Hua Genes Test Stuff Flashcards

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1
Q

Where does mRNA go right after transcription in eukaryotes if bound for export?

A

Rough ER

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2
Q

What is the function of tRNA?

A

Transports amino acids

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3
Q

How many combinations are possible in a codon?

A

64

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4
Q

What is the starting code for translation?

A

AUG

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5
Q

What is most similar to restriction enzymes?

A

a pair of scissors

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6
Q

In what process is external DNA taken up by a bacterial cell?

A

Transformation

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7
Q

Cytosine makes up 30% of bases. What percentage will be thymine?

A

20%

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8
Q

A protein has 100 amino acids. How many nucleotides does it contain if there’s no post-translational modification?

A

303

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9
Q

A mutation in which of the following parts of a gene would be most damaging to a cell?

A

Exon

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10
Q

Which of the following mutations would be most damaging to a gene?

A

An insertion at the beginning of the gene

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11
Q

Which effect allows for more silent mutations?

A

wobble effect

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12
Q

What is necessary for transcription to begin?

A

transcription factors bind to promoter

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13
Q

Why are introns removed?

A

To produce a protein with only active genes

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14
Q

A growing polypeptide chain bonds together the amino acids with _______ bonds

A

peptide covalent

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15
Q

The Lac Operon is activated when

A

Lactose is present

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16
Q

What will happen to the trp operon when trp is present?

A

trp repressor is active; genes are NOT transcribed

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17
Q

Frederick Griffith’s Experiment

A

When LIVING Type S is injected into mice, the mice die
When Type R is injected into mice, the mice live
When HEAT-KILLED Type S is injected into the mice, there is no effect and the mice live.
When both a Heat-Killed Type S and a Type R are injected into the mice, the mice die with living Type S bacteria in the blood of the dead mice.

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18
Q

Oswald Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty’s experiment

A

S-strained bacteria are killed by heat added to different types of enzyme solutions (RNase, Protease, DNase, Lipase, and Carbo-ase)
Then, these mixtures were added to a culture of R-strain bacteria
Lastly, they found out that every mixture except for the one that includes DNase contains S-strain bacteria which is transformed from the R-strain bacteria.

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19
Q

Hershey and Chase’s Experiment

A

T2 bacteriophages were grown in two different radioactive mediums: Radioactive Sulfur (35-S, protein) and Radioactive Phosphorus (32-P, nucleotides)
Then, these viruses were allowed to infect E coli, respectively
Next, these viruses and bacteria were separated via centrifugation aka spinning
Lastly, they found that when testing with proteins, there was radioactivity outside the cell while when they were testing with DNA, there was radioactivity in the cell.

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20
Q

Erwin Chargaff’s Experiment

A

discovered the different nitrogenous bases in DNA
Adenine:Thymine = ~1
Cytosine:Guanine = ~1
For each A/C, there is one T/G
Percentage of G&C in an organism = ~40-45%
Percentage of A&T in an organism = ~55-60%

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21
Q

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins’ Experiment

A

Used X-ray diffraction to find the structure of DNA
DNA has a double helix structure with nitrogenous bases as rungs and ribose/phosphate as the backbone.

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22
Q

What is the Semiconservative Model of DNA

A

There is one template strand and another complementary daughter strand is created.

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23
Q

What is DNA made up of? Don’t say nucleotides, more specific.

A

Phosphate, a Deoxyribose sugar, and a Nitrogenous Base

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24
Q

What is antiparallelism in DNA?

A

They are parallel but are oriented in opposite directions. One side is 5’ to 3’, the other side is 3’ to 5’.

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25
Q

What is helicase?

A

the enzyme that unwinds the double helix for replications

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26
Q

What is primase?

A

synthesizes short RNA sequences called primers

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27
Q

Where does DNA polymerase III start the replication process?

A

RNA Primers

28
Q

What does DNA polymerase III do?

A

adds the nitrogenous bases to newly made DNA

29
Q

What is the Leading strand?

A

the strand that is made 5’ to 3’, has no fragments

30
Q

What is the Lagging strand?

A

the strand that is made 3’ to 5’, has fragments

31
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

fragments created when the lagging strand is made

32
Q

What does ligase do?

A

connects all the Okazaki fragments

33
Q

What does DNA polymerase I do?

A

removes RNA primers (and some other stuff but it’s irrelevant to test)

34
Q

What does SSBP (Single Strand Binding Protein) do?

A

binds to parental DNA immediately after the helicase, preventing the two single strands from joining and re-forming a double helix

35
Q

What does Topoisomerase do?

A

helps prevent DNA from getting tangled

36
Q

What are the three steps of Transcription?

A

Initiation, elongation, and termination.

37
Q

What are the three post-transcriptional modifications?

A

Intron splicing, 3’ poly-A tail, and 5’ Methylguanosine Cap

38
Q

Ribosome structure

A

Large subunit + small subunit.
Large subunit has one catalytic site & two binding sites for tRNA w/ amino acids.
Small subunit has head, base, and a platform and only contains one rRNA

39
Q

What processes are not included during protein synthesis in prokaryotes but are included in eukaryotes?

A. Transcription
B. Addition of poly A-tail
C. Translation
D. Gene splicing
E. B&D
F. A&C

A

E

40
Q

In which cell type does Transcription and Translation occur simultaneously right after the other?

A. Eukaryotes
B. Prokaryotes
C. Viruses

A

B

41
Q

Mutations in a DNA sequence

A

Point Mutations
Insertion Mutations
Deletion
Inversion

42
Q

What is the substitution of a nucleotide of DNA (affecting only one or very few nucleotides)
A. Point mutation
B. Insertion mutation
C. Deletion
D. Inversion

A

A

43
Q

What is the mutation where one or more nucleotides deleted from a DNA strand?
A. Point mutation
B. Insertion mutation
C. Deletion
D. Inversion

A

C

44
Q

Which mutation occurs when one or more nucleotides flip their placement (ie ATC to CTA)?
A. Point mutation
B. Insertion mutation
C. Deletion
D. Inversion

A

D

45
Q

What is the mutation where one or more nucleotides inserted into a DNA strand?
A. Point mutation
B. Insertion mutation
C. Deletion
D. Inversion

A

B

46
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia is an example of which type of mutation?
A. Point mutation
B. Insertion mutation
C. Deletion
D. Inversion

A

A.
The hemoglobin of a red blood cell changes from the codon, CTC (which codes for the amino acid, Glutamic acid), to CAC which codes for the amino acid, Valine.

47
Q

What are the types of Point Mutations?

A

Silent: mutated codon still codes for the same codon as the original codon (no changes)
Nonsense: mutated codon codes for a stop codon (“nonsense” codon)
Missense: changes the sequence of amino acids of a polypeptide chain (i.e. Glutamine -> Valine)
Conservative: The amino acid is replaced with another similar amino acid
Non-Conservative: An amino acid is replaced with another completely different amino acid
Wobble Effect: a codon is changed to another codon that codes for the same amino acid

48
Q

What are regulatory genes

A

a gene used to control the expression of other genes

49
Q

What is a promoter?

A

Spot on the gene where transcription begins

50
Q

What is an operator?

A

“On/Off switch” ~ allowed or inhibits RNA polymerase’s ability to start transcription

51
Q

What is a terminator?

A

Spot on the gene where transcription stops

52
Q

What is a repressor protein?

A

a protein that inhibits the expression of one or more genes by binding to the operator

53
Q

What is an inducer molecule?

A

a molecule that regulates gene expression (by disabling repressors)

54
Q

What is a compressor?

A

a protein that binds to repressors to change the repressor’s shape so it can bind to the operator

55
Q

What is an inducible operon?

A

Expression increases due to inducers. The inducer binds to an activated repressor enzyme and deactivates it.

56
Q

What is a repressible operon?

A

Expression decreases due to the protein. The protein binds to inactivated repressor enzymes and activates them.

57
Q

What is an example of a inducible operon?
A. Tryptophan turns on the repressor enzyme for less trp production
B. More estrogen is released as estrogen levels decrease
C. Lactose turns off the repressor enzyme for lactase production
D. You get hungry if you don’t eat

A

C

58
Q

What is an example of a repressible operon?
A. Tryptophan turns on the repressor enzyme for less trp production
B. More estrogen is released as estrogen levels decrease
C. Lactose turns off the repressor enzyme for lactase production
D. You get hungry if you don’t eat

A

A

59
Q

What is the positive control of a gene?

A

Gene expresses in the presence of an activator or inducer
Positive regulatory protein is missing -> operon turns off

60
Q

What is gene recombination technology?

A

Alters genetic material outside of an organism with desired characteristics. These synthesized genetic materials will get infused into bacteria via heat shock. The bacteria are then cultivated.

61
Q

Give an example of gene recombination tech in genetic engineering

A

In BT corn, a toxin that kills corn caterpillars’ genes can be placed into the DNA of BT

62
Q

A moment for silence Ryan

A

I stole a lot of answers from his work, thank him pls.

63
Q

What is selective breeding?

A

two organisms with a desirable trait are bred together

64
Q

How was Dolly the sheep cloned?

A

the nucleus of a first sheep (organism) is merged with an egg cell of a second sheep (organism) via electric shock. The egg cell is placed in the uterus of a third, foster sheep (organism) and grows up identical to the first sheep.

65
Q

What are the steps of Polymerase Chain Reaction(PCR)?

A

Denaturing nucleotides -> annealing (primers bind to the end of DNA strand) -> extension (taq polymerase extends from and adds nucleotides to corresponding original nucleotide)

66
Q

What is Gel Electrophoresis?

A

separate DNA based on size across agarose gel. The DNA will be unique for each person and can be used to identify DNA from the same person.

67
Q

What is the charge of DNA?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral

A

B