterial infection ?
A) carbuncle
B) herpes simplex
C) pediculosis
D) ringworm
A carbuncle- a cluster of boils that form a connected area caused by bacteria
Herpes is a virus
Ringworm is a fungal
Pediculosis is lice
2.8.18 which one of the following is an infestation disorder of the skin?
A) ringworm
B) Pediculosis
C) athletes foot
D) acne rosacea
B pediculosis is infestation of lice
Ringworm and atheletes foot is fungal
Rosacea is genetic
2.8.19 What is the condition called when the nail is dry, lacks moisture and splits?
A) onychogryphosis
B) onychomycosis
C) onycholysis
D) onychorrhexis
D onychorrhexis is brittle nails
Onychogryphosis is rams horn nails, yellow thick
Onychomycosis is nail fungus
Onycholysis is like broken nail or uplifted nail
2.8.20 which of the following is an appendage of the skin?
A) dermis
B) medulla
C) hair
D) epidermis
C hair
2.8.21what layer of the hair determines the color and sheen of the hair ?
A) medulla
B) anagen
C) hair shaft
D) hair bulb
A medulla is the inner most layer of the hair
Anagen- the active phase of hair growth preceeds catagen and telogen
2.8.22. Which one of the following is not a layer of the skin?
a) Dermis
b) Catagen
c) Epidermis
d) Subcutaneous
B catagen is a transitional step in the hair growth process
2.8.23. The prickle cell layer is also known as;
a) Stratum corneum
b) Stratum lucidum
c) Stratum spinosum
d) Stratum germinativum
C stratum spinosum
2.8.24. Which one of the following helps to warm the body when it is cold?
a) Vasodilation
b) Dilation of blood capillaries
c) Sweating
d) Shivering
D shivering
Vasodilation is dilation of blood caps and sweating happens with body is hot.
2.8.25. What substance acts as the skin’s natural moisturiser?
a) Sebum
b) Collagen
c) Elastin
d) Sweat
A sebum
2.8.26. Which one of the following is not a bacterial skin infection?
a) Carbuncle
b) Folliculitis
c) Verruca
d) Impetigo
C verruca- is a wart caused by HPV
Carbuncle is cluster of boils caused by bacterial
Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles like after shaving
Impetigo is a highly contagious inf causes red sores on the face
2.8.27. Which one of the following nail disorders is highly contagious?
a) Onychomycosis
b) Onychophagy
c) Paronychia
d) Onychogryphosis
Onychogryphosis is rams horn nails, yellow thick
A Onychomycosis is nail fungus
Paronychia- infection of the tissue folds of the nail
Onychophagy-nail biting
2.8.28. Which of the following is a function of the skin?
a) Heat production
b) Movement
c) Excretion
d) Storage
C excretion
2.8.29. What type of tissue is the subcutaneous layer made up of?
a) Adipose and yellow elastic
b) Areolar and adipose
c) Areolar and lymphoid
d) Adipose and fibrous
B areolar and adipose
Adipose is fat
Areolar connective tissue
2.8.30. What part of the nail prevents bacteria from entering the matrix?
a) Nail walls
b) Nail grooves
c) Lunula
d) Cuticle
D cuticle
2.8.31. What layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes?
a) Clear layer
b) Prickle cell layer
c) Granular layer
d) Basal layer
D basal layer
2.8. 32. What skin disorder is caused by skin cells that reproduce very quickly?
a) Eczema
b) Acne vulgaris
c) Psoriasis
d) Skin tags
C psoriasis
2.8.33. Taking the contraceptive pill may cause what skin condition?
a) Chloasma
b) Vitiligo
c) Lentigo
d) Ephelides
A chloasma-a condition in which brown patches appear on the face
Vitiligo-a disease that causes loss of skin color
Lentigo- a flat pigmented spot aka liver spots
Ephelides- freckles
2.8. 34. What type of hair is found under the arms?
a) Lanugo
b) Vellus
c) Cortex
d) Terminal
D terminal
2.8. 35. Tinea corporis is also known as;
a) Scabies
b) Ringworm
c) Athlete’s foot
d) Shingles
B ringworm
2.8. 36. Where on the body is the skin at its thinnest?
a) Eyelids
b) Nose
c) Upper lip
d) Soles of the feet
A eyelids
- What provides nutrients to the hair?
a) Dermal papilla
b) Erector pili muscle
c) Medulla
d) Hair bulb
A dermal papilla- root
2.8.38. What pigmentation disorder causes the irises of the eyes to be pink in colour?
a) Chloasma
b) Vitiligo
c) Albinism
d) Papilloma
C albinism
2.8.39. What is the resting stage of hair growth?
a) Pathogen
b) Telogen
c) Catagen
d) Anagen
B telogen
2.8.40. What maintains the PH level of the skin?
a) Erector pili muscle
b) Eccrine glands
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Acid mantle
D acid mantle
3.1.1. There are 206 bones in the adult body
True or False
True
3.1.2. The scapula is an irregular bone
True or False
False scapula is a flat bone
3.1. 3. Tendons attach bone to bone
True or False
False ligaments attach bone to bone tendons connect muscles to bone
3.1.4. The navicular bone is a carpal
True or False
False its a tarsal
3.1. 5. Supination refers to turning the palm of the hand to face upwards
True or False
True
3.1.6. Cartilaginous joints are freely moveable joints
True or False
False moveable but not freely
3.1. 7. The mandible forms the lower jaw
True or False
True
3.1. 8. Haversian canals are found in compact bone
True or False
True haversian canals are minute tubes form a network in bone and contain blood vessels
3.1. 9. The sternum is a type of sesamoid bone
True or False
False the sternum is a flat bone
3.1. 10. The vertebral column consists of 31 bones
True or False
False there are 33 vertebrae
3.1. 11. The radius is found in the upper arm
True or False
False lower arm consist of radius and ulna
3.1. 12. Inversion refers to the soles of the feet facing outwards
True or False
False inversion of foot soles face inwards
3.1. 13. The ball & socket is a type of synovial joint
True or False
True
3.1. 14. Gout is a joint disorder that occurs when there is a build up of uric acid crystals around the joints
True or False
True
3.1. 15. Kyphosis is an increased inward curvature of the lumbar vertebrae
True or False
False kyphosis is inward curvature of the thoracic spine
3.1. 16. Protection is a function of the skeleton T/F
True
3.1. 17. The femur is known as the thigh bone
True or False
True
3.1. 18. The occipital bone forms the sides of the skull
True or False
False top of the skull
3.1.19 The patella is aka kneecap T/F
True
3.1.20 the triquetral is a tarsal T/F
false
3.1.21 The shoulder is a type of hinge joint T/F
false
3.1.22 Adduction described moving a limb towards the midline of the body T/F
True
3.1.23 The cervical vertebrae are the vertebrae of the neck T/F
True
3.1.24 Carpals fall into the category of short bones T/F
true
3.1.25 The vomer forms part of the orbital cavity T/F
Fals nasal cavity
3.1.26 the clavicle is aka the breast bone T/F
False
3.1.27 The ulna is found in the arm T/F
True
3.1.28 The ribs are a type of irregular bone T/F
False Flat bone
3.1.29 The axial skeleton consists of the vertebral column T/F
true
3.1.30 The ilium, ischium, and pubis form the pelvic girdle T/F
True
3.1.31 the carpals are ankle bones T/F
false carpals belong to the hands tarsals to feet
3.1.32 Cancellous bone is found in the end of long bones T/F
true
3.1.33 The humerus is a type of flat bone T/F
False long bone
3.1.34 the tibia is a type of long bone T/F
True
3.1.35 The maxilla holds the upper teeth T/F
True
3.1.36 Arthritis causes brittle bone disease T/F
False
3.1.37 A pivot joint allow rotation T/F
True
3.1.38 Extension describes straightening a body part so that the angle between the bones increases T/F
True
3.1.39 The calcaneus is the heel bone T/F
True
3.1.40 The fibula is known as the shin bone T/F
false tibia not fibula
3.1.41 Osteocytes are mature bone cells T/F
True
3.1.42 Bone making cells aka osteoclasts T/F
False osteoblasts are remember blasts build clasts catastrophe
3.1.44 The anatomical term distal refers to being furthest away from the midline T/F
True
3.1.45 A condyloid joint allows movement in all directions T/F
False
3.9.2 Ligaments attach;
a) bone to bone
b) muscle to bone
c)tendons to bone
d) fascia to muscle
A Ligaments attach bone to bone
3.9.1 Which of the following is not a synovial joint?
a) hinge
b) pivot
c) fibrous
d) gliding
C fibrous
3.9.3 Compact bone is;
a) hard
b) soft
c) spongy
d) tissue
A hard
3.9.4 Which of the following is a function of the skeleton?
a) removes carbon dioxide from the blood
b) heat production
c) helps fight infections
d) attachment for muscles
D attachment for muscles
3.9.5 Which bone is found in the lower leg?
a) ulna
b) femur
c) tibia
d) ilium
C tibia
3.9.6 The zygomatic bone is found?
a) on the forehead
b) on the cheek
c) lower jaw
d) behind the ear
B cheek bone
3.9.7 Which of the following is a tarsal?
a) Turbinate
b) Hamate
c) Capitate
d) Cuboid
D cuboid
3.9. 8. What bone is positioned in the centre of the chest?
a) Sternum
b) Scapula
c) Clavicle
d) Radius
A sternum
3.9. 9. An increased inward curvature of the lumbar spine;
a) Scoliosis
b) Lordosis
c) Kyphosis
d) Arthritis
B Lordosis
3.9. 10. Which one of the following is not a type of bone?
a) Irregular
b) Flat
c) Cartilaginous
d) Long
C cartilaginous
3.9. 11. How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
a) 5
b) 12
c) 10
d) 14
B 12
3.9.12. Which of the following is the shinbone?
a) Fibula
b) Femur
c) Patella
d) Tibia
D tibia
3.9.13. What is found in cancellous bone?
a) Red bone marrow
b) Haversian canals
c) Lymphatic vessels
d) Phagocytes
A red bone marrow
3.9.14. Which one of the following is not a long bone?
a) Metacarpals
b) Carpals
c) Ulna
d) Femur
B carpals
3.9.15. Which bone forms the forehead?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Frontal
d) Occipital
D occipital
3.9.16. The appendicular skeleton supports;
a) Skull
b) Ribs
c) Upper limbs
d) Sternum
C upper limbs , the other answers are all part of the axial skeleton
3.9.17. Phalanges are;
a) Ribs
b) Ankle bones
c) Wrist bones
d) Finger bones
D fingers
3.9.18. Fibrous joints are;
a) Immoveable
b) Slightly moveable
c) Freely moveable
d) Gliding
A immovable
3.9.19. The vertebrae of the lower back are called;
a) Coccygeal
b) Cervical
c) Sacral
d) Lumbar
D lumbar
3.9.20. What is the function of intervertebral discs?
a) To provide nutrients
b) To absorb shock
c) To produce heat
d) To provide leverage when walking
B to absorb shock
3.9.21. The ribs are classified as;
a) Flat bones
b) Long bones
c) Sesamoid bones
d) Irregular bones
A flat bones
3.9.22. The pubic bones form the;
a) Ischium
b) Innominate bones
c) Ilium
d) Pubis
D pubis
3.9.23. What joint allows movement in one direction?
a) Gliding
b) Hinge
c) Pivot
d) Saddle
B hinge
3.9.24. What are the foot bones?
a) Metatarsals
b) Carpals
c) Tarsals
d) Metacarpals
A metatarsals
3.9.25. Which of the following parts of the body are not part of the axial skeleton?
a) Vertebral column
b) Ribs
c) Shoulder girdle
d) Sternum
C shoulder girdle
3.9.26. Which bone forms part of the nasal cavities?
a) Lacrimal
b) Ethmoid
c) Occipital
d) Sphenoid
B ethmoid
3.9.27. What category of bones are developed within tendons?
a) Flat
b) Short
c) Long
d) Sesamoid
D sesamoid
3.9.28. What is the largest bone in the foot?
a) Cuboid
b) Talus
c) Calcaneus
d) Cuneiform
C calcaneus
3.9.29. How many cervical vertebrae are there?
a) 5
b) 12
c) 7
d) 4
C 7
3.9.30. What do the last 4 vertebrae form?
a) Sacrum
b) Coccyx
c) Pubis
d) Pelvic girdle
B coccyx
3.9.31. The collar bone is called the;
a) Clavicle
b) Manubrium
c) Sternum
d) Scapula
A clavicle
3.9.32. Which of the following is an irregular bone?
a) Occipital
b) Humerus
c) Patella
d) Maxilla
D maxilla
3.9.33. Which one of the following is not a carpal?
a) Lunate
b) Scaphoid
c) Capitate
d) Navicular
D navicular
3.9.34. What type of joint is the shoulder?
a) Cartilaginous
b) Ball and Socket
c) Hinge
d) Saddle
B Ball and socket
3.9.35. What bone is positioned on the lateral lower leg?
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Femur
d) Patella
A fibula
3.9.36. How many vertebrae are there?
a) 33
b) 31
c) 17
d) 32
A 33
3.9.37. What bone is situated on the little finger side of the forearm?
a) Radius
b) Ulna
c) Phalanges
d) Humerus
B ulna
3.9.38. Freely moveable joints are known as;
a) Fibrous
b) Synovial
c) Fixed
d) Cartilaginous
B synovial
3.9.39. What is caused when a ligament is overstretched?
a) Cramp
b) Strain
c) Gout
d) Sprain
D sprain
3.9.40. What is the membrane called that covers bone?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Bone marrow
c) Periosteum
d) Haversian canals
C periosteum
10.1.1. The lungs are the main muscles of respiration
True or False
False the diaphragm is the main muscle of respiration
10.1.2. During exhalation the diaphragm contracts and flattens out
True or False
False it relaxes and curves up
10.1.3. Air travels from the larynx to the trachea
True or False
True
10.1.4. The pharynx is a large tube made of adipose tissue
True or False
False the pharynx is made of muscle and cartilage
10.1.5. The larynx is also known as the voice box
True or False
True
10.1.6. The lungs are positioned in the thoracic cavity
True or False
True
10.1.7. Pleurisy describes inflammation of the lungs
True or False
False pleurisy is inflammation of the pleura causing membranes to rub and gate against each other.
Inflammation of the lungs is called pneumonitis.
10.1.8. External respiration is an involuntary movement controlled by the hypothalamus
True or False
False respiration is controlled by the medulla oblongata.
10.1.9. The bronchi connect the trachea to the lungs T/F
True
10.1.10. Dermal papillae are tiny hairs found in the nose which help to move the mucus into the throat
True or False
False dermal papillae are found at the bottom of hair follicles. Cilia is what helps move mucus.
10.1.11. Alveoli are made of squamous epithelial cells
True or False
True
10.1.12. Inspiration occurs when we breathe in air
True or False
True
10.1.13. During inhalation the external intercostals muscles help to lift the rib cage down and inwards
True or False
False the intercostal muscles contract, pulling ribcage upwards n outwards.
10.1.14. Inflammation of the bronchial tubes is known as bronchitis T/F
True
10.1.15. The respiratory centre is controlled by the medulla oblongata
True or False
True
10.1.16. The larynx connects the trachea to the bronchi
True or False
False the carina connects the trachea to the bronchi
10.1.17. The pleura is a membrane surrounding the lungs
True or False
True
10.1.18. Air in the nose is moistened by mucus
True or False
True
10.1.19. Carbon dioxide is released into the air that is breathed out of the alveoli
True or False
True
10.1.20. The alveoli are the final passageways of air to the lungs
True or False
False bronchioles are the final passages that connect to alveoli.
10.1.21. The inner layer of the pleura is known as the parietal layer
True or False
False visceral layer is on the lungs the parietal layer is on the ribcage and space between is the pleura.
10.1.22. The trachea is made up of yellow elastic cartilage
True or False
False The trachea is made up of hyaline cartilage
10.1.23. Air travels from the bronchioles to the alveoli of the lungs
True or False
True
10.1.24. Emphysema occurs when the alveoli become stretched and damaged
True or False
True
10.1.25. When the diaphragm relaxes it flattens out
True or False
False it curves
10.1.26. The intercostal muscles are positioned between the ribs
True or False
True
10.1.27. The tonsils are found at the back of the larynx
True or False
False The tonsils are found at the back of the pharynx between the 2 palatine arches
10.1.28. The trachea is made up of smooth muscle
True or False
True
10.1.29. Internal respiration is when the oxygen diffuses from the blood into the body’s cells
True or False
True
10.1.30. The bronchi are made up of voluntary muscle
True or False
False 30. The bronchi are made up of smooth muscle and cartilage
10.1.31. The exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli of the lungs
True or False
True
10.1.32. The visceral layer is attached to the surface of the lungs
True or False
True
10.1.33. Systemic circulation involves the transport of blood from the heart to the lungs
True or False
False carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body.
10.1.34. Inflammation of the pharynx is known as pharyngitis
True or False
True
10.1.35. The pharynx divides into the anterior and posterior lobes
True or False
False superior (nasopharynx) and inferior (oropharynx)
10.1.36. Elastic tissue can be found in bronchioles
True or False
True
10.1.37. The pleural cavity separates the visceral and parietal layers
True or False
True
10.1.38. The blood collects the oxygen in the cells and brings it to the lungs where it is exchanged for carbon dioxide
True or False
False blood gives off carbon dioxide through capillaries into the alveoli exchanges for oxygen
10.1.39. The trachea is lined with ciliated epithelium
True or False
True
10.1.40. Nerve cells called neurotransmitters send impulses to the medulla oblongata with messages about oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood
True or False
False neurons not neurotransmitters
- Nose = Stage 1
- Larynx = Stage
- Bronchi = Stage
- Nasopharynx = Stage
- Lungs = Stage
- Trachea = Stage
- Pharynx = Stage
- Alveoli = Stage
- Bronchioles = Stage
- Nose = Stage 1
- Larynx = Stage 4
- Bronchi = Stage 6
- Nasopharynx = Stage 2
- Lungs = Stage 9
- Trachea = Stage 5
- Pharynx = Stage 3
- Alveoli = Stage 8
- Bronchioles = Stage 7
10.6.1. The diaphragm relaxes = ?
2. Thoracic cavity pushes up = ?
3. Pressure inside the chest is lowered = ?
4. Diaphragm is a dome shaped = ?
5. The thoracic cavity increases in size = ?
6. The diaphragm contracts = ?
7. The chest cavity decreases in size = ?
8. Pressure inside the chest is increased = ?
9. The diaphragm flattens out = ?
10. The ribs are pulled upwards and outwards = ?
- Exhalation
- Exhalation
- Inhalation
- Exhalation
- Inhalation
- Inhalation
- Exhalation
- Exhalation
- Inhalation
- Inhalation
10.7.1. What prevents choking?
a) Adrenoids
b) Epiglottis
c) Cilia
d) Tonsils
B Epiglottis
10.7.2 What layer of the pleura is attached to the surface of the lungs?
a) parietal
b) pleural cavity
c) ciliated cells
d) visceral
D visceral touches lungs
parietal touches ribs
pleural cavity is the empty space
10.7.3 what part of the brain is responsible for controlling most of the respiratory system’s functions?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Midbrain
c) Cerebrum
d) Medulla oblongata
D Medulla oblongata
10.7.4. What connects the larynx to the bronchi?
a) Pharynx
b) Bronchioles
c) Trachea
d) Nose
C Trachea
10.7.5. What disorder of the respiratory system occurs when the alveoli of the lungs become damaged?
a) Emphysema
b) Pneumonia
c) Tuberculosis
d) Pleurisy
A emphysema
Pneumonia is fluid in lungs
Tb is bacteria infection causes coughing up blood
Pleurisy is the membranes rubbing against each other
10.7.6. What type of connective tissue are the adenoids composed of?
a) Lymphoid
b) Areolar
c) Yellow elastic
d) Adipose
A lymphoid
10.7.7. What is the main muscle of respiration?
a) External intercostals
b) Rectus abdominis
c) Diaphragm
d) Pectoralis major
C diaphragm
10.7. 8. Which one of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
a) Enables smell
b) Produces enzymes
c) Produces speech
d) Exchanges gases in and out of the lungs
B produces enymes
10.7.9 which one of the following does not contain cartilage?
a) bronchioles
B) trachea
C) larynx
d) bronchi
a bronchioles
10.7.10 what type of membrane is the nose lined with?
a) fibrous
b) serous
c) mucous
d) fluid
c) mucous
10.7.11 the windpipe is a common name for the;
a) bronchi
b) pharynx
c) larynx
d) trachea
d) trachea
10.7.12 what passes over the vocal cords enabling sound?
a) gas
b) hydrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) air
d) air
10.7.13 inspiration occurs;
a) when the diaphragm contracts
b) when the chest cavity decreases
c) when the chest cavity is pushed up
d) when the diaphragm relaxes
a) when the diaphragm contracts
10.7.14 where is the Adam’s Apple formed?
a) pharynx
b) larynx
c) trachea
d) bronchi
b) larynx
10.7.15 what is the nasal septum made of?
a) ciliated epithelial
b) membrane
c) fibrous tissue
d) cartilage
d) cartilage
10.7.16 what prevents dirt from entering the lungs?
a) cilia
b) tissue
c) trachea
d) nose
a) cilia
10.7.17 what is another term for voice box?
a) trachea
b) windpipe
c) larynx
d) pharynx
c) larynx
10.7.18 during external respiration carbon dioxide that is transported from the body’s cells is dropped into the;
a) bloodstream
b) capillaries
c) bronchial tubes
d) lungs
b) capillaries
10.7.19 where in the lungs does exchange of gases occur?
a) alveoli
b) bronchioles
c) pleura
d) bronchi
a) alveoli
10.7.20 what causes the exchange of gas to take place?
a) filtration
b) active transport
c) osmosis
d) diffusion
d) diffusion
10.7.21 what is another term for the throat?
a) pharynx
b) trachea
c) larynx
d) bronchi
a) pharynx
10.7.22 what is the function of the pleural cavity?
a) to enable a more efficient exchange of gases to take place in the lungs
b) to protect the thoracic cavity which holds the lungs
c) to prevent friction between the visceral and parietal layers
d) to transport air from the trachea into the bronchioles
c) to prevent friction between the visceral and parietal layers
10.7.23 what enables the sense of smell?
a) retraction
b) olfaction
c) diffusion
d) inspiration
b) olfaction
10.7.24 what is the diffusion of oxygen from the blood to the cells?
a) pulmonary respiration
b) internal respiration
c) external respiration
d) systemic respiration
b) internal respiration
10.7.25 what is taken from the air that is breathed into the lungs?
a) carbon dioxide
b) wastes
c) bacteria
d) oxygen
d) oxygen
10.7.26 during what type of respiration does the blood lose oxygen and gain carbon dioxide?
a) pulmonary respiration
b) external respiration
c) diffusion
d) internal respiration
d) internal respiration
10.7.27 what type of diffusion is responsible for the exchange of gases?
a) simple diffusion
b) filtered
c) active
d) facilitated
a) simple diffusion
10.7.28 what is the function of the trachea?
a) to take air from the larynx to the pharynx
b) to take air from the pharynx to bronchi
c) to take air from the larynx to the bronchi
d) to take air from the pharynx to the larynx
c) to take air from the larynx to the bronchi
10.7.29 which of the following statements is correct?
a) during exhalation the diaphragm flattens out
b) during inhalation the volume of chest cavity decreases
c) during exhalation the ribs are pushed up
d) during inhalation the pressure inside the chest cavity is lowered
d) during inhalation the pressure inside the chest cavity is lowered
10.7.30 another term used to describe breathing;
a) inhalation
b) internal respiration
c) external respiration
d) exhalation
c) external respiration
10.7.31 what is the opening of larynx called?
a) hilum
b) glottis
c) adenoid
d) Adam’s apple
b) glottis
10.7.32 what type of epithelial cells are found in the alveoli?
a) squamous
b) compound
c) cuboidal
d) columnar
a) squamous
10.7.33 what is used to prevent tuberculosis TB?
a) hep b shot
b) antibiotics
c) chemo
d) BCG vaccine
d) BCG vaccine- Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine is a vaccine primarily used against tuberculosis. It is named after its inventors Albert Calmette and Camille Guérin. In countries where tuberculosis or leprosy is common, one dose is recommended in healthy babies as soon after birth as possible.
10.7.34 where are the intercostal muscles positioned?
a) in the abdominal cavity
b) below the diaphragm
c) between the ribs
d) between the lungs
c) between the ribs
10.7.35 what is the outer layer of the pleura called?
a) pleural cavity
b) parietal
c) visceral
d) epiglottis
b) parietal
10.7.36 what substance in the nose collects all the dust and stops it from traveling to the lungs?
a) mucous
b) air
c) dermal papillae
d) sinuses
a) mucous
10.7.37 what is the gaseous exchange?
a) the movement of carbon dioxide into the blood and movement of oxygen out of the blood
b) the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the cells
c) the movement of air into and out of the cells and tissues
d) the movement of oxygen out of alveoli walls
b) the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the cells
10.7.38 what are hollow air pockets found within the bones surrounding the nose?
a) epiglottis
b) tonsils
c) vacuoles
d) sinuses
sinuses
10.7.39 during expiration;
a) the ribs are pushed down
b) the diaphragm contracts
c) the size of the chest cavity increases
d) air is breathed in
a) the ribs are pushed down
7.1. 1. The pituitary gland is known as the master gland of the endocrine system
True or False
True
7.1. 2. Human growth hormone is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
True or False
False anterior lobe
7.1.3. ACTH controls the growth of the adrenal medulla T/F
False adrenal cortex
7.1. 4. MSH produces melanin in the surface layer of the skin
True or False
False melanocytes
7.1. 5. Hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone causes diabetes insipidus
True or False
True
7.1. 6. The adrenal glands are located underneath each kidney
True or False
False above each kidney
7.1 7. The thyroid gland is controlled by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
True or False
True
7.1. 8. Oestrogen stimulates the muscles of the uterus during childbirth
True or False
False oxytocin
7.1. 9. FSH, ACTH & TSH are hormones secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
True or False
True
7.1. 10. Hypersecretion of growth hormone leads to dwarfism
True or False
False gigantism
7.1. 11. The pineal gland is situated at the base of the brain
True or False
False mid brain
7.1. 12. The hormone melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland
True or False
True
7.1. 13. Hyposecretion of insulin causes hypoglycaemia
True or False
False hyperglycemia
7.1. 14. Glucocorticoids is secreted by the adrenal cortex
True or False
True
7.1. 15. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids causes cushing’s syndrome
True
7.1. 16. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are secreted by the adrenal cortex
True or False
False the adrenal medulla
7.1.17. The adrenal medulla supports the sympathetic nervous system
True or False
True
7.1.18. Adrenaline increases the heart rate
True or False
True
7.1. 19. Progesterone is produced by the testes
True or False
False ovaries
7.1. 20. Hypersecretion of parathormone can lead to tetany
True or False
False hyposecretion
7.1. 21. Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid glands
True or False
True
7.1. 22. Hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus
True or False
True
7.1. 23. Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones leads to grave’s disease
True or False
False hyper-secretion
7.1. 24. Thymic factor is secreted by the thyroid glands
True or False
False by the thymus
7.1. 25. The adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids
True or False
True
7.1. 26. Hypersecretion of oestrogen in men causes breast growth
True or False
True
7.1. 27. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused when the pancreas cannot produce insulin
True or False
True
7.1. 28. Dysmenorrhoea describes the absence of menstruation
True or False
False dysmenorrhea is menstral cramps
7.1. 29. The menstrual phase describes the beginning of menstruation
True or False
False first time of menstruation
7.1. 30. Hyposecretion of oestrogen in females can lead to polycystic ovarian syndrome
True or False
True
7.1. 31. Menarche is a term used to describe the start of menstruation
True or False
True
7.1. 32. The pancreas is located below the stomach
True or False
True
7.1. 33. Hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone leads to diabetes insipidus
True or False
False elephantitus or edima
7.1. 34. Hypersecretion of melatonin can lead to seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
True or False
True
7.1. 35. Hypersecretion of testosterone in women can lead to virilism
True or False
True
7.1. 36. The pituitary gland is controlled by the hypothalamus
True or False
True
7.1. 37. ICSH, FSH & LH are sex organ hormones
True or False
False reproductive hormones
7.1. 38. Cells called the islets of langerhans are found in the adrenal cortex
True or False
False pancreas
7.1. 39. The ovaries produce oestrogen and progesterone
True or False
True
7.1. 40. When the body is at rest it produces the hormone noradrenaline
False it produces it in response to stress
7.8. 1. The effect of adrenaline on the body is;
a) Decreases blood pressure
b) Speeds up digestion
c) Increase metabolic rate
d) Dilates blood vessels
C
7.8. 2. Where is the thymus located?
a) Thyroid glands
b) Ovaries
c) Thymus
d) Top of kidneys
C
7.8. 3. The anterior and posterior lobes are part of which gland?
a) Pituitary
b) Thalamus
c) Pancreas
d) Adrenals
A
7.8. 4. The adrenal medulla is regulated by the;
a) Sympathetic nervous system
b) Central nervous system
c) Somatic nervous system
d) Parasympathetic nervous system
A
7.8. 5. Islets of Langerhans are found in;
a) The liver
b) The pancreas
c) The adrenal glands
d) The testes
B
7.8. 6. Hyposecretion of the thyroid gland hormones can lead to what disorder in an adult?
a) Virilism
b) Cretinism
c) Addison’s Disease
d) Myxoedema
D
addison disease-hypo-secretion of glucocorticoids
Virilism- hypersecretion of androgens
Cretinism- a condition of severely stunted physical and mental growth due to untreated congenital deficiency of thyroid hormones (congenital hypothyroidism)
Myxoedema- a severe form of hypothyroidism characterized by swelling and thickening of your skin
7.8. 7. What hormone increases the heart and breathing rates during times of stress?
a) Insulin
b) Adrenaline
c) Glucocorticoids
d) Oxytocin
B
7.8. 8. What is the function of the endocrine system?
a) To produce hormones maintaining the body’s functions
b) To control changes to the body during pregnancy
c) To control the body during stressful times
d) All of the above
All the above
7.8. 9. What hormone is responsible for maintaining calcium levels in the body?
a) Thyroxin
b) Calcitonin
c) Adrenaline
d) Mineralocorticoids
B
7.8. 10. Which one of the following hormones is not secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a) Adrenocorticotrophin
b) Thyrotrophin
c) Antidiuretic hormone
d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
C anti diuretic hormone
7.8.11. Hypersecretion of mineralocorticoids causes;
a) Addison’s Disease
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Kidney failure
d) Cushing’s syndrome
C
7.8. 12. What is a hormone?
a) A ductless gland
b) A blood vessel
c) A chemical messenger
d) A chemical catalyst
C
7.8. 13. What hormone controls the thyroid gland?
a) Thyrotrophin
b) Parathormone
c) Thymic factor
d) Glucocorticoids
A
7.8. 14. What hormone is responsible for the growth of the female sexual characteristics?
a) Oestrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Insulin
d) Luteinising hormone
A
7.8. 15. What hormone metabolises carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
a) Mineralocorticoids
b) Thyrotrophin
c) Adrenaline
d) Glucocorticoids
D
7.8. 16. Hyposecretion of insulin causes;
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hypoglycaemia
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Grave’s disease
A
7.8. 17. What hormone is secreted by the pineal body?
a) Oxytocin
b) Melatonin
c) Insulin
d) Gonadotrophins
B
7.8. 18. During what phase of the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?
a) Menarche
b) Menstrual
c) Proliferative
d) Secretory
C
7.8. 19. A condition called tetany occurs when there is;
a) A deficiency of blood sugar in the blood
b) A deficiency of calcium in the blood
c) A deficiency of vitamin A in the blood
d) A deficiency of salts in the blood
B
7.8. 20. Which one of the following is not a function of the thyroid gland?
a) Regulates basic metabolic rate
b) Maintains healthy skin and hair
c) Increases water reabsorption in the kidneys
d) Controls the rate at which the body’s cells work
C
7.8. 21. Hypersecretion of testosterone in females can lead to;
a) SAD
b) Hirsutism
c) Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
d) Gynaecomastia
B hirsutism-excess hair most often noticeable around the mouth and chin
7.8. 22. What is the definition of amenorrhoea?
a) Painful menstruation
b) The start of the menstrual cycle
c) The onset of menopause
d) The absence of menstruation
D
7.8. 23. What hormone is secreted when the body finds itself in an emergency situation?
a) Adrenaline
b) Insulin
c) Glycogen
d) Glucocorticoids
A
7.8. 24. Which one of the following is not a phase of the menstrual cycle?
a) Menarche
b) Secretory
c) Menstrual
d) Proliferative
A
7.8. 25. What are the effects of grave’s disease?
a) Decreased heart and breathing rates
b) Increase heart rate and disturbed sleeping patterns
c) Low blood pressure and oedema
d) Depression and weight gain
B
7.8. 26. What endocrine gland is located below the stomach?
a) Ovaries
b) Pineal body
c) Adrenal medulla
d) Pancreas
D
7.8. 27. What is the function of HGH?
a) To control the thyroid gland
b) To control salt levels in the blood
c) To regulate height and growth
d) To regulate water reabsorption
C
7.8. 28. What hormone is secreted by the pancreas?
a) Melatonin
b) Adrenaline
c) Parathormone
d) Insulin
D
7.8. 29. What hormone stimulates the production of sperm in men?
a) Follicle stimulating hormone
b) Luteinising hormone
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin
A
7.8. 30. What is the function of melanocyte stimulating hormone?
a) To stimulate the basal layer of the skin to produce melanin
b) To stimulate the clear layer of skin to produce melanin
c) To stimulate the surface layer of the skin to produce melanin
d) To stimulate the dermis to produce melanin
A
7.8. 31. Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the;
a) Pancreas
b) Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
c) Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
d) Adrenal cortex
C
7.8. 32. Hypoglycaemia is a term used to describe;
a) High blood pressure
b) Low blood pressure
c) High blood sugar
d) Low blood sugar
D
7.8. 33. Which one of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a) TF
b) ADH
c) Vasopressin
d) HGH
D
7.8. 34. What endocrine gland is located in the centre of the brain?
a) Parathyroid gland
b) Pineal body
c) Adrenal cortex
d) Pituitary gland
B
7.8. 35. What is the function of parathyroid glands?
a) To regulate salt levels in the body
b) To regulate calcium levels in the blood
c) To metabolise carbohydrates and proteins
d) To regulate blood sugar levels
B
7.8. 36. Muscular weakness and changes in skin pigmentation are effects of what endocrine disorder?
a) Myxoedema
b) Addison’s syndrome
c) Gigantism
d) Amenorrhoea
B
7.8. 37. What type of diabetes occurs as a result of the pancreas being unable to produce insulin?
a) Cushings
b) Insipidus
c) Mellitus
d) Acromegaly
C
7.8. 38. What is the function of oxytocin?
a) To stimulate the contraction of the uterus during labour
b) To prepare the corpus luteum for pregnancy
c) To stimulate the ovaries to produce oestrogen
d) To control sexual development in females
A
7.8. 39. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids causes;
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Cushing’s syndrome
c) Addison’s disease
d) Amenorrhoea
B
7.8. 40. Where is the pituitary gland located?
a) Below the stomach
b) Front of the neck
c) Base of the brain
d) Centre of the brain
C
5.1. 1. Granulocytes and thrombocytes make up leucocytes
True or False
False
5.1. 2. The endocardium is the inner wall of the heart
True or False
True
5.1. 3. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
True or False
True
5.1. 4. The carotid veins are the main veins of the head and neck
True or False
False jugular veins
5.1. 5. Systolic pressure occurs when the heart is contracting
True or False
True
5.1. 6. Bradycardia occurs when the pulse rate beats over 100 times per minute
True or False
False tachycardia- over 100 bpm bradycardia is under 60 bpm
5.1. 7. The pulmonary vein returns blood from the lungs to the right atrium
True or False
False not right atrium but left atrium. The inferior and superior vena cave bring blood to the right atrium
5.1. 8. Plasma proteins include globulin, fibrinogen and haemoglobin
True or False
False albumins not hemoglobin
5.1. 9. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels T/F
True
5.1. 10. The bicuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle
False left a and left v “try before you buy”
5.1.11. Plasma makes up 55% of the blood’s composition
True or False
True
5.1. 12. The right and left sides of the heart are divided by a muscular wall called the septum
True or False
True
5.1. 13. Deoxygenated blood enters the left atrium of the heart by the pulmonary veins
True or False
False oxygenated blood the left atrium of the heart by the pulmonary veins
5.1. 14. Red blood cells are known as erythrocytes T/F
True
5.1. 15. The pericardium is the middle layer of the heart wall
True or False
False outer layer
5.1. 16. Hypertension is another name for low blood pressure
True or False
False hypotension is low bp hypertension is high bp
5.1.17. Type O blood is the universal donor
True or False
True
5.1. 18. The cephalic vein can be found in the arm
True or False
True
5.1. 19. Deoxygenated blood passes through the bicuspid valve into the right ventricle
True or False
False oxygenated
5.1. 20. Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs with the exception of the pulmonary artery
True or False
True arteries carry blood away from heart
5.1. 21. Thrombocytes are known as platelets
True or False
True
5.1. 22. The average pulse rate of an adult is between 70 and 90 beats per minute
True or False
False the range is 60-100 bpm
5.1. 23. The pulmonary vein branches into the right and left pulmonary veins and takes deoxygenated blood to both lungs
True or False
False takes oxygenated blood to the heart but there are l&r pulmonary veins
5.1. 24. Hepatitis affects the pancreas
True or False
False liver
5.1. 25. The aorta is the largest artery of the heart
True or False
True
5.1. 26. Monocytes produce antibodies
True or False
False becomes a macrophage does not produce antibodies
5.1. 27. Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin
True or False
True
5.1. 28. Oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium of the heart via the pulmonary veins
True or False
True
5.1. 30. Blood pressure is recorded by a sphygmomanometer
True or False
True
5.1. 31. Vitamin B12 is required for a blood clot to form
True or False
False platelets are required for a blood clot to form
5.1. 32. Leucocytes transport oxygen to the body’s cells
True or False
False erythrocytes
5.1. 33. The upper chambers of the heart are called atria
True or False
True
5.1. 34. Arteries eventually join up to form small veins called venules
True or False
False arteries->arterioles->capillaries->venules->veins
5.1. 35. The aorta leaves the left ventricle
True or False
True
5.1. 36. In the lungs, carbon dioxide is removed and replaced with oxygen
True
5.1. 37. Vitamin B6 is necessary for the development of erythrocytes in red bone marrow
True or False
False vitamin b 6 - important for normal brain development and for keeping the nervous system and immune system healthy.
Vitamin b 12 is necessary for the development of erythrocytes in red bone marrow
5.1. 38. Lack of iron in the blood causes anaemia
True or False
True
5.1. 39. Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium via the inferior and superior vena cava
True or False
True
5.1. 40. Anyone with type B blood can receive blood from all blood groups
True or False
False AB + is universal receiver
Exercise 5.2
Please state whether the characteristics/definitions below fall under the category of Arteries, Veins, Capillaries, Venules or Arterioles. All answers are at the end of the chapter.
1. Small lumen = ?
2. Smallest blood vessels = ?
3. Unites capillaries and veins = ?
4. Carry blood towards the heart = ?
5. Small veins = ?
6. Receive blood from arterioles = ?
7. Carry blood under high pressure = ?
8. Smaller arteries = ?
9. Thick elastic, muscular walls = ?
10. Carry blood under low pressure = ?
11. Valves are present to prevent backflow of blood = ?
12. Large lumen = ?
13. Carry blood away from heart = ?
14. Nutrients and gas pass through = ?
- Arteries
- Capillaries
- Venules
- Veins
- Venules
- Capillaries
- Arteries
- Arterioles
- Arteries
- Veins
- Veins
- Veins
- Arteries
- Capillaries
5.4 Blood circ stages 1-9
- Deoxygenated blood from the body flows through the superior and inferior vena cava, emptying into the right atrium = Stage 1
- In the lungs, carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs and replaced with oxygen = Stage
- Blood is then passed through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery = Stage
- Oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle and passes into the aorta through the aortic valve = Stage
- Deoxygenated blood leaves the right atrium through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle = Stage
- Oxygenated blood is returned from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart via the pulmonary veins = Stage
- The aorta transports oxygenated blood around the body supplying oxygen and nutrients to the cells = Stage
- The pulmonary artery divides into the left and right branches and carries the blood into both sides of the lungs = Stage
- Oxygenated blood leaves the left atrium and passes into the left ventricle via the bicuspid = Stage
- Stage 1
- Stage 5
- Stage 3
- Stage 8
- Stage 2
- Stage 6
- Stage 9
- Stage 4
- Stage 7
5.7 1. Where is the protein, haemoglobin found?
a) Erythrocytes
b) Thrombocytes
c) Monocytes
d) Leucocytes
A
5.7. 2. What valve is found between the right atrium and the right ventricle?
a) Mitral
b) Pulmonary
c) Bicuspid
d) Tricuspid
D
5.7. 3. What percentage of plasma is found in the blood?
a) 40%
b) 92%
c) 55%
d) 5%
C
5.7. 4. The heart rate of an average healthy person should be;
a) 75 - 85 beats per minute
b) 60 - 70 beats per minute
c) 80 - 90 beats per minute
d) 55 - 60 beats per minute
B
5.7. 5. Which one of the following is not a vein of the body?
a) Jugular
b) Saphenous
c) Renal
d) Basilic
C
5.7. 6. Phlebitis describes;
a) Inflammation of the heart muscle
b) Inflammation of the wall of the artery
c) Inflammation of the wall of the vein
d) Blood clot in the heart
C
5.7. 7. Which one of the following is needed for the formation of a blood clot?
a) Resin
b) Elastin
c) Fibrin
d) Vitamin A
C
5.7. 8. What substance is removed from the blood when it reaches the lungs?
a) Haemoglobin
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon monoxide
B
5.7. 9. What category of tissue does blood fall under?
a) Connective
b) Cardiac
c) Muscular
d) Nervous
A
5.7. 10. Ventricles are;
a) The lower chambers of the heart
b) The layers of the heart’s wall
c) The valves preventing the backflow of blood
d) The upper chambers of the heart
A
5.7. 11. What is the thickest layer of the heart?
a) Pericardium
b) Septum
c) Myocardium
d) Endocardium
C
5.7. 12. Inflammation of the liver is known as;
a) Phlebitis
b) Hepatitis
c) Septicaemia
d) Haemophilia
B
5.7. 13. The subclavian artery supplies what part of the body?
a) Neck
b) Thoracic wall
c) Right leg
d) Abdominal wall
B
5.7. 14. What blood vessel leaves the heart carrying deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Aorta
A
5.7. 15. Systemic circulation describes;
a) Circulation of deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
b) Circulation of deoxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary artery
c) Circulation of oxygenated blood from the heart to the body
d) Circulation of oxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart through the aorta
C
5.7. 16. What vein drains blood from the upper body?
a) Temporal vein
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Aorta
d) Superior vena cava
D
5.7. 17. What regulates the flow of blood throughout the heart?
a) Valves
b) Ventricles
c) Veins
d) Arteries
A
5.7. 18. What group of cells are not found in the blood?
a) Thrombocytes
b) Granulocytes
c) Osteoblasts
d) Erythrocytes
C
5.7. 19. What is the function of capillaries?
a) To deliver blood to the arteries
b) To supply tissues and cells with nutrients
c) To transport blood from the heart
d) To carry deoxygenated blood from the veins
B
5.7. 20. Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the;
a) Pulmonary vein
b) Superior and inferior vena cava
c) Aorta
d) Pulmonary artery
B
5.7. 21. Which one of the following arteries supplies the arm?
a) Axillary
b) Femoral
c) Tibial
d) Innominate
A
5.7. 22. What is the function of the aorta?
a) Carry oxygenated blood around the body
b) Carry oxygenated blood to the heart
c) Carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs
d) Carry deoxygenated blood
A
5.7. 23. Which one of the following is not a layer of the heart?
a) Pericardium
b) Bicuspid
c) Myocardium
d) Endocardium
B
5.7. 24. What group of blood cells protect the body against infection?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Thrombocytes
c) Erythrocytes
d) Leucocytes
D
5.7. 25. Hypotension describes;
a) High blood pressure
b) Systolic blood pressure
c) Low blood pressure
d) Cardiac output
C
5.7. 26. What blood type can be given to any blood group?
a) AB
b) O
c) B
d) A
B
5.7. 27. What is another term used to describe the heartbeat?
a) Pulse
b) Blood pressure
c) Pulmonary circulation
d) Cardiac cycle
A
5.7. 28. What substance gives blood its red colour?
a) Mitochondria
b) Fibrin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Oxyhaemoglobin
D
5.7. 29. What blood vessels unite arterioles and venules?
a) Capillaries
b) Veins
c) Arteries
d) Pulmonary veins
A
5.7. 30. Myocardial infarction is more commonly known as;
a) Angina
b) Heart attack
c) High blood pressure
d) Phlebitis
B
5.7. 31. The right ventricle pushes blood into the;
a) Bicuspid valve
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Aorta
C
5.7. 32. Which one of the following is not an artery of the body?
a) Carotid
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Iliac
d) Hepatic
B its a vein
5.7. 33. What valve is found between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
a) Bicuspid
b) Circulatory
c) Pulmonary
d) Semi lunar
A
5.7. 34. Deoxygenated blood fills the;
a) Aortic valve
b) Left atrium
c) Septum
d) Right atrium
D
5.7. 35. Diastolic refers to;
a) When the heart muscle relaxes
b) When the heart muscle contracts
c) When the heart muscle fills up with blood
d) When the heart muscle transports blood to the lungs
A
5.7. 36. Thrombocytes are also known as;
a) White blood cells
b) Blood corpuscles
c) Platelets
d) Red blood cells
C
5.7. 37. What condition describes the loss of elasticity from the walls of the arteries?
a) Haemophilia
b) Thrombus
c) Atherosclerosis
d) Arteriosclerosis
D
5.7. 38. Oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle through;
a) Aorta
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Superior vena cava
A
5.7. 39. Myocardium describes;
a) The wall dividing the left and right sides of the heart
b) The inner layer of the heart
c) The process of muscular contraction
d) The middle layer of the heart
D
5.7. 40. What are the heart’s lower chambers called?
a) Aorta
b) Ventricles
c) Atrium
d) Vena cava
B
6.1. 1. The lymphatic vessels have an outer layer of muscular tissue
True or False
False
6.1. 2. Lymphatic capillaries contain leucocytes and lymphocytes
True or False
False
6.1. 3. The axillary nodes are located in the underarm area
True
6.1.4. Oedema is due to the abnormal swelling of body tissues due to the build up of excess fluid
True or False
True
6.1. 5. Lymph nodes filter the lymph
True or False
True
6.1. 7. Macrophages produce new antibodies to help fight infection
True or False
False
6.1. 8. Filtered lymph leaves the node by afferent vessels
True or False
False
6.1. 9. The occipital nodes are located at the base of the skull
True or False
True
6.1. 10. Lymphatic capillaries drain excess fluid towards the tissues of the body
True or False
False
6.1. 11. The spleen destroys lymphocytes
True or False
False
6.1. 12. Filtered lymph is passed into lymphatic ducts
True or False
True
6.1. 13. The popliteal nodes are located in the groin area
True or False
False
6.1. 14. Lymphatic capillaries are composed of a layer of endothelial cells T/F
True
6.1. 15. Lymphatic vessels collect lymph from the lymphatic capillaries
True or False
True
6.1. 16. The right lymphatic duct is the largest lymphatic vessel
True or False
False
6.1. 17. Lymphatic vessels contain valves which keep the blood flowing in the right direction, preventing backflow
True or False
True
6.1. 18. Lymphatic vessels are made up of a layer of hyaline cartilage
True or False
False
6.1. 19. The thoracic duct drains lymph from the left side of the head T/F
True
6.1. 20. The spleen is located on the right side of the abdominal cavity
True or False
False
6.1. 21. The lymph node is covered by a wall of connective tissue
True or False
True
6.1. 22. Lymphatic vessels have thin collapsible walls
True or False
True
6.1. 23. Lymphocytes produce antibodies to help fight infection
True or False
True
6.1. 24. Lymph enters the lymph nodes from the lymphatic ducts
True or False
False
6.1. 25. Cancer of the lymphatic tissue is known as Hodgkin’s Disease
True or False
True
6.1. 26. The inguinal nodes are located in the elbow region
True or False
False
6.1. 27. An efferent vessel transports lymph to the lymph node
True or False
False afferent
6.1. 28. The spleen stores blood
True or False
True
6.1. 29. Lymphatic vessels around the palm of the hand are called the plantar plexus
True or False
False
6.1. 30. The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from both lower limbs T/F
False
6.7. 1. Which one of the following is not a lymphatic organ?
a) Tonsils
b) Spleen
c) Pancreas
d) Thymus gland
C
6.7. 2. What lymphatic duct is positioned in the root of the neck?
a) Right lymphatic duct
b) Subclavian duct
c) Submandibular duct
d) Thoracic duct
A
6.7. 3. What nodes are located in the neck?
a) Cervical
b) Occipital
c) Submandibular
d) Axillary
A
6.7. 4. Lymphatic vessels have;
a) Thick muscular tubes
b) Thin muscular tubes
c) Thick collapsible walls
d) Thin collapsible walls
D
6.7. 5. Which one of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
a) To filter lymph
b) To destroy harmful cells
c) To produce antibodies
d) To produce erythrocytes
D
6.7. 6. Which of the following drains lymph from the nose and ears?
a) Occipital
b) Parotid
c) Inguinal
d) Popliteal
B
6.7. 7. What duct collects the most lymph?
a) Subclavian duct
b) Right lymphatic duct
c) Right subclavian duct
d) Thoracic duct
D
6.7. 8. Which one of the following systems has a close relationship with the lymphatic system?
a) Respiratory
b) Circulatory
c) Nervous
d) Reproductive
B
6.7. 9. What is the function of lymphatic vessels?
a) To carry lymph towards the heart
b) To carry lymph away from the heart
c) To empty lymph into the lymphatic capillaries
d) To destroy harmful waste and bacteria
A
6.7. 10. What type of cells are produced by the spleen?
a) Thrombocytes
b) Osteocytes
c) Lymphocytes
d) Erythrocytes
C
6.7. 11. Any obstruction in the flow of lymph is known as;
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Hodgkin’s disease
c) Oedema
d) Lymphoma
C
6.7. 12. What vessels bring lymph to be filtered?
a) Plasma
b) Efferent
c) Blood
d) Afferent
D
6.7. 13. What are lymph nodes made of?
a) Adipose tissue
b) Lymphatic tissue
c) Yellow elastic cartilage
d) Endothelial cells
B
6.7. 14. What is the position of the spleen?
a) On the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity
b) On the left of the abdominal cavity
c) On the right of the abdominal cavity
d) On the anterior wall of the abdominal cavity
B
6.7. 15. What cells produce antibodies?
a) Phagocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Erythrocytes
d) Lymphocytes
D
6.7. 16. What lymphatic organ stores blood?
a) Thymus gland
b) Spleen
c) Tonsils
d) Bladder
B
6.7. 17. What is the function of lymphatic capillaries?
a) To convey lymph back to the bloodstream
b) To convey excess fluid towards the tissues of the body
c) To convey excess fluid away from tissue space
d) To convey lymph towards the heart
C
6.7. 18. What group of cells are not found in the blood?
a) Thrombocytes
b) Granulocytes
c) Osteoblasts
d) Erythrocytes
C
6.7. 19. What nodes are located in the elbow region?
a) Inguinal
b) Auricular
c) Submandibular
d) Supratrochlear
D
6.7. 20. What valves prevent the backflow of lymph through lymphatic vessels?
a) Bicuspid
b) Semi lunar
c) Tricuspid
d) Mitral
B
11.1. 1. The duodenum is part of the large intestine
True or False
False beginning part of the small intestine
11.1. 2. The stomach is unable to absorb alcohol
True or False
False The stomach is unable to absorb fats and carbs
11.1. 3. Rennin curdles milk protein
True or False
True
11.1. 4. Bile is produced in the gall bladder and stored in the liver T/F
False bile is produced by liver and stored in gallbladder
11.1. 5. The pancreas, liver and gall bladder are accessory organs to digestion
True or False
True
11.1. 6. Food enters the stomach from the oesophagus via the pyloric sphincter
True or False
False esophageal sphincter
11.1. 7. Hydrochloric acid neutralises bacteria present in food
True or False
True
11.1. 8. Pepsin is an enzyme found in pancreatic juice
True or False
False found in the stomach juices
11.1. 9. Vitamins A & D are stored in the liver
True or False
True
11.1. 10. The liver produces heat T/F
True
11.1. 11. Amylase is involved in fat digestion
True or False
False carb digestion
11.1. 12. The colon is part of the small intestine
True or False
False large intestine
11.1. 13. The oesophagus is the first main organ of digestion
True or False
True but don’t forget the mouth and salivary glands
11.1. 14. The oesophagus links the pharynx to the pancreas
True or False
False to the stomach
11.1. 15. Fat and carbohydrate digestion takes place in the small intestine
True or False
True
11.1. 16. The submandibular gland secretes saliva
True
11.1. 17. An enzyme is a chemical catalyst which activates chemical changes in itself
True or False
False enzyme-a catalyst that regulates the rate at which chemical reactions proceed in living organisms without itself being altered in the process.
11.1. 18. The ball of food at the back of the mouth is known as the bolus
True or False
True
11.1. 19. The peritoneum is a layer of the stomach
True or False
True
11.1. 20. The pancreatic juice, trypsin, breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol
True or False
False lipase
11.1. 21. The chemical digestion of food is completed in the small intestine
True or False
True
11.1. 22. Coeliac’s disease is caused by an intolerance to a protein called gluten
True or False
True
11.1. 23. Crohn’s disease is a disease of the stomach
True or False
False Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that causes chronic inflammation of the GI tract, which extends from your stomach all the way large intestines
11.1. 24. The jejunum and ileum are part of the large intestine
True or False
False sm intestines
11.1. 25. Glucose is an end product of carbohydrate digestion
True or False
True
11.1. 26. The small intestine is 7cm long
True or False
False 7 meters
11.1. 27. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine T/F
True
11.1. 28. Disaccharides and monosaccharides are classified as carbohydrates
True or False
True
11.1. 29. The function of bile is to emulsify proteins
True or False
False fats not protein
11.1. 30. The liver is the largest gland in the body
True or False
True
11.1. 31. Endocrine and exocrine are functions of the pancreas
True or False
True
11.1. 32. The liver converts stored glycogen to glucose when energy is needed
True or False
True
11.1. 33. Saliva commences the digestion of fats in the mouth
True or False
False carbs not fats
11.1. 34. The pyloric sphincter is located at the entrance to the stomach and prevents the backflow of food from the stomach
True or False
False esophageal sphincter
11.1. 35. One of the functions of the large intestine is to remove waste
True or False
True
11.1. 36. Iron and potassium are stored by the liver
True or False
True
11.1. 37. Chyme is food broken down into liquid form
True or False
True
11.1. 38. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach is known as enteritis
True or False
False gastritis
11.1. 39. Inflammation of the small intestine is known as colitis
True or False
False enteritis
11.1. 40. Food remains in the stomach for 2 hours before it becomes chime
True or False
False 40 min to 3 hrs
Exercise 11.2
Please match the digestive organs with the enzymes/fluids they secrete.
Choose from the following: 1. Mouth 2. Stomach 3. Duodenum 4. Small Intestine. Some organs may be repeated.
1. Hydrochloric Acid = ?
2. Salivary Amylase = ?
3. Lipase = ?
4. Rennin = ?
5. Maltase = ?
6. Trypsin = ?
7. Sucrase = ?
8. Pepsin = ?
10. Lactase = ?
9. Amylase = ?
- Stomach
- Mouth
- Duodenum
- Stomach
- Small Intestine
- Duodenum
- Small Intestine
- Stomach
- Duodenum
- Small Intestine
11.7. 1. What enzyme starts the digestion of proteins in the stomach?
a) Pepsin
b) Trypsin
c) Maltase
d) Hydrochloric acid
A pepsin- a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins
Trypsin-enzyme found in sm intes to aid digestion
Maltaze- salivary enzyme
11.7. 2. What is the function of the oesophagus?
a) To carry food from the small intestine to the large intestine
b) To carry food from the stomach to the small intestine
c) To carry food from the pharynx to the stomach
d) To carry food from the mouth to the pharynx
C
11.7. 3. What controls the entry of food into the stomach?
a) Internal sphincter
b) Pyloric sphincter
c) External sphincter
d) Cardiac sphincter
D aka esophageal sphincter
11.7. 4. What is the first organ of digestion?
a) Liver
b) Gall bladder
c) Oesophagus
d) Stomach
C
11.7. 5. What is the length of the large intestine?
a) 1.5 m
b) 7 m
c) 8 m
d) 2 m
A
11.7. 6. What is the function of lipase?
a) To commence the digestion of protein
b) To emulsify fats
c) To convert lipids into glycerol and fatty acids
d) To convert monosaccharides into disaccharides
C
11.7. 7. Where is the pancreas located?
a) Above the stomach
b) Behind the stomach
c) Below the stomach
d) In front of the stomach
B
11.7. 8. Which one of the following substances is stored in the liver?
a) Glucose
b) Uric acid
c) Amino acids
d) Iron
D
- Which one of the following is not part of the large intestine?
a) Caecum
b) Ileum
c) Appendix
d) Colon
B
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum is the name and order of sm intes
11.7.10. What is the function of the gall bladder?
a) To store bile
b) To produce heat
c) To produce enzymes for digestion
d) To metabolise protein
A
11.7. 11. What is the main cause of ulcers?
a) Excess acid
b) Excess bile
c) Excess gas
d) Excess protein
A
11.7. 12. Crohn’s disease occurs in the;
a) Oesophagus
b) Duodenum
c) Stomach
d) Small intestine
D
11.7. 13. What enzyme is involved with protein digestion?
a) Lipase
b) Trypsin
c) Amylase
d) Bile
B trypsin- protien breakdown
Lipase- breaks down fats
Amylase- breaks down carbs
Bile- breaks down fats
11.7. 14. What is the function of bile?
a) To convert glycogen into glucose
b) To remove toxins from harmful waste
c) To convert polypeptides into pepsin
d) To emulsify fats
D
11.7. 15. Which one of the following vitamins is not stored in the liver?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin C
D vitamin c cannot be stored in the body
11.7. 16. What is enteritis?
a) Inflammation of the pancreas
b) Inflammation of the intestine
c) Inflammation of the lining of the digestive tract
d) Inflammation of the lining of the colon
B
A is pancreatitis
C is gastritis
D colitis
11.7. 17. Fats and glycerol pass into;
a) Duodenum
b) Lacteals
c) Blood vessels
d) Intestines
B lacteals- lymphatic vessels of the sm intes which absorb digested fats
11.7. 18. What is the order of the sections of the small intestine?
a) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum
b) Ileum, duodenum, jejunum
c) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
d) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
D
11.7. 19. Amino acids are;
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Vitamins
d) Fats
A
11.7. 20. Which one of the following is a type of digestion?
a) Assimilation
b) Solid
c) Chemical
d) Enzyme
C
11.7. 21. Where can villi be found?
a) Small intestine
b) Stomach
c) Duodenum
d) Pancreas
A
11.7. 22. Where does peristalsis occur?
a) In the larynx
b) In the alimentary tract
c) In the lungs
d) In the gall bladder
B alimentary tract- digestive tract
Peristalsis- involuntary contractions and relaxation of the muscles in intestines
11.7. 23. Which one of the following is not a salivary gland?
a) Subtrochlear
b) Sublingual
c) Parotid
d) Submandibular
A
11.7. 24. What is the function of hydrochloric acid?
a) Commences the breakdown of proteins
b) Neutralises germs in food
c) Curdles milk protein
d) Break up large particles of carbohydrates
B
11.7. 25. A chemical catalyst;
a) A hormone
b) An enzyme
c) An emulsifier
d) A cell
B
11.7. 26. What is the bolus?
a) The enzyme found in the mouth which begins the digestion of carbohydrates
b) A chemical catalyst that causes chemical changes in substances
c) Where the main absorption of food takes place
d) The ball of food that leaves the mouth
D
11.7. 27. The chemical digestion of food finishes in the;
a) Large intestine
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Duodenum
C
11.7. 28. What is the length of the small intestine?
a) 3 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 6 m
d) 7 m
D
11.7. 29. What is the thick alkaline fluid produced in the liver?
a) Glucose
b) Amylase
c) Bile
d) Plasma
C
11.7. 30. What is the largest gland in the body?
a) Liver
b) Gall bladder
c) Submandibular
d) Pancreas
A
11.7. 31. What is the term used to describe inflammation of the gums?
a) Gall stones
b) Appendicitis
c) Gingivitis
d) Colitis
C
11.7. 32. What part of the alimentary tract is mainly involved with the elimination of waste products?
a) Oesophagus
b) Gall bladder
c) Pancreas
d) Large intestine
D
11.7. 33. What type of cells are found in the liver?
a) Hepatocytes
b) Osteoblasts
c) Fibroblasts
d) Histioblasts
A
11.7. 34. Which one of the following is not an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a) Liver
b) Duodenum
c) Gall bladder
d) Pancreas
B
11.7. 35. What are the end products of protein digestion?
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Amino acids
d) Glycerol
C
11.7. 36. Cirrhosis most commonly affects what organ?
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Large intestine
d) Pancreas
A
11.7. 37. What is the first part of the small intestine?
a) Duodenum
b) Ileum
c) Pancreatic duct
d) Jejunum
A
11.7. 38. What substance is not found in gastric juice?
a) Rennin
b) Pepsin
c) Trypsin
d) Hydrochloric acid
A renin is found in the kidneys
11.7. 39. Which one of the following enzymes is not involved in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a) Maltase
b) Lipase
c) Lactase
d) Sucrase
B
11.7. 40. What enzyme begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth?
a) Lactase
b) Amylase
c) Maltase
d) Disaccharides
B
8.1. 1. The peripheral nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord
True or False
False the cns consists of the brain and spinal cord peripheral is the nerves of the body.
8.1. 2. Neurones conduct nerve impulses
True or False
True
8.1. 3. The myelin sheath is a fatty substance surrounding the synapse
True or False
False surround the axon
8.1. 4. The dura mater is the outer protective layer of the meninges
True or False
True
8.1. 5. Motor nerves are also known as efferent nerves
True or False
True
8.1. 6. The cardiac centre is found in the medulla oblongata
True or False
True
8.1. 7. There are 12 pairs of cervical nerves
True or False
False cranial nerves
8.1. 8. Neurons produce acetylcholine
True or False
True
8.1. 9. The sympathetic nervous system slows down the heart rate
True or False
False increases hr.
8.1. 10. The sacral plexus supply the muscles and skin of the shoulder and upper chest
True or False
False
8.1. 11. The hypothalamus regulates hunger and thirst
True or False
True
8.1. 12. The midbrain is part of the brain stem
True or False
True
8.1.13. The cerebellum is responsible for controlling decision making
True or False
False the cerebellum is responsible for coordinating movement and balance.
8.1. 14. Nodes of ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath along the length of the axon
True or False
True
8.1. 15. The axon is responsible for supporting and protecting the neurons T/F
False axon is the tail of the neuron
8.1. 16. Cerebrospinal fluid forms a cushion between the spinal and cranial nerves
True or False
False between spinal cord and vertebrae
8.1. 17. A reflex action requires only an afferent neurone for a movement to take place
True or False
False needs both afferent and efferent
8.1. 18. The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain
True or False
True
8.1. 19. The outer layer of the cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex
True or False
True
8.1. 20. There are 12 pairs of spinal nerves
True or False
False cranial nerves
8.1. 21. The parasympathetic nervous system prepares the body for stressful or emergency situations
True or False
False sympathetic
8.1.22. The cervical plexus supplies the muscles of the head and neck
True or False
True
8.1. 23. The cerebrum regulates memory
True or False
True
8.1. 24. The 4 lobes of the cerebellum include frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital
True or False
False cerebrum include frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital
Cerebellum the anterior lobe, the posterior lobe and the flocculonodular lobe
8.1. 25. The medulla oblongata is known as the vital centre of the brain
True or False
True
8.1. 26. The spinal cord transmits messages to and from the brain
True or False
True
8.1. 27. Grey matter is found on the outside of the spinal cord and inside the brain
True or False
False outside brain inside spinal cord
8.1. 28. The cell body is found in the centre of the neuroglia
True or False
False the soma
8.1. 29. Neuroglia help to provide support and protection for the neurones
True or False
True
8.1. 30. Mixed neurones contain sensory and motor nerves
True or False
True
8.1. 31. Dendrites transmit nerve impulses towards the cell body
True or False
True
8.1. 32. The somatic nervous system is controlled by the hypothalamus
True or False
false autonomic nervous system
8.1. 33. The peripheral nervous system is divided into the somatic and autonomic nervous systems
True or False
True
8.1. 34. The brain stem consists of the pons varolii, midbrain and the medulla oblongata
True or False
True
8.1. 35. The pons varolii maintains the balance and equilibrium of the body
True or False
False
8.1. 36. Neurilemma is a membrane which surrounds the axon and is found in the brain and spinal cord
True or False
False myelin
8.1. 37. Multiple sclerosis occurs when the protective myelin sheath is destroyed
True or False
True
8.1. 38. Facial paralysis is the result of bell’s palsy
True or False
True
8.1. 39. The hypothalamus controls the actions of the heart and lungs
True or False
False medulla oblongata
8.1. 40. The olfactory nerve is a sensory nerve of smell
True or False
True
8.7. 1. Which one of the following is not a type of neurone?
a) Afferent
b) Motor
c) Mixed
d) Axon
D
8.7. 2. How many pairs of cranial nerves does the somatic nervous system contain?
a) 12
b) 17
c) 31
d) 28
A
8.7. 3. Which one of the following is not a lobe of the cerebrum?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Occipital
d) Lacrimal
D
8.7. 4. Which one of the following is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system?
a) Increases heart rate
b) Decreases breathing rate
c) Increases the volume of circulating blood
d) Vasodilation of skeletal blood vessels
B
8.7. 5. Where is the mitochondria found in a nerve cell?
a) Cell body
b) Axon
c) Nucleus
d) Nodes of ranvier
A
8.7. 6. What part of the brain regulates the pituitary gland?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Pons varolii
c) Cerebellum
d) Midbrain
A
8.7. 7. What plexus supplies the pelvic area?
a) Lumbar
b) Brachial
c) Sacral
d) Thoracic
C
8.7. 8. What part of the brain is found at the back of the cranium?
a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Pons varolii
A
8.7. 9. Which one of the following is the inner layer of the meninges?
a) Dura
b) Pia
c) Associated
d) Arachnoid
B
8.7. 10. What is the function of the spinal cord?
a) It transmits impulses to and from the brain
b) It transmits impulses away from the brain
c) It transmits impulses to all parts of the body
d) It transmits impulses to the nerves of the body
A
8.7. 11. What disease of the nervous system affects motor system control?
a) Cerebral palsy
b) Sciatica
c) Bell’s palsy
d) Meningitis
A
8.7. 12. What part of the nerve fibre contains important organelles?
a) Neurilemma
b) Cell body
c) Nodes of ranvier
d) Axon
B
8.7. 13. What substance is found on the inside of the brain?
a) White matter
b) Unmyelinated sheath
c) Endothelial cells
d) Grey matter
A
8.7. 14. Efferent nerves are another term for;
a) Sensory
b) Afferent
c) Motor
d) Mixed
C
8.7. 15. What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid?
a) To transmit messages to the spinal cord
b) To supply the brain with oxygen
c) To supply nerve impulses to the diaphragm instructing it to contract
d) It carries waste substances away from the nerve tissue
D
8.7. 16. What part of the neurone transmits impulses away from the cell body?
a) Myelin sheath
b) Axon
c) Dendrites
d) Synapse
B
8.7. 17. What is the outer layer of the cerebrum called?
a) Dura mater
b) Corpus callosum
c) Cerebral cortex
d) Midbrain
C
8.7. 18. What part of the brain regulates the autonomic nervous system?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Midbrain
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Cerebellum
A
8.7. 19. What part of the brain controls mental activity?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum
d) Cerebrum
D
8.7. 20. The point at which nerve impulses pass from one neurone to the next;
a) Dendrites
b) Nodes of ranvier
c) Axon
d) Synapse
D
8.7. 21. Which one of the following is not part of the brain stem?
a) Midbrain
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Hypothalamus
d) Pons varolii
C
8.7. 22. What part of the brain controls vomiting and coughing?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum
d) Cerebrum
B
8.7. 23. What part of the nervous system do the meninges not protect?
a) Sympathetic
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Pons varolii
d) Cerebellum
A
8.7. 24. Which one of the following is not a cranial nerve of the eye?
a) Oculomotor
b) Trochlear
c) Optic
d) Olfactory
D
8.7. 25. Which one of the following is a continuation of the spinal cord?
a) Midbrain
b) Pons varolii
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
C
8.7. 26. What is the function of the midbrain?
a) It controls the action of the heart
b) It controls voluntary movements
c) It controls the muscle tone of the body
d) It controls visual and auditory systems
D
8.7. 27. What type of neurones stimulates muscles to produce movement?
a) Sensory
b) Axon
c) Afferent
d) Motor
D
8.7. 28. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
a) 12
b) 7
c) 5
d) 8
C
8.7. 29. What is the function of dendrites?
a) To protect the axon
b) Transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body
c) Transmit impulses from the spinal cord to the brain
d) Transmit nerve impulses towards the cell body
D
8.7. 30. Glial cells are another term for;
a) Nodes of ranvier
b) Neurones
c) Neuroglia
d) Neurilemma
C
8.7. 31. What is the corpus callosum?
a) Nerve fibres bridging the hemispheres of the cerebellum
b) Nerve fibres bridging the hemispheres of the cerebrum
c) Nerve fibres bridging the hemispheres of the medulla oblongata
d) Nerve fibres bridging the hemispheres of the hypothalamus
B
8.7. 32. Which one of the following is not controlled by the hypothalamus?
a) Appetite
b) Regulation of body temperature
c) Voluntary movements
d) Sleep patterns
C
8.7. 33. Which one of the following is part of the brain stem?
a) Pons varolii
b) Hypothalamus
c) Cerebral cortex
d) Cerebellum
A
8.7. 34. What part of the nerve cell accelerates the rate at which messages are transmitted?
a) Dendrites
b) Axon
c) Myelin sheath
d) Synapse
C
8.7. 35. What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
a) To control swallowing
b) To control memory
c) To control voluntary movement
d) To control appetite
A
8.7. 36. What is the function of neurones?
a) To conduct electrical and chemical impulses throughout the nervous system
b) To conduct sensory stimuli across the axon terminal
c) To transmit impulses to and from the peripheral nervous system
d) To carry messages across the corpus callosum
A
8.7. 37. What nervous system supplies impulses to smooth muscle?
a) Somatic
b) Autonomic
c) Central
d) Nervous
B
8.7. 38. Which one of the following is not controlled by the cerebellum?
a) Balance
b) Muscle tone
c) Co-ordination of skeletal muscles
d) Dilation of blood vessels
D
8.7. 39. What layer of the meninges is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
a) Pia
b) Arachnoid
c) Dura
d) Fibrous
B
8.7. 40. The point at which impulses pass from one neurone to the next;
a) Axon terminals
b) Synapse
c) Neurilemma
d) Dendrites
B
