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Spring 2015 > HUEC MGT - Exam #1 > Flashcards

HUEC MGT - Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the various management roles of dietetics practitioners?

A
  • Foodservice ;
  • Clinical;
  • Community/Public Health ;
  • Other Sectors
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2
Q

What are some expectations of dietitians as managers?

A
  • Educated and unique;
  • Management positions;
  • Skills to manage successfully;
  • Organizational dynamics
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3
Q

Why might a dietician want to be a manager?

A
  • Financial $;
  • Challenge(growth/stimulation);
  • Control of work ( make schedules)
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4
Q

What is a Registered Dietician?

A

-RD or RDN;
-“Successfully completed registration requirements established by Commission on Dietetic Registration for Registered Dietitian”;
Requirements =
-Education;
-Supervised practice;
-Examination;
-Continuing Education;
-COMING…. Require MS for entry-level practice

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5
Q

What is a Dietetic Technician?

A 
-DTR;
“Successfully completed registration requirements established by the Commission on Dietetic Registration for Dietetic Technicians”;
Requirements = 
-Education;
-Supervised Practice;
-Examination;
Continuing Education
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6
Q

What are the components of Management?

A
  • PLANNING;
  • ORGANIZING;
  • DIRECTING;
  • CONTROLING;
  • EVALUATING
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7
Q

What are the CLINICAL Nutrition Management Positions?

A
  • Only dietitian
    1. Clinical nutrition manager
    2. Chief clinical dietitian
    3. Registered dietitian supervisor
    4. Patient services director
    5. Clinical dietitian
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8
Q

What does the Clinical Nutrition Manager manage?

A 
MANAGES…
-Nutrition care of patients/clients;
-Screening, assessment;
-Nutrition support;
-Other interventions
SUPERVISES…
- Clinical dietitians → MNT;
-Diet technicians;
-Diet clerks
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9
Q

What is a Chief Clinical Dietician?

A
  • SOME direct patient care;
  • Manages staff;
  • Coordinate w/ FOODSERVICE
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10
Q

What is a Patient Services Manager?

A
  • Management position;
  • Manages foodservice for patients = Trayline, Floor stock, snacks;
  • Coordinates w/ clinical staff = Chief clinical RDN
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11
Q

What is a Clinical Dietician?

A

-Manages diet technician;
-Project manager (diet manual);
-Develops protocols;
-Staff relief;
Team member
**Patient Care!!

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12
Q

What are the RD management roles in public health?

A
  1. Public health nutritionist;

2. Community nutritionist/dietitian

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13
Q

What is Public Health Nutrition?

A
  • Advanced degree in public health nutrition;

- Populations rather than individuals

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14
Q

What is involved in AGENCY MGT of public health?

A

EX: Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, Children (WIC);

  • Agency Site Manager…
    1. Assess, plan, implement, evaluate agency;
    2. Multiple sites (WIC x 5);
    3. Congregate Meals on Wheels;
    4. RDNs who provide direct Pt services
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15
Q

What is Community Nutritionist/Dietitian?

A

-May not have an advanced degree;
-Typically do not manage entire programs;
-May manage a site;
-Major focus = individual client or group of clients in the community setting;
-Gives DIRECT care to clients;
-Community Site Management
— 1 or 2 individual sites where programs and services are offered = EX: particular WIC site, health unit, EFNEP, Snap-Ed;
— Responsible for operation of the sites, supervision of support staff + provide nutritional services to patients.

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16
Q

What are the different types of foodservice?

A
  1. Commercial;

2. On-site = Self-operated or Contract management

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17
Q

What are the components of COMMERCIAL Foodservice?

A
  • Retail;
  • Profit;
  • Customers = choices
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18
Q

What are types of commercial foodservice?

A
  1. Restaurants = Fine Dining, Fast-casual, Quick-service;
  2. Convenience Stores;
  3. Supermarkets;
  4. Food Courts;
  5. Mobile Food Vendors
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19
Q

What are some job opportunities in Commercial Foodservice in restaurants/ grocery for RD’s?

A

**CONSULTANT RDNs =
-New industry concerns…
-HFCS?;
-Gluten-free?;
-Trans Fats?;
-Food Safety
→ RDS Provide…
— Menu development;
— Nutrient analysis;
— Education

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20
Q

What are the components of ONSITE Foodservice?

A

(NONCOMMERCIAL);

  • Feed those who work, reside, attend;
  • May have LIMITED choices;
  • May be subsidized;
  • Not profit…but this is changing rapidly;
  • Hospitals, nursing homes, schools, prisons, military, business campus, senior citizens, day cares
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21
Q

What are the types of ONSITE Foodservice?

A
  1. Self-Operated;

2. Contract Management

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22
Q

What are some job opportunities in ONSITE Foodservice in large operations for RD’s?

A
  1. Upward Mobility
  2. Multiple departments
  3. Administrative positions
    — Nutrition
    — Housekeeping
    — Linen
    — Lab
    — Maintenance
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23
Q

What are the new trends of ONSITE Foodservice?

A
  • Moved closer to commercial;
  • Smaller “captive” customer base;
  • Increasingly, profit motive;
  • Commercial FS move in and compete
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24
Q

What is Self-Operated foodservice (ONSITE)?

A
  • The organization that receives the service owns and operates the foodservice;
  • RDN title may be “Director of Nutrition Services”;
  • RDN manager + all employees work for the facility itself;
  • Independent;
  • One-of-a kind operation
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25
Q

Self-Operated Advantages

A
  • Responsive to needs;

- Ability to be creative

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26
Q

Self-Operated Disadvantages

A
  • High food costs;

- Develop menus, recipes, etc. from scratch

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27
Q

What is a Contract Management Company (ONSITE)?

A
  • Organizations that provide foodservice to other organizations or institutions;
  • Employ many dietitians;
  • Clinical RDNs, Management RDNs;
  • Contract company offers whatever services are needed;
  • Differs at every facility; contracts vary
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28
Q

What is UNDER Contract Management (ONSITE)?

A
  • Onsite FS is operated by a FS management company;
  • EX: Sodexo, Aramark, Chartwells, or Compass Group;
  • Company is hired by the business or institution for this purpose;
  • Contractor may employ only management team OR all employees
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29
Q

Contract Management Advantages

A
  • Resources: menus, recipes, etc.;
  • Lower food costs (greater purchasing power);
  • Standardized services to multiple sites
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30
Q

Contract Management Disadvantages

A
  • Managers = 22 reporting relationships;
  • LOTS of paperwork;
  • Standardized foodservice NOT very unique
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31
Q

What are the recent foodservice trends?

A
  1. Changing school foodservice;
  2. Quick-Service;
  3. Fresh, organic, locally grown → (sustainability);
  4. Strategies to deal with obesity epidemic → (nutrition & health);
  5. Fusion of ethnic cuisines (like blending Asian and Latin culinary traditions into signature dishes);
  6. Increased use of trained chefs/culinary professionals in onsite operations;
  7. Service management, customer satisfaction;
  8. Innovative meal delivery systems (room service)in health care foodservices;
  9. Upscale catering (large events, home use on special occasions, holiday)
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32
Q

What is changing about school foodservice?

A
  • *Nutrient Standard Menu Planning;
    1. National School Lunch Program
    2. Breakfast Program
    3. Uniquely qualified
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33
Q

What is the role of a CONSULTANT?

A
  • Product development;
  • Menu development;
  • Recipe development;
  • Nutrition analysis;
  • Sales;
  • Food Safety
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34
Q

What might be the role of a DIRECTOR?

A
  • 75 bed nursing facility;

- n 50/100 district schools = thousands of meals

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35
Q

What is the role of manager?

A
  • Purchasing;
  • Production;
  • Service;
  • Food Safety
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36
Q

What are other possible management roles for RDs?

A
  • Entrepreneur in Private Practice;
  • Business Owner;
  • Industry;
  • Education;
  • Volunteer;
  • **pro bon
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37
Q

Dietician jobs in Private Practice?

A
  1. Counseling;
  2. Consultant = Clinical - Hospice; Education – food safety;
  3. Contractor = Screening at workplace setting, Teach food preparation, Writing for publication
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38
Q

What are the mgt roles in Private Practice?

A
  • Information management;
  • Financial management;
  • Human resources management
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39
Q

Dietitians as business owners/entrepreneurs

A
  1. Computer software;
  2. Home nutrition care;
  3. Commercial food manufacturing;
  4. Initial investment larger;
  5. Plan, organize, lead, control, staff
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40
Q

Dietitians in the food industry?

A
  1. Food, foodservice, nutrition related product;
  2. Product development…NABISCO;
  3. Food manufacturers;
  4. Food equipment and distributors;
  5. Pharmaceutical
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41
Q

Dietitians in Education?

A
  1. College, university → Advanced degree;

2. Manage dietetic programs = Didactic program in dietetics (DPD) or Internship

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42
Q

Dietitians as Volunteers?

A
  1. Professional → Academy of Nutrition &Dietetics;
  2. Non-profit community → Food Bank;
  3. Government (EX: fema);
  4. Non-profit → Red Cross
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43
Q

What are some examples of upward mobility in dietetics management?

A
  • Multiple departments;
  • Upper management;
  • Hospital administration;
  • Public Health;
  • Contract management company;
  • Sales/marketing;
  • Education;
  • Nutrition policy → State or Federal government
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44
Q

What are the main characteristics of dietitians in management roles?

A
  • Variety…management positions;
  • Opportunities → increasing;
  • Full-time or part-time;
  • Management skills;
  • Dietitians are uniquely prepared;
  • Management leads to upward mobility
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45
Q

Ethics is the struggle between….

A
  • “Right & Wrong”;
  • “Moral & Immoral”;
  • “Just & Unjust”
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46
Q

What is Ethics?

A

(Several definitions)

  1. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgment.;
    - 2. The study of the general nature of morals and of the specific moral choices to be made by a person.
    * *3. The rules or standards governing the conduct of a person or the members of a profession. → Applies to AND Code of Ethics
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47
Q

What is the AND Code of Ethics?

A
  • Set of rules for practitioner behavior;
  • Statement of behavioral norms for a profession;
  • Can help practitioners work through an ethical practice dilemma or issue;
  • Can help build public trust in the activities of a profession
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48
Q

What are the types of codes?

A
  1. Aspirational → Hippocratic Oath;
  2. Educational → Student Honor Code – academic integrity ;
  3. Regulatory → Police Officer’s Code of Conduct = used to settle grievances and are enforced by applying and monitoring sanctions
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49
Q

What is the Code of Ethics intended to do?

A
  • Protect the profession and the credential;
  • Influence public and private policy;
  • Improve professional practice;
  • Educate dietetics practitioners about ethical decision making;
  • Meet the guidelines of the accrediting agency for the;
  • Commission on Dietetic Registration
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50
Q

What is the FOCUS of the Code of Ethics?

A
  • Education;
  • Remediation;
  • Self Regulation
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51
Q

How does the Code fit with other Academy and CDR initiatives?

A

The Standards of Professional Practice + Professional Development Portfolio → Lifelong Learning and Professional Enhancement

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52
Q

What is the History of the Academy/CDR Code?

A
  • 1934 – 1st Report presented to members.;
  • 1982 – 1st Code adopted. Enforced 1985;
  • 1987 – 2nd Code adopted. Enforced 1987.;
  • 1998 – 3rd revised Code adopted by HOD in fall.;
  • 1999 – Revised Code published January.;
  • 2007 – New Task Force formed to review and revise the 1999 Code.;
  • 2009 – Revised Code approved by HOD, BOD and CDR
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53
Q

When was the AND Code Effective?

A
  • All Academy members → credentialed or non-credentialed;
  • All CDR credentialed practitioners → RD/RDN, DTR;
  • Agree to abide by the Code
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54
Q

What are the Tools and Resources for the Code of Ethics?

A
  • Ethics Committee;
  • Ethics Team at Headquarters;
  • Ethics For Further Reading List;
  • FNCE sessions;
  • Ethics Opinions;
  • Ethics in Action columns;
  • Ethics Video Series
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55
Q

What are the Five Categories within the Code of Ethics?

A
  1. Fundamental Principles
  2. Responsibilities to the Public
  3. Responsibilities to Clients
  4. Responsibilities to the Profession
  5. Responsibilities to Colleagues and Other Professionals
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56
Q

How many principles are within the Code of Ethics?

A

Nineteen Principles – common “values” we share in our individual definitions of “professional ethics”

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57
Q

What are the FUNDAMENTAL Principles (Section 1)?

A

Be true to your people!
1. Honesty, integrity, fairness;
2. High standards of professional practice
— Obligation to protect clients, public, profession
— Upholding the Code
— Reporting perceived violations of the Code

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58
Q

What are the Responsibilities to the PUBLIC (Section 2)?

A
  1. Considers health, safety, welfare of public;
  2. Complies with all laws, regulations;
  3. Provides professional services objectivity, respect for individual;
  4. No misleading practices or communication;
  5. Withdraws from professional practice when unable…professional duties/responsibilities
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59
Q

What are the Responsibilities to the CLIENT (Section 3)?

A
  1. Judgment within the limits of his/her qualifications…collaborates
  2. Treats clients/patients with respect
  3. Protects confidential information…full disclosure
  4. Principles 3-7 (same as for the public above)
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60
Q

What are the Responsibilities to the PROFESSION (Section 4)?

A
  1. Practices based on evidence-based principles
  2. No personal bias
  3. Life-long responsibility/accountability for competence
  4. Alert to conflict of interest
  5. Permits use of name only if services are provided
  6. Accurate presents qualifications/credentials
  7. No gifts, money, considerations that affect professional judgment
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61
Q

What are the Responsibilities to the COLLEAGUES/PROFESSIONALS (Section 5)?

A
  1. Demonstrates respect for values, rights, knowledge, skills of colleagues, other professionals
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62
Q

What are the stages of the Ethics Process?

A
  1. Committee
  2. Opinions
  3. Cases
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63
Q

What is stated in the Preamble of the Code of Ethics?

A
  • Fair resolution of disputes;
  • Protects right;
  • Promotes understanding and ethical practice;
  • Authority, flexibility to determine best way to resolve
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64
Q

What is the FIRST step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. COMPLAINT =
    - Submitted in writing on form
    - Within one (1) year
    - Need not be practitioner or credentialed
    - Details of complaint
    - Cite sections(s) violated
    - Signed and sworn by complainant
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65
Q

What is the SECOND step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. PRELIMINARY REVIEW
    - Review for meeting requirements
    - Review for ethics question involved
    - Will not process if similar complaint already under consideration (will not start a new case until a prior one is closed or will handle them simultaneously)
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66
Q

What is the THIRD step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. RESPONSE
    - Notify respondent
    - Certified mail, return-receipt
    - Copy of complaint
    - Thirty (30) days to respond
    - Response signed, sworn; may copy complainant
    - Contact by phone
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67
Q

What is the FOURTH step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. COMMITTEE REVIEW
    - Dismiss complaint
    - Request further information
    - Resolve through education
    - Hearing
    - Expert review
    - Decision notification
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68
Q

What is the FIFTH step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. LICENSURE, FINAL, ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION;

- Disciplinary action without hearing

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69
Q

What is the SIXTH step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. HEARING
    - All parties right to appear, present witnesses & evidence
    - Affirmative vote of 2/3 required to reach decision
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70
Q

What is the SEVENTH step in Enforcement of the Code?

A
  1. DECISION
    1) Acquit
    2) Education
    3) Censure, probation, suspension, expulsion from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics
    4) Credential suspended, revoked by CDR
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71
Q

What are the possible disciplinary actions?

A
  1. Probation;
  2. Suspension;
  3. Suspension of Registration;
  4. Revocation of Credential
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72
Q

What are the possible Notification of Adverse Action?

A
  • Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics;
  • CDR;
  • State and district associations;
  • Licensure boards;
  • Government;
  • Private bodies;
  • Within 30 days
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73
Q

What are the first steps in working through an ethical issue?

A

→ Start with a series of simple questions =

  • Legal, regulatory, or ethical issue?
  • Employer policy issue?
  • Personal issue?
  • Business dispute?
  • Academy/CDR member issue?
  • If violation of the Code violation-cite principle violated
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74
Q

How is the Academy’s Legal Counsel utilized?

A
  • Attends all meetings of Ethics Committee;
  • Reviews files and correspondence;
  • Provides counsel as to legal implications of decisions, actions
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75
Q

What is an organization?

A
  • Systematic arrangement of people to accomplish a specific purpose;
  • EX: Hospital, restaurant, government, church, sports team, family
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76
Q

What are the 3 main components of an organization?

A
  1. People → Managers, workers
  2. Structure → Framework
  3. Purpose → Driving mission, philosophy, goals
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77
Q

What is makes for good organizational structure?

A

Responsibility must be divided in order to function smoothly.

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78
Q

What are Lines of Authority?

A

-The VERTICAL relationships within an organization → chain of command;
— CEO → COO → VP-Support Services → Director, Food and Nutrition
→ Assist. Director Patient services → Chief Clinical Dietician → Dietetic Tech → Foodservice Worker

79
Q

What 5 elements determine structural framework?

A
  • Hierarchy
  • Span of Control
  • Line/staff relationships
  • Centralization and/or decentralization
  • Departmentalization
80
Q

What is Hierarchy?

A
81
Q

What is Chain of Command?

A

– *vertical relationships; *based on authority and power

82
Q

What are Line Managers?

A

Reporting upward and downward, vertical

83
Q

Who are the Operative employees?

A

Does the WORK or produces the product; also called a worker.

84
Q

What is Management?

A

Planning, organizing, leading, controlling the use of resources to achieve objectives

85
Q

What are Mangers?

A
  • Oversee direct the work of others;

- Frontline, Middle Top-Level

86
Q

What are Frontline Mangers?

A
  • Oversee employees responsible for production (Operatives);
  • Work closest w/ customer;
  • Skill set = Technical, Human relations, Some conceptual
87
Q

What are Middle Managers?

A
  • Above frontline; Subordinate to top-level managers;
  • Oversee several groups of workers & their supervisors;
  • Skill set = Technical = conceptual, Human relations
88
Q

What are Top-Level Managers?

A

– Large segments; Does NOT direct production;

-Skill set = Conceptual, Human relations, Some technical

89
Q

What is Span of Control?

A
  • Measure of influence; number of people reporting to manager;
  • Manager influence and control over all subordinates!
90
Q

What are Staff Managers?

A
  • Oversee supportive departments or groups;
  • Report laterally, not vertically;
  • Functions transcend departments, whole impact
91
Q

What is Centralization?

A
  • The concentration of decision making & power at the upper levels of an organization;
  • Information flows upward, decisions are made, & decisions flow downward to be implemented.;
  • Information can become distorted & move slowly
92
Q

What is Decentralization?

A
  • The ability for individuals at lower levels of an organization to make decisions appropriate to their own areas of responsibility;
  • Current trend;
  • More responsive to customers
93
Q

What is Departmentalization?

A 
Specialization of groups;
-Group like activities:
oProduct
oFunction
oClients
oLocation
oWork processes
94
Q

How do you deal with problems?

A
  • Total quality management (TQM);

- Dual-reporting model (matrix management)

95
Q

What is the Organization Chart?

A

-Graphic representation of structure:
-This “map” allows visualization of:
oRelationships
oNumber of levels
oThe way work is divided
oSpan of control
- The graph does NOT depict the division of labor

96
Q

What is a Mission Statement?

A

Philosophy or Purpose…

  • Organizational culture
  • Internal congruity
97
Q

Why are missions Written?

A
  • Accessible;
  • Familiar ;
  • Useful
98
Q

What is Organizational Culture?

A
  • Pattern of shared basic assumptions;

- “Personality” of an organization

99
Q

What is determined by the Organizational Culture?

A
  • Actions & views of the job;

- How things are done

100
Q

What is Member Identity?

A

→ ID with organization vs. job

101
Q

What is Group Emphasis?

A

→ Work organized by groups

102
Q

What is People Focus?

A

→ Decisions consider people

103
Q

What is Unit Integration?

A

→ Unit coordination or independence

104
Q

What is Control?

A

→ Rules control employee behavior

105
Q

What is Risk Tolerance?

A

→ Innovation and risks encouraged

106
Q

What is Reward Criteria?

A

→ Pay increase and promotion based on performance

107
Q

What is Conflict Tolerance?

A

→ Conflict and criticism discussed openly

108
Q

What is Means-End Orientation?

A

→ Outcomes focus (rather than process)

109
Q

What are Open-Sytems?

A

→ Monitors and responds to environment

110
Q

What is Internal Congruity?

A

Consistency within an organization that unifies the whole; Working together to achieve an organization’s overall purpose

111
Q

How is an Organization a System?

A

INPUTS → Transformation → OUTPUTS

112
Q

What are the INPUTS?

A
  • Labor
  • Food Equipment
  • Information
  • Health/Nutrition
  • Assessment Data
  • Wants/Needs of Target Population
113
Q

What are Transformations?

A
  • Procurement
  • Production
  • Nutrition Assessment, Dx, & Intervention
  • Program Planning
114
Q

What is the Systems Approach in Dietetics?

A
  • Adopted in foodservice in late 1960’s
  • Identified subsystems
  • Resulted in foodservice=management
  • Is just as important within clinical and community
115
Q

What are OUTPUTS?

A
  • Goods and services
  • Profit and loss
  • Information
  • Human results
116
Q

What are the skills needed by managers?

A
  • Technical;
  • Human;
  • Conceptual
117
Q

What are Technical Skills?

A

Gained through education and experience → Production work

118
Q

What are Human Skills?

A

Personal attributes, knowledge, learned behavior → Work effectively and communicate with others

119
Q

What are Conceptual Skills?

A

Working with abstract ideas and concepts…ability to see long term goals

120
Q

What are functions of Management?

A
  • Planning;
  • Organizing;
  • Leading;
  • Controlling
121
Q

Planning

A
  • Determine the mission, setting goals, outlining a blueprint for action;
  • Gives workers a sense of purpose;
  • Plans need to be clear and accessible to all workers
122
Q

Organizing

A
  • The process of establishing a systematic way of dealing;
  • Delegating who does what and how they do it;
  • Production schedules, policies, procedures;
  • Dynamic!
123
Q

Leading

A
  • Direction and coordination of activities of workers;

- Motivating managing, communicating, resolving problems

124
Q

Controlling

A
  • Checking to see if plans are being carried out and goals are being met;
  • Measured by seeing how things are being followed — outcomes;
  • Inspecting what has been done
125
Q

Short-Term Planning

A
  • Days, weeks, months
  • Up to 1 year
  • Process goals -support long term
  • EX: Budget
126
Q

Long-Term Planning

A
  • 3-5 years;
  • Stated in terms of outcome goals
  • Ex: Acquiring more patients over time
127
Q

Strategic Planning

A
  • Not short or long
  • More global in nature
  • Aligned with mission statement
  • Empowering members to be the nation’s food and nutrition leaders
128
Q

What is Organizing?

A

Establishing orderly, systematic methods, step by step

129
Q

What is Leading?

A

Directing, motivating, coordinating staff activities

130
Q

What is Controlling?

A

Ensuring that standards are met, monitoring, follow-up, performance measurement

131
Q

What are the criteria for outcome?

A
  • Efficient;
  • Effective;
  • Adequate;
  • Appropriate
132
Q

Efficient

A

Doing more with less; Resource utilization

133
Q

Effective

A

Meeting defined goals and objectives

134
Q

Adequate

A

Doing things in the correct amount

135
Q

Appropriate

A

Ability to adapt to the environment

136
Q

What are the INTERPERSONAL Roles of Mangers?

A
  1. Figurehead → symbolic, routine
  2. Leader → motivating, activating staff
  3. Liaison → networking in/out; committees
137
Q

What are the INFORMATIONAL Roles of Managers?

A
  1. Monitoring → seeks current information – listserves, reading
  2. Disseminating → passes on relevant information
  3. Acts as Spokesperson → sends information to the outside
138
Q

What are the DECISIONAL Roles of Managers?

A
  1. Entrepreneur → determines when to take risks, make changes, new programs
  2. Disturbance handler → mediates disturbances & problems, handles conflict
  3. Resource allocator → determines how resources will be used
  4. Negotiator → arranges contracts, makes deals
139
Q

What are Managers?

A
  • Effectively manage (plan, organize, and control) finances, production, and purchasing;
  • May NOT be considered effective leaders;
  • Doing things right
  • Administration
  • Maintenance
  • Structure/system
  • Control
  • Direct
  • Strategies
  • Power
140
Q

What are Leaders?

A
  • Good managers; people-oriented;
  • Demonstrate respect, concern, and empathy for employees
  • Doing the right things
  • Innovation
  • Development
  • People
  • Trust
  • Inspire
  • Vision
  • Empowering
141
Q

What are Formal Leaders?

A
  • Manager recognized with position and a title;

- Reflect the individual’s status

142
Q

What are Informal Leaders?

A
  • Exhibits many characteristics of formal leader;
  • Not recognized as leader by organization;
  • Holds no title or authority
143
Q

What are the 6 major Leadership Traits?

A
  • Intelligence
  • Drive
  • Motivation
  • Self-confidence
  • Expertise
  • Integrity
144
Q

Intelligence

A
  • Includes ability to acquire and retain knowledge
  • Ability to respond quickly and successfully to a given situation
  • Not necessarily correlated with educational level
  • Must be complimented with other leadership traits
145
Q

Drive

A
  • Ambition, efforts
  • Risks taken in order to succeed
  • Willingness to take on difficult tasks & implement new ideas
  • Ability to set high standards for themselves and others → Not asking others to do what they are not willing to do
146
Q

Motivation

A
  • Emotion or desire will causing action
  • Personal driving power
  • Incentive, inducement
  • Realization of vision/goal is part of need to lead
  • The need to share that vision with others
  • The use of power for the good of the group
  • The desire to be a leader
147
Q

Integrity

A
  • Reliability
  • Fairness
  • Credibility to others
  • Honesty
  • Trustworthiness
  • Impartiality
148
Q

Self-Confidence

A
  • Having confidence and security in oneself
  • Facilitates decisions, risks, and admit mistakes
  • Maintains composure in the face of negative criticism
  • Demonstrates “grace under pressure” …
  • Can say “I don’t know” …
149
Q

Expertise

A
  • Reflects training and knowledge
  • In specific field
  • At lower management levels, more technical expertise is required
  • At upper management levels, conceptual expertise is required
150
Q

Charisma

A
  • Degree of personal magnetism
  • Ability to attract others
  • Ability to be followed
151
Q

Creativity

A
  • Enables finding solutions
  • New ways to get things done
  • Making, inventing, producing something new
  • Ingenuity
152
Q

Flexibility

A
  • Able to react to change
  • Adapt well
  • Quick judgments and adjustments
  • Adaptive to change
153
Q

What is the Continuum of Leadership?

A
  • Learned and personality
  • Most leaders = variety of styles
  • One style predominates
  • Developed over time
  • Most effective = most comfortable
  • Style is changeable → Education, time, experience, motivation
154
Q

What are the tasks of Leadership?

A
  • Leaders establish vision and set direction
  • Leaders affirm and articulate values
  • Leaders have high standards and high expectations
  • Leaders are accountable
  • Leaders motivate
  • Leaders achieve unity
  • Leaders involve others in decision
  • Leaders serve as role models
  • Leaders listen and explain
  • Leaders represent the organization
  • Leaders guide constituents and maintain their support
155
Q

What are the Leadership Styles?

A
  • Autocratic
  • Participative
  • Democratic
  • Consensus
  • Leaders tend to have a predominant style, but move along this continuum as necessary, depending on the current situation
156
Q

Autocratic Leadership

A

-takes total control
-assumes full authority
-takes full responsibility
-Sometimes equated to the military model
— Advantage – takes very little time to reach a decision
— Disadvantage – limited or no input from others

157
Q

Participative Leadership

A

-Gathers information
-Seeks opinions before taking action
— Advantage – Leaders have a variety of ideas at their disposal; Others feel that they have a meaningful role in the process
— Disadvantage – This process takes considerable time and energy to carry out

158
Q

Democratic Leadership

A
  • “majority rules”
    -decisions made by group
    — Advantage – increases the possibility of making good decisions; Responsibility is shared
    — Disadvantages – The process is very time-consuming; Persons who disagree with the decision may disrupt its implementation
159
Q

Consensus Management

A
  • Tends to evolve but are not able to use that style when newly hired because time is needed for…
  • The multiple decisions which must be made in first days of employment;
  • Establishment of a functional work group;
  • Development of trust between the leader and subordinates
160
Q

What is Transformational Leadership?

A

-Transforms employees from duty orientation to participation (in management process) orientation

161
Q

What is Transforming Leadership?

A

-Prepares the subordinate to take over management functions

162
Q

What are the 4 C’s (conditions) needed in a ALL leadership styles?

A
  1. Capacity;
  2. Communication;
  3. Comprehension;
  4. Consistency
163
Q

What makes Leadership Effective?

A
  1. Thinking of the big picture;
  2. Continue leadership development;
  3. Build a team
164
Q

What is the “Big Picture”?

A
  • Be proactive
  • Be creative
  • Think out of the box
  • Create new possibilities for nutrition services
  • Dare to be different
165
Q

How is leadership development continued?

A
  • Ultimate destination is never reached
  • Attend professional meeting both local and nationwide
  • Update knowledge base
  • Don’t be monotonous
  • Be flexible
166
Q

How is a team built?

A
  • Leaders facilitate shared values that give employees a sense of belonging, innovation and productivity
  • Encourage collaboration and cooperation
  • Use “we” statements
  • Trust your employees
167
Q

What are Self-Managed Teams?

A
  • Work groups that function without a designated manager and involve the team members in decision making and in working together to manage themselves.;
  • Sometimes used during transition periods;
  • Often used for project work
168
Q

Why democratic/consensus managers are not hired

A
  • Necessity for degree of trust
  • Multiple decisions that must be made in first days of employment
  • Transitional period before a functional work group is established
169
Q

What are Project Teams?

A

A type of self-managed team whose duties do not include day-to-day operational issues but, instead, a specific issue for which they are free to set deadlines and processes

170
Q

What is Expert Power?

A
  • Power based on knowledge, experience, or information;
  • A type of power which comes from having knowledge, experience or information in a certain field → It allows the leader to exert influence over subordinates because of having that knowledge
171
Q

What is Referent Power?

A

(Charisma)

  • Power derived from followers’ view of the leader as a leader;
  • A type of power that stems from the relationship between the leader & his/her followers → It is not based on the leader’s position or title, but on the leader’s ability to share a vision
172
Q

What is Legitimate Power?

A
  • Power based on control of resources to compensate individuals for good performance;
  • A type of power that comes from the title or the position held by the leader → It is the factor that differentiates between formal and informal leaders
173
Q

What is Coercive Power?

A

-Power to punish those who perform poorly;
-A type of power managers have to punish, which can be seen in disciplining, suspending, or terminating employees for cause, or in laying off staff when needed.;
-Punishments may include
•Difficult work schedules
•Increased workloads
•Assignment of undesirable tasks
•Discipline, suspension or termination

174
Q

What is Reward Power?

A

-A type of power that comes from the leader’s ability to reward employees;
-Rewards may include
•Material goods
•Money (formal reward = salary increase)
•Gifts
•Praise
•Recognition
•Praise

175
Q

What is Ethical use of power?

A

-Common Good;
-Positive and moral;
EX =
-Equal opportunity;
-Bonuses;
-Safe work environment;
**Integrity becomes critical! → Perception is everything!!!

176
Q

What is Unethical use of power?

A

-Personal Gain;
-Unethical
EX =
-Postage, copier for personal
-Purchasing from relative

177
Q

Question of abuse not always clear…

A
  • Executive parking
  • Personal letters
  • Volunteer work
  • Situational
  • Prudent to avoid appearances of impropriety
178
Q

How are leaders responsible for their power?

A

-Leaders are responsible for using their power responsibly.

179
Q

What is a leader’s social responsibility?

A

-Social responsibility includes establishing trust & making assurances.
EX =
-Physical safety for employees
-Freedom from undue stress
-Compromises between factions
-Volunteerism, environmental awareness, modeling appropriate behaviors, etc.

180
Q

What is Trust?

A

Trust = assured reliance on character, ability, strength, or truth of someone;

  • Good communication
  • Consistency
  • Support
  • Fairness
  • Recognition
  • Flexibility
181
Q

What do great leaders do?

A

(Nick Saban)

  1. Stand up when adversity arises
  2. Allow team to take ownership of rules
  3. Embrace future leaders
  4. Lead orchestra but let them play
  5. Pick battles
  6. Do not rush to make change because of failure
  7. Hire good people
  8. Make tough decisions
  9. Accept responsibility
  10. Show compassion for those around them
  11. Never force leadership
  12. Must insist on excellence
  13. Are not always popular
  14. Don’t have all the answers but they find them
182
Q

What is the decision-making process?

A

Logical, stepwise approach to a choice between options, to solve a problem, or to resolve a dilemma.

183
Q

What is Contingency Planning?

A

-Anticipation of need to make future decision
-Making decision in advance
-Decrease response time by planning ahead, implement when needed
•Alternate route …
•Hospital disaster plan …

184
Q

What is the Decision-Making Process?

A
  1. Problem Identification
  2. Establish Criteria for decision making
  3. Weight the criteria
  4. Identify alternatives
  5. Analyze the alternatives
  6. Make the Decision
  7. Implement the Decision
  8. Evaluation
185
Q

What is a problem?

A

A difference between what is and what should be.

186
Q
  1. Problem Identification:
A

To deal with problems, managers must =

  • Acknowledge problem exists …QM for ID
  • Know problem is real …low lunch participation – waste time?
  • Feel need to deal with problem …internal/external
  • Feel there are resources to fix problem …$, inputs, choices exist?
  • EXAMPLE: nutrient analysis software in clinical nutrition dept. needs upgrade
187
Q
  1. Establish Criteria for decision making
A
  • Factors that will have most relevance in solving given problem;
  • What factors are important to achieving the best outcomes or solutions?
  • Chosen factors may include = Cost [budget], Time, Labor, Accessibility, Gov’t Regs, TJC; Not in stone…;
  • ¨EXAMPLE: list required and desired specs. For nutrient analysis software = Large database, lots of foods – processed/fast-foods, lots of nutrients – RDAs, etc, able to add foods, recipes, supplements, speed, upgrades/customer-support, price, user-friendly, site license, customized reports, handheld version with interface for RDNs …
188
Q
  1. Weight the criteria
A

-Assigning each established criterion a ranking in terms of importance;
-Ranking criteria may be intellectual or a quantified process → weight = #s (our example);
-Pre-decision … establishes direction for remaining;
-If done correctly = easy actual decision
EXAMPLE: …CNM determines number of foods & number of nutrients included in database = most important criteria so those rank at the TOP of the list …. Weight other criteria too …

189
Q
  1. Identify alternatives
A

-Options available to solve problem;
-What possible choices do you have?;
-What ARE they? → NOT evaluating them …..;
-Alternatives can be developed from =
•¨ Knowledge, experiences
•¨ Networking – colleagues, peers, supervisors
•¨ Publications, Internet resources, Salespeople
EXAMPLE: research available software packages

190
Q
  1. Analyze the alternatives
A

-Compare and examine alternatives by measuring each against standards, using only relevant criteria;
-Look at every alternative in light of the evidence available for each criteria … somewhat subjective – from person analyzing…;
-In quantitative decision-making, the alternative with the highest score may be the most suitable choice.;
-Disregard factors that are irrelevant to the particular decision;
- Narrow down - too many options = too difficult
Exclude obvious “no”&raquo_space; too expensive, too limited in features, etc
-EXAMPLE: quantified analysis… (x __) = the weight of criterion; overall most appropriate choice often becomes apparent as this part of the process…

191
Q
  1. Make the Decision
A

-Choosing alternative(s) to best solve problem based on analysis
→ previous steps, choice may be obvious;
-If not, possible options have been narrowed down;
-Make decisions when appropriate to do so;
-Delay or press on? …usually = YES! … don’t decide to NOT make a decision ….;
EXAMPLE: choose software package to purchase … do not defer … need new program, “perfect” match not likely … trust process..

192
Q
  1. Implement the Decision
A

-Carrying out the decision…communicating exactly what is to happen;
-Implementation may be easy or require planning and multiple steps …;
-Communication = vital to influence successful implementation;
-Will the change be viewed as negative, positive, or neutral?;
-Are the changes unguided or too explicit?;
-Not “free for all” …. Not “totalitarian” …. Casual Fridays…
EXAMPLE: purchase and install software, train dietitians to use it, enter data, etc.

193
Q
  1. Evaluation
A

-Receiving feedback about decision
-Determine – was the decision effective, efficient, appropriate, and adequate?
-Did it resolve the problem?
-If not, what other factors need to be considered?
-If yes, did you now ID new problems?
-Evaluation of decisions (feedback= new input) can help shape/speed up future decisions… “experience = best teacher”
EXAMPLE: Did software upgrade improve efficiency, quality patient service, etc.?

Spring 2015 (14 decks)

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