HSM-46 SOP (3710.2D) Flashcards

1
Q

Min ceiling and visibility for ship or shore ops?

NOTE: If positive radar control and a CCA/PAR is available, minimum launch mins are?

A

500-1

200-1/2

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2
Q

When the dew point / temperature spread is 3 or less the PIC or Det OIC should make the decision based on:

A
  • Current weather
  • Dew point spread forecast
  • A suitable alternate
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3
Q

A qualified observer ________ be required for all flight except those conducted under _____ ______.

A
  • Shall

- Day VMC

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4
Q

A designated aircrewman is required for all flights crewed solely by _____.

A

H2P(Helicopter Second Pilot)

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5
Q

Pilots who have not flown in ____ days _____ fly a warm up flight with a current HAC. The flight ______ include autorotations and FAM type maneuvers as determined by the CO.

A

45

Shall

Should

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6
Q

Night currency requires that a pilot has flown a minimum of ___ hours within the preceding ___ days. Between ___ and ___ the squadron CO may authorize a day into night flight to regain currency. Over ___ days currency shall be gained by flying with a night current IP.

A

2.0

45

45-60

60

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7
Q

All returning pilots on a deployment of ___ or more days shall fly a local area warm up flight with a home guard HAC prior to flying flight events.

A

90

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7
Q

An EP sim _____ be completed every _____ days or ______ after returning from deployment.

A

Should

180

45

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8
Q

Enlisted aircrew _____ be utilized to the max extent _____.

A

Should

Practicable

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9
Q

Wx criteria for SACT?

A

1000-3, with visible horizon

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10
Q

FCF checklist items _____ only be conducted when the crew includes a designated FCP.

A

Shall

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11
Q

Minimum crew requirements for tactical training events?

A

HAC/L3, PQM, aircrewman

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12
Q

Newly reporting pilots SHALL complete what?

A

Emergency procedures exam, course rules exam and an EP simulator prior to their first flight.

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13
Q

When is a mini ISATT required?

A

Det OIC change, ship Change of Command (fleet-up XOs exempt), reassignment to a new ship, or more than 60 days elapse between embarked operations

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14
Q

Pilots returning from long deployment or prolonged absence (longer than _ _ days) SHALL complete the following prior to being scheduled for additional flight events:

A

A Kaneohe Bay course rules exam, an EP simulator and a day EP/BITS flight

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15
Q

What events shall be completed during a mini-ISATT?

A

Day and Night landing requalifications

Emergency flight quarters

Crash on deck drill

Hot refueling

Straightening and traversing evolutions

ELVA/Smokelight approach

Lost plane homing

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16
Q

For pre-embarkation proficiency:

To the max extent _____, pilots _____ fly a minimum of what?

A

Practicable, should

9 hours within the proceeding 45 days

Shall obtain night currency (2 hours within 45 days) and instrument currency (2 hours within 45 days).

During intervals of less than 45 days between embarkations, pilots SHOULD fly a minimum of 6 hours to obtain night and instrument currency.

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17
Q

When are you considered night dip current?

A

Pilots SHALL have flown two night/IMC dip-to-dip navigation patterns at night to a coupled hover in the proceeding 60 days.

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17
Q

When are you considered instrument flight current?

A

Pilots SHALL have flown a minimum of 2 hours of actual or simulated instrument time within the proceeding 60 days.

Currency requirements may be satisfied in the aircraft or flight simulator.

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18
Q

When are you considered night SAR capable?

A

Pilots SHALL have flown 2 night automatic approaches utilizing wind-line rescue patterns to a coupled hover in the proceeding 60 days.

Pilots failing to meet this requirement SHALL not be scheduled for SAR duty (to include Plane Guard)

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20
Q

Aircrew _____ not report for official duties earlier than _ _ hours prior to the scheduled completion of all flight and post-flight duties. Flight duties shall not be scheduled for a period of more than _ _ hours. Anything scheduled over _ _ requires CO’s approval.

A

SHOULD, 10

12

12

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21
Q

Aircrew _____ not be scheduled to brief a flight event until _ _ hours after completion of post flight duties, simulator events, and subsequent debriefs (normally _ hour after the event) or squadron duty.

Aircrew _____ not be scheduled to brief a flight event until _ _ hours after completion of post flight duties, simulator events, subsequent debriefs (normally _ hour after the event), or squadron duty

A

SHOULD, 12, 1

SHALL, 10, 1

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22
Q

Shipboard radius of action?

A

150 NM or max reliable com/nav range, whichever is less.

Radius of action beyond 150nm in support of specific operational or tactical missions may be approved by ISIC when dictated by mission planning provided ORM has been conducted. Time spent beyond 150NM shall be limited to the time required to accomplish the mission objective.

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22
Q

Minimum altitude for coupled hover? What’s the exception?

A

70 FT AGL

NOTE: Following establishment of a 70’ coupled hover, aircraft altitude may be reduced to no lower than 40’ to conduct live hoisting operations at PICs discretion.

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23
Q

Minimum altitude for terrain flight (low level)?

A

200’ AGL (only on approved low level routes and ranges)

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24
Q

One way flights _____ be limited to _ _ _ NM ship-to-ship and shore-to-ship and _ _ _ NM ship-to-shore.

A

SHALL, 150, 200

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25
Q

Minimum altitudes

Overland populated area:
Overland unpopulated area:

Overwater day:
Overwater unaided night:
Overwater NVD:

Note: Flight operations down to _ _ FT overwater during day conditions is intended only for what?

A

Overland populated: 1000’ AGL
Overland unpopulated: 500’ AGL

Overwater day: 50’ AGL
Overwater unaided night: 150’ AGL
Overwater NVD: 100’ AGL

Note: Flight operations down to 50 FT overwater during day conditions is intended only for what? Operational or tactical training flights where the altitude profiles support authorized mission or training objectives

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26
Q

Minimum altitude for SACT training

A

Day-100’ AGL

Night-500’ AGL

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27
Q

The rescue hoist op check _____ be completed on the first flight of the day to ensure SAR capability

A

SHOULD

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28
Q

What shall be called on the first takeoff of each flight?

A

Single engine airspeed and stab programming

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29
Q

If Stab Auto Mode is not illuminated when AC power is applied, what SHALL you do?

A

The stabilator lockpins SHALL be visually checked prior to flight

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30
Q

Stab programming _____ be called after reengaging the AUTO mode subsequent to a simulated or actual failure

A

SHALL

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31
Q

The landing checklist _____ be accomplishes when transitioning from pad to runway operations or vice versa

A

SHALL

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32
Q

What shall be accomplished anytime the mission changes from what was briefed

A

The mission change checklist

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33
Q

Aircrewman ______ assist in monitoring refueling operations

A

SHALL

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35
Q

Passengers _____ not occupy the aircraft during hot refueling

Lighting configuration ashore?

A

SHALL

Anti Collision - Upper
Position Lights - Dim

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35
Q

The new crew _____ begin with step # of the Post Engagement checklist

A

SHALL, 9

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36
Q

Personnel _____ not proceed aft of where while rotors are turning

A

SHALL, countermeasure dispensers

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37
Q

During crew switches, the helicopter _____ be under the control of a designated helicopter pilot and there _____ be a PIC to PIC verbal turnover including _____ and _____. Off going PIC shall visually check ______, ______, ______ and _______.

A

SHALL, SHALL
Aircraft condition and ecxeedences

  • Leaks
  • Open latches / fasteners
  • General condition
  • Security
38
Q

All crew members _____ brief with the HAC at his/her first brief time.

39
Q

If aircrew are not present for the brief due to in-flight commitments, the HAC _____ not what?

A

SHALL not taxi until the flight crew brief is complete

40
Q

Aircraft _____ ground taxi vice air taxi to the greatest extent _____ whenever the possibility of damage from rotor wash exists

A

SHALL, Possible

41
Q

Seat and gunner’s belts _____ be utilizes to the max extent _____.

All occupants of the aircraft _____ be in crashworthy seats with seat and shoulder harness secured during take-off and landing.

A

SHALL, Possible

SHOULD

42
Q

Fly overs SHOULD be:

4 things plus 2 notes

A

Non-maneuvering, generally wings-level passes of one or two aircraft (waiverable to 4)

Restricted to a single pass over a fixed point at a specified time

Conducted no lower than 500’ AGL, with consideration given to the height of the obstacles in the vicinity of the flyover location.

Conducted no slower than 60 KIAS

  • any deviation must be approved by Type Wing or TYCOM
  • flight demonstrations involving other than flyover profiles (Family Day/Tiger cruise/Air Show/SAR Demo) are considered Aerial demonstrations
43
Q

All staged/mission related photography events must be approved by the CO and _____ be performed by an authorized photographer.

Unplanned and non-briefed photography of this nature is _____

A

SHALL

Prohibited

44
Q

The APU _____ be started on deck to the max extent _____

A

SHOULD, Possible

45
Q

Detachment operating on single-spot ships with two manned embarked helicopters utilizing the RSD _____ not conduct concurrent flight operations unless an emergency landing site (ship or shore) is available within _ _ NM for the duration of the evolution

A

SHALL, 50 NM

46
Q

Minimum crew requirement s for tactical training events.

A

HAC / L3 , PQM, and aircrewman.

47
Q

DLQ currency lapse

A

Pilots who currency laps shall conduct an OFT or night FDLP within 30 days of scheduled DLQ re-qualification period.

48
Q

When conducting vertical replenishment, a _ _% power margin _____ exist between what?

A

10% power margin SHALL exist between IRP and max power required when a load is lifted from the deck

49
Q

Radalt discipline

A

Night over water flight below 500ft AGL, considerations should be given to setting the DH no lower than 10% below your current altitude.

50
Q

NVD NITE Lab Proficiency

A

48 months from the last day of the month

51
Q

ELRF ( Eye Safe Laser Range Finder)

A

May be used for mission training purposes outside of an approved laser range, but shall not be used on personnel or wildlife.

52
Q

CAL / LZ ( Confined Area Landing / Landing Zone)

A

Intermediate power available margin shall be 10% or greater to proceed with an approach.

53
Q

CAL / LZ ( Confined Area Landing / Landing Zone) Crew Requirements

A

Crew shall include one aircrewman and one qualified observer.

54
Q

H2P / H2P flight prohibited manuevers

A
  • Simulated Emergencies
  • Movement of PCL’s out of fly
  • Night coupled approaches
  • 180 degree autorotations
  • Destination weather for cross country or out ins shall have destination weather of 1000/3 or better +/- 1 hour.
55
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (underway)

A

While underway, simulated emergencies require OIC cognizance and Day / VMC conditions and are also limited to:

  • Stab Auto Mode failure to a landing
  • SAS / AFCS failures to a landing
  • Boost off flight
56
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (APU)

A

The APU Generator shall be on for all:

  • Practice autorotations
  • Simulated engine failures to a spot
  • Simulated engine failures from a HOGE
57
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (DECU lockout)

A

Inflight emergency simulation that requires placement of an engine into DECU lockout shall only be accomplished in an OFT.

58
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (single engine failures)

A

Simulated single engine failures from a hover out of ground affect shall only be initiated over a surface where a run on landing can be made.

PCL shall not be place in the idle detent and APU shall be on.

59
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (degradations at night)

A

Engine degradations at night are prohibited with the exceptions of:

  • Single engine approaches and landings to a prepared surface with adequate overrun and under-run
  • Single engine running landings
  • Boost off and failed SAS / AFCS
  • Simulated lost ICS
  • STAB auto mode failure
60
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (autorotations)

A
  • Practice autos at night are prohibited
  • Pilot and co-pilot rad alt indicators shall be operable for practice autos
  • APU generator shall be on for all practice auto rotations
61
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (pulling CB’s)

A

Pilots and aircrewman are not allowed to pull circuit breakers to initiate simulated emergencies

62
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (Assistant NATOPS instructor and FRS aircrew instructors)

A

May pull circuit breakers for simulating rescue hoist, cargo hook, RAST, Mission Power, RADAR and acoustic malfunctions.

63
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (compound degradations)

A

Compound degradations involving the degradation of two or unrelated systems should not be introduced, initiated or practiced.

64
Q

EP’s / Prohibited maneuvers (simulated emergencies)

A

Simulated emergencies with the exception of SAS / AFCS malfunctions shall only be introduced in the aircraft under cognizance of a designated HAC.

65
Q

Minimum crew requirements (FCF ground turns)

A

H2P in right seat, maintenance or aircrewman in left seat.

66
Q

Wash rack

A

All aircraft shall be taxied through the wash rack at taxiway echo prior to the final shutdown of the day and prior to hot seat evolutions following over water hovering or shipboard ops.

67
Q

Corner fasteners

A

Corner fasteners should be fixed as soon as practicable by qualified maintenance personnel.

68
Q

Missing fasteners (TGB cowling)

A

2 in a row

3 total

69
Q

Missing fasteners (IGB cowling)

A

2 in a row

3 total

70
Q

Missing fasteners (vertical driveshaft cover)

A

2 in a row

2 total

71
Q

Missing fasteners (other tail driveshaft covers)

A

1 in a row

1 total

72
Q

Flight line procedures (climbing on aircraft)

A
  • Both engines shall be secured
  • If only APU is operating personnel may climb on aircraft the permission of PIC
  • Shall wear a cranial. Only relaxed to perform maintenance if required.
73
Q

Flight line procedures (hearing protection)

A

Single hearing protection within 200ft of rotors turning and 50ft of APU

Double hearing protection within 30ft of aircraft turning or APU running for extended periods of time

74
Q

Sonobuoy launcher

A

Removal or replacement of the cover should not be preformed with rotors engaged ( 2 person integrity)

All corner fasteners and no less than 11 total

75
Q

Ordnance Carriage

A

Carrying live ordnance over populated areas shall be avoided (not including sonobuoys and smoke markers)

Fly the most direct route to minimize civilian exposure.

76
Q

Smoke Markers

A

Smoke markers shall not be dropped closer than 10nm from coastline or in inland waterways unless on a designated range or dip area.

Smokes that cannot be de-armed shall be jettisoned outside of 10NM from the coastline.

77
Q

Ordnance safety (GUNEX)

A

GUNEX events shall be responsible for own range clearance to a minimum if 5NM beyond max weapons employment range.

78
Q

Ordinance safety (Passengers and GAU)

A

Passengers shall not be embarked when the GAU 21 is installed.

M240 shall be utilized and kept in stow until ready for use.

79
Q

Ordnance Safety (straightening and traversing)

A

Download warshot missiles prior to straightening and traversing unless in an emergency with CO authorization. Traversing at a slow speed from the maintenance line to the flight line is authorized at ship CO discretion with ISIC approval.

Straightening with CATMs shall be limited to travers qualified personnel.

80
Q

Ordnance Safety (Landing)

A

Aircrews authorized to conduct multiple approaches and landings with either missiles or rockets loaded with approval of the ships CO.

81
Q

Ordnance (Hot refuel)

A

Hot refueling aircraft with live ordnance is prohibited ashore but authorized afloat with CO approval.

82
Q

Ship operations with launched chaff

A

Shall avoid to the max extent practicable:

  • A/C in hanger: FOD walk down and blow out pad eyes
  • A/C shutdown on deck: thorough FOD check conducted on A/C and intakes
  • A/C turning on deck: shall be shutdown and thoroughly inspected prior to next launch
  • Launching / recovering: A/C shall wave off
83
Q

Anti-exposure suits

A

Shall wear when:

Water temp < 50F or OAT <32F (wind chill corrected) and over water for > 30 minutes.

HAC consideration between 50-60F water temp 10NM from coastline and over water flight > 30 minutes.

84
Q

Performance calculations (prior to HOGE)

A

10% torque margin shall be verified to exist between calculated HOGE and Max power not to exceed a limit.

85
Q

Performance calculations

A

Shall be completed prior to flight with briefs ti include:

  • HIGE
  • HOGE
  • Single engine min / max airspeed
  • Max power available
  • Blade stall
86
Q

Dipping sonar (Hung dome procedures)

A

Minimum number of maintenance personnel required is 4.

Consideration should be given to strapping a mattress to the deck.

87
Q

Dipping sonar (POCL or paid out cable length)

A

During training POCL shall be now more than half the ceiling up to 1000ft.

Above 1000ft POCL shall be no more than 500ft below the ceiling.

Need not be restricted for operational ASW.

88
Q

Dipping sonar (simulated dome emergencies)

A

For simulated emergencies manual or automatic hydraulic mode shall be reengaged prior to 100ft or POCL when recovering the transducer assembly.

89
Q

Dipping sonar (exceeding 4.25 inner ring)

A

All crew members will verbally acknowledge the deviation and ensure the appropriate corrections are being made to center cable.

90
Q

Dipping sonar (AFCS degradations)

A

Dipping is prohibited with AFCS degradations affecting auto approach and coupled hovers. Cease dipping operations following and uncommanded pitch changes until maintenance action is taken.

With 1177 fault, cease dipping ops until maintenance action is taken.

If transducer ground speed is exceeded. Cease dipping until maintenance action is performed and a MAF is documented.

91
Q

Dipping sonar (wave height)

A

Should not be conducted with wave heights exceeding 10ft, winds exceeding 17-21kts, or known currents > 4 kts during unit or fleet level training. Deliberate or time critical ORM shall be conducted prior to dipping operations.

92
Q

Dipping sonar (cable angle hover)

A

Cable angle hover mode shall be operable for all dipping sonar operations.

93
Q

Dipping sonar (potentiometer control)

A

PNAC should adjust LONG VEL and LAT VEL potentiometers to control drift and limit ground speed to no greater than 2kts.