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MH-60R HAC Kelly (DEC21 updated) > HSM-71 SOP > Flashcards

HSM-71 SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Min ceiling and visibility for ship or shore ops?

NOTE: If positive radar control and a CCA/PAR is available, minimum launch mins are?

A

500-1

200-1/2

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2
Q

Wx criteria for SACT?

A

DAY: 100ft AGL
Night: 500ft AGL

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3
Q

Enlisted aircrew _____ be utilized time the max extent _____.

A

Should

Practicable

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4
Q

Any pilot who has not flown in 45 days _____ fly a warm-up flight with a current HAC.

Warm up flights SHOULD include what?

A

Shall

Autorotations, other fam type maneuvers as determined by squadron COs.

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5
Q

When is a mini ISATT required?

A

Det OIC change, ship Change of Command (fleet-up XOs exempt), reassignment to a new ship, or more than 60 days elapse between embarked operations

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6
Q

What events shall be completed during a mini-ISATT?

A

Day and Night landing requalifications

Emergency flight quarters

Crash on deck drill

Hot refueling

Straightening and traversing evolutions

ELVA/Smokelight approach

Lost plane homing

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7
Q

For pre-embarkation proficiency:

To the max extent _____, pilots _____ fly a minimum of what?

A

Practicable, should

9 hours within the proceeding 45 days

Shall obtain night currency (2 hours within 45 days) and instrument currency (2 hours within 45 days).

During intervals of less than 45 days between embarkations, pilots SHOULD fly a minimum of 6 hours to obtain night and instrument currency.

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8
Q

When are you considered night SAR capable?

A

Pilots SHALL have flown 2 night automatic approaches utilizing windline rescue patterns to a coupled hover in the proceeding 60 days.

Pilots failing to meet this requirement SHALL not be scheduled for SAR duty (to include Plane Guard)

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9
Q

When are you considered night coupler current?

A

Pilots SHALL have flown two night/IMC dip-to-dip navigation or windline rescue patterns at night to a coupled hover in the proceeding 60 days.
Pilots failing to meet this requirement shall not be sked to fly night sesrcha nd rescue missions (plane guard).

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10
Q

Shipboard radius of action?

A

150 NM or max reliable com/nav range, whichever is less. radius of action beyond 150 in support of specific operational or tactical training missions may be approved by ISIS when dictated by mission planning, provided deliberate ORM has been conducted. time spent beyond 150 shall be limited to min required to accomplish mission objectives.

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11
Q

One way flights _____ be limited to ### NM ship-to-ship and shore-to-ship and ###NM ship-to-shore.

A

SHALL, 150, 200

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12
Q

What SHALL not be performed with passengers embarked?

A

Simulated emergencies, practice autorotations, intentional aircraft degradations, and ordnance release. (to include MIDN Fam flights)

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13
Q

Minimum altitudes

Overland populated area:
Overland unpopulated area:

Overwater day:
Overwater unaided night:
Overwater NVD:

Note: Flight operations down to ## FT overwater during day conditions is intended only for what?

A

Overland populated: 1000’ AGL
Overland unpopulated: 500’ AGL

Overwater day: 50’ AGL
Overwater unaided night: 150’ AGL
Overwater NVD: 100’ AGL

Note: Flight operations down to 50 FT overwater during day conditions is intended only for what? Operational or tactical training flights where the altitude profiles support authorized mission or training objectives

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14
Q

Minimum altitude for coupled hover? What’s the exception?

A

70 FT AGL

NOTE: Following establishment of a 70’ coupled hover, aircraft altitude may be reduced to no lower than 40’ to conduct live hoisting operations at PICs discretion.

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15
Q

Minimum altitude for terrain flight (low level)?

A

200’ AGL (only on approved low level routes and ranges)

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16
Q

Minimum altitude for SACT training

A

Day-100’ AGL

Night-500’ AGL

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17
Q

If the Stab Auto Mode PB Is not illuminated when AC power is applied, what SHALL you do?

A

The stabilator lockpins SHALL be visually checked prior to flight

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18
Q

The rescue hoist op check _____ be completed on the first flight of the day to ensure SAR capability

A

SHOULD

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19
Q

What shall be called on the first takeoff of each flight?

A

Single engine airspeed and stab programming

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20
Q

Stab programming _____ be called after reengaging the AUTO mode subsequent to a simulated or actual failure

A

SHALL

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21
Q

The landing checklist _____ be accomplishes when transitioning from pad to runway operations or vice versa

A

SHALL

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22
Q

What shall be accomplished anytime the mission changes from what was briefed

A

The mission change checklist

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23
Q

Passengers _____ not occupy the aircraft during hot refueling

A

SHALL

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24
Q

Aircrewman ______ assist in monitoring refueling operations

A

SHALL

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25
Q

During crew switches, the helicopter _____ be under the control of a designated helicopter pilot and there _____ be a PIC to PIC verbal turnover.

A

SHALL, SHALL

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26
Q

The new crew _____ begin with step # of the Post Engagement checklist

A

SHALL, 9

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27
Q

Personnel _____ not proceed aft of where while rotors are turning

A

SHALL, countermeasure dispensers

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28
Q

All crew members _____ brief with the HAC at his/her first brief time.

A

SHOULD

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29
Q

Aircraft _____ ground taxi vice air taxi to the greatest extent _____ whenever the possibility of damage from rotor wash exists

A

SHALL, Possible

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30
Q

Seat and gunner’s belts _____ be utilizes to the max extent _____.

All occupants of the aircraft _____ be in crashworthy seats with seat and shoulder harness secured during take-off and landing.

A

SHALL, Possible

SHOULD

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31
Q

Fly overs SHOULD be:

4 things plus 2 notes

A

Non-maneuvering, generally wings-level passes of one or two aircraft (waiverable to 4)

Restricted to a single pass over a fixed point at a specified time

Conducted no lower than 500’ AGL, with consideration given to the height of the obstacles in the vicinity of the flyover location.

Conducted no slower than 60 KIAS

  • any deviation must be approved by Type Wing or TYCOM
  • flight demonstrations involving other than flyover profiles (Family Day/Tiger cruise/Air Show/SAR Demo) are considered Aerial demonstrations
32
Q

Detachment operating on single-spot ships with two manned embarked helicopters utilizing the RSD _____ not conduct concurrent flight operations unless an emergency landing site (ship or shore) is available within ## NM for the duration of the evolution

A

SHALL, 50 NM

33
Q

For detachment concurrent operations, when does the 50NM alternate landing site apply?

A

Applies to missions where the parent ship is the intended point of landing for both aircraft, and does not apply to mission scheduled for termination at other than the parent ship.

Does not apply to fly-ons. For fly-ons, thorough mission planning SHALL be conducted and no-go criteria determined which takes into account flight deck/hangar if delays

Does not apply for concurrent manned and unmanned operations

34
Q

All staged/mission related photography events must be approved by the CO and _____ be performed by an authorized photographer.

Unplanned and non-briefed photography of this nature is _____

A

SHALL

Prohibited

35
Q

The APU _____ be started on deck to the max extent _____

A

SHOULD, Possible

36
Q

When conducting vertical replenishment, a ##% power margin _____ exist between what?

A

10% power margin SHALL exist between MRP and max power required when a load is lifted from the deck

37
Q

Min crew for non-FCF ground turns?

A

H2P and an observer or 2 PQMs

38
Q

all dedicated NVD tacform training events ___ require two crewmembers in the back of both aircraft

A

SHALL

39
Q

Night CAL/LZ flights require a min of ___ aircrewmen. both shall be qualified ACTC LVL ___ or higher. or one ACTC LVL ___ and one ACTC LVL ___ or higher. DAY CAL/LZ flights require one aircrewman, actc LVL 1 or higher

A

2, 2, 1, 3

40
Q

Pilots shall not fly at night as PIC unless they are night current. to be night current you must fly a min of ___ hours in the preceding ___ days. between ___ and ___ days, squadron CO may authorize a day into night transition to regain currency. after ___ days currecny shall be regained by flying with a night current PIC

A

2.0, 45, 45 and 60

41
Q

STAN flights

A

all newly reporting first tour pilots and aircrew shall conduct their first flight in the squadron with an ANI

42
Q

CHECKLISTS

A

all checklists shall be verbally completed in the CHALLENGE-REPLY-REPLY format up to rotor engagement. after rotor engagement, checklists shall be in the CHALLENGE_REPLY format.

43
Q

WASH RACK

A

All aircraft shall be taxied through the wash rack after the last flight of the day. aicraft should be taxied throught the wash rack after any over-water hovering or shipboard ops were conducted. crews shall ensure the sono cover, XMSN drip pan and cargo hook cover are installed and PIC shall minimize direct water spray into the FLIR and RADALT

44
Q

RADALT Discipline

A

during night overwater flight below 500 feet AGL, consideration should be given to setting the decision height (DH) no lower than 10 percent less than the current altitude. each crewmemeber shall verbalize to the crew their DH setting and activiation of warning tone.

45
Q

Dipping sonar ops ( 9 things)

A

steady hover; cable angle; seas w/ waves >10ft, 17-21knts; cable exceeds 4.25 degree; POCL limits; afcs malfn, 1177 code; if limits for towing exceeded; sensor operator

46
Q

Three items in 71 SOP for dipping?

A
  • Bottom depth and max transducer depth shall be pre-briefed for all flights in which the transducer is lowered into the water.
  • the automatic approach checklist shall be reviewed complete prior to descending below 150 feet
  • the RAST probe shall be verified fully retracted prior to conducting dipping operations
47
Q

EKB usage

A

pilots and AW are authorized to utilize EKB while airborne in accordance with reference (multi-service addendum to allow EKB). prior to use all crewmembers shall be briefed on who is using the tablet, for what purpose and any in-flight duties shifting to other crewmembers while the tablet user is heads down.

48
Q

Embarked procedures (preflight)

A

Hyd bay cover restraint straps shall be used at all times while embarked

49
Q

ordnance safety procedures-hot refueling

A

hot refueling with live ordnance loaded is prohibited ashore. Hellfire CATM, REXTORPs, Empty DRL, Sonobuoys, smokes, Signal underwater sound, and door guns are authorized to be carried during hot refueling.

50
Q

Are hellfires authorized to be carried during hot seats?

A

provided the veent is part of NAWDC or weapons school sponsored training.

51
Q

is hot refueling afloat permitted with ordnance loaded?

A

yes, with ship’s CO approval

52
Q

are we allowed to straighten/traverse the aircraft wtih ordnance loaded?

A
  • shipboard straightenting, manuevering and traversing with CATM loaed shall be limited to traverse qualified personnel-training is prohibited.
  • downloading warshot missiles shall be conducted prior to any of the above evolutions, except in an emergency with ship’s CO approval.
  • traversiing at slow speed between the MX line and flight position with warshot loaded is authorized with Ship CO’s discretion with ISIC approval
53
Q

PAX transfer with crew served weapons?

A

pax shall not be embarked with a GAU-21 installed. if a crew served weapon is required during a pax transfer the m240 shall be used. the m240 shall be kept in the stowed position when not in use and the ammo cans shall be secured to prevent missle hazards in the event of an emergency.

54
Q

GUNNEX range clearance

A

crews conducting live gunnery shall be responsible for range clearance to a in of 5NM beyond max weapons employment for GAU and M240 respectively

55
Q

smoke markers shall not be dropped closer than ____ from the coastline or inland waterways, unless on a designated range or dip area.

A

except in emergency, 10NM

56
Q

Smoke markers that cannot be de-armed ____be jettisioned outside of ___ from the coastline and prior to RTB for final landing

A

Shall, 10NM

57
Q

Ordnance carriage over populated areas

A
  • with the exception of sonobuoys and smoke markers, carrying live ordnance over populated areas shall be avoided.
  • if a mission requires flight to a facility near a populated area the most direct route that will minimize civilian civilian exposure shall be used.
58
Q

SONO Launcher requirements

A

removal or replacement of sono launcher cover should not be performed with the rotors engaged. if the cover is removed or replaced with rotors engaged , two person integrity shall be used.

59
Q

the sono launcher cover ___ be fastened with ___ attachement bolts but no less than ___ total.

A

Shall, all possible, 11. additionally, all corner bolts per the encolsure and missing bolts need to be MAF’d

60
Q

all personnel shall use authorized eye, hearing and head protection in hangars and on the flight line. single hearing protection is required within ___ ft of aicraft with rotors turning, or within ___ feet of aircraft with only APU turning. double hearing protection is required within ___ feet of aircraft with rotors turning or APU running for extended periods of time

A

200 feet, 50 feet, 30 feet

61
Q

can rings be worn on the flight line?

A

rings shall not be worn while operating or working on aircraft or moving ground support equipment

62
Q

can personnel climb on top of aircraft with APU on?

A

yes, with permission of the PIC, and ensure that both engines are secured. PIC shall ensure that one of the aircrew visually check the top of the aircraft for integrity and FOD

63
Q

all personnel shall wear a cranial or helmet with strap fastened whenever___

A

climbing on any part of the aircraft. this may be relaxed as long as to perform mX or an inspection in which headgear restricts accomplishment of the task.

64
Q

what does the SOP say about corner fasteners?

A

flight with unfastened, broken or missing corner fasteners is not reccomended. corner fasteners should be fixed as soon as practicable by qualified MX personnel.

65
Q

RAS/ ship firing evoultions

A
  • aircraft should be airborne or in the hangar during all ship weapons firing evolutions.
  • for RAS evolutions, consideration should be given to hangaring the aircraft if not airborne to prevent shot lines being fired in the vicinity of the flight deck
66
Q

who can initiate simultaed EP’s

A

shall only be introduced under the cognizance of a designated HAC

67
Q

compounding emergencys?

A

involving the degradation of two or more unrelated systems shall not be introduced, initiated or practiced

68
Q

no circuit breakers may be pulled with this exception:

A

CO’s may authroize HACs to pull the batt bus CB (failed B.U. attitude indicator) during DAY/VMC only
71 SOP: ANI’s and NIE’s are authorized to pull the batt bus CB during the same above conditions, but shall be prebriefed on deck or in flight.

69
Q

Assitance NATOPS instructor AW’s may pull these CB’s

A

rescue hoist, cargo hook, RAST, Mission power, RADAR and acoustic malfn

70
Q

What EP’s can we do at night?

A

-single engine approaches and landings wto a prepared surface with adequte overrun and underrun.
-single-engine running landings
-boost off or failed SAS/AFCS
-simulated lost ICS
-STAB auto mode failure
practice autos at night are prohibited, in additiona and simulated emergency requiring actual degradation of aircraft systems at night are prohibited.

71
Q

AUTO requirements

A

pilot and co-pilot radalt shall be operable for practice autos. APU and gen shall be on before initiating practice autos in the landing enviroment or manipulating PCL’s with the intent to land

72
Q

where shall you initiate single engine failures out of ground effect?

A

over a surface where a run-on landing can be made

73
Q

where can we do CAL/LZ? also what does SOP say about power margin?

A
  • shall be conducted on approved ranges or airfields in accordance with their governing directives.
  • power available check shall be conducted at the planned landing conditions. Power margin from MRP versus max power required shall be 10 percent or greater to proceed with the approach.
  • Operation CAL/LZ flights other than those of operational necessity shall adhere to this power margin.
74
Q

what laser can we use for training?

A

ELRF, but shall not be sued on personnel or wildlife. crew aknowledgement is required when selecitng the ELRF, and shall not be fired unlesss crew concurrence has been recieved following the ARM ELRF prompt. shall aknoledge ELRF on the lower left of the flir attack page

75
Q

deviation from SOP

A

on rare occasions, a crew member may deviate from this instruction when safety of flight and or good judgement dictates deviation. deviations shall be reported immediately to the CO by the pilot or aircrew-man involved, describing the circumstances that led to the deviation.

MH-60R HAC Kelly (DEC21 updated) (42 decks)

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