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302 Last Ye > Hshd > Flashcards

Hshd Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct definition of small for gestational age (SGA)?
    A. Weight <5% according to the gestational age
    B. Weight <10% according to the gestational age
    C. Weight <15% according to the gestational age
    D. Weight <20% according to the gestational age
    E. Weight <25% according to the gestational age
A

B

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following problem is not expected in preterm babies?
    A. Hyaline membrane disease
    B. Apnea
    C. Hyperbilirubinemia
    D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
    E. Polycythemia
A

E

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following finding is not expected in babies with hyaline membrane disease?
    A. Tachypnea (>60/min)
    B. Dyspnea
    C. Moaning breathing
    D. Cough
    E. Cyanosis
A

D

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4
Q
  1. If hyaline membrane disease occurs in term baby, which of the following is not within the
    Infant with diabetic mother
    B.
    Pneumoniac
    C. Cyanotic congenital heart disease
    D. Perinatal asphyxia
    E. Meconium aspiration syndrome
A

C

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not within the causes of unconjugated hyperbilibuninemia in newborns?
    A. Polycythemia
    B. Bruising or internal hemorrhage
    C. Shortened red blood cell life
    D. Increased enterohepatic circulation
    E. Increased glucuronyl transferase activity
A

E

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is not within the diagnostic criteria for physiologic jaundice?
    A. It appears in the first 2 days after birth
    B. Serum bilirubin is rising at a rate slower than 5 mg/dL/24 hr
    C. Serum bilirubin is <12 mg/dL. in full-terms or <10-14 mg/dL. in preterms
    D. Jaundice does not persist after 10 days at terms and -14 days at preterms
    E. Direct bilirubin fraction is <2 mg dL at any time
A

A

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following parameter is not included in APGAR scoring system?
    A. Heart rate
    B. Respiration
    C. Muscle tone
    D. Reflex response
    E. Consciousness
A

E

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8
Q

Which of the following complication is not expected in perinatal asphyxia?
A. Hypoxie-ischemic encephalopathy
B. Heart failure
C. Hyaline membrane disease
D. Hyperglycemia
E. Meconium aspiration syndrome

A

D

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following finding is not seen in neonate with severe Rh incompatability?
    A. Pallor
    B. Massive anasarca
    C. Hydrops fetalis
    D. Jaundice
    E. Polycytemia
A

E

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory finding is not compatible with Rh incompatability?
    A. Reticulocytopenia
    B. Anemia
    C. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
    D. Direct Coombs test positivity
    E. Polichromasia
A

A

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true for early neonatal sepsis?
    A. Begins within the first weck of life
    B. Group B streptococcus (GBS) is the main pathogen
    C.
    Often accompanied by meningitis
    D.
    Main transmission route is vertical
    E. Maternal colonisation with GBS is the main risk factor
A

C

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory indices has the best sensitivity for predicting neonatal sepsis?
    A. C-reactive protein
    B. An immature-to-total phagocyte count (I/T ratio)
    C. Procalcitonin
    D. Sedimentation rate
    E. IL-6
A

B

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is not cause early neonatal hypocalcemia?
    A. Prematurity
    B. Small for gestational age
    C. Infant of diabetic mother
    D. High phosphate intake
    E. Birth asphyxia
A

D

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct definition of nconatal hypoglycemia?
    A. Blood glucose concentration <45 mg/dL
    B. Blood glucose concentration <50 mg/dL
    C. Blood glucose concentration <55 mg/dL
    D. Blood glucose concentration <60 mg/dL
    E. Blood glucose concentration <65 mg/dL
A

C

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common factor affecting growth in the first 2 years of life?
    A. Nutrition
    B. Growth hormone
    C. Thyroid hormone
    D.
    E. Maternal height
A

A

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of short stature in childhood?
    A. Familial short stature
    B. Constitutional growth delay
    C. Postnatal onset pathologie short stature
    D. Prenatal onset pathologie short stature
    E.
    Malnutrition
A

B

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is an etiologie risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
    A. Maternal age
    B. Hypertension
    C. Body mass index
    D. Prior tubal surgery
    E. Cervical incompetence
A

D

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for erythroblastosis fetalis?
    A. It is not seen in first pregnancy.
    B. Hemolytic anemia appears in the fetus.
    C. It is seen in woman with A Rh+ positive blood group impregnated by a man with Rh- negative
    D. After amniocentesis preventive immunization must be done in risk group.
    E. Transplacental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal red blood cells cause the problem.
A

C

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for preeclampsia?
    Preexisting chronic hypertension
    B. Obesity
    Gestational diabetes
    D. Prelabor rupture of membranes
    E. Older than 35 and younger than 17 maternal age
A

D

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for uterine atony?
    A. Uterine overdistention
    D. Orand mumpanty
    C. Intraamniotic infection
    D. Prolonged - dysfunctional labor
    E. Umbilical cord prolapses
A

E

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a screening test during pregnancy for chromosomal abnormalities?
A.
Double test
B. Triple test
C. Quadruple test
D. NIPT (Noninvasive prenatal test)
E. CVS (Chorionic villus sampling)

A

E

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22
Q
  1. In the antenatal follow up which of the following sereening test should not be offered to all pregnant women?
    A. Hepatitis C
    B. Syphilis
    C. HIV infection
    D. Rubella
    E. Hepatitis B
A

A

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for the placenta?
    A. Its development begins in the 6th-8th weeks and is completed in the 12th week
    B. The placenta is the main organ where hCG and HPL synthesis take place
    C. It synthesizes Progesterone and Estriol from fetus and maternal precursors
    D. ALP is synthesized from placental syncytiotrophoblasts
    E. It weighs 350 gr at term in normal healthy pregnancy
A

E

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong about the ßhCG?
    Its half-life is 48 - 72 hours.
    B. It reaches a peak level (100 000 IU/L) at 9 - 14 weeks,
    C. It is a glycoprotein produced by the syncytiotrophoblast cells.
    D. It has a dimer structure with alpha and beta chains.
    E. The alpha chain is homologous to LH, FSH, and TSH.
A

A

25
Q
  1. What is a double screening test?
    A. Test to identify high-risk persons among healthy persons
    B. Test to identify a diseased person
    C.
    Test to identify a healthy person
    D. Test to identity low risk person among non-healthy persons
    Screening test is a description test
A

A

26
Q

Leopold

A

1

27
Q
  1. Which is defined as primiparity?
    Having a molar hydatidiform
    Having an abortion at 8th gestational week
    C. Having an extrauterine pregnancy
    Delivering a 379 gr baby
    E.
    Delivering a 1780 gr baby
A

E

28
Q
  1. Which is the chromosomal abnormality in Down syndrome?
    A. Trisomy-13
    B. Trisomy-18
    C. Trisomy-21
    D. 45 XO
    E. 47XXX
    NUTRITION
A

C

29
Q
  1. A 24-year-old pregnant woman presents near term with lesions suspicious for primary genital herpes. Culture identifies the presence of HS type 2. At the time of delivery, she still has active genital lesions. Which of the following should be done to avoid transmission of the virus to the baby?
    A. Cesarcan delivery
    B. Internal fetal monitoring
    C. Rupture of the membranes to speed delivery
    D. Vaginal delivery
    E. Induced delivery
A

A

30
Q
  1. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the 18th week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. Which of the following is the best immediate course of action?
    A.
    Administer rubella immune globulin
    B.
    Administer rubella vaccine
    C.
    Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
A

C

31
Q
  1. A 25-year-old female has a 20-weck antenatal scan which demonstrates microcephaly. She had received the full childhood immunisation schedule. There is no history of rash, ulcers, adenopathy or fever during the pregnancy. She has some blood tests sent:
    CMV 1gG positive CMV IgM negative
    CMV PCR <negative
    Rubella IgG positive
    Toxoplasma 1gG positive
    Toxoplasma IgM positive
    TPHA negative
    RPR negative

Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Rubella
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Herpes simplex
E. Treponema pallidum

A

C

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis?
    A. Prematurity
    B. Very low-birth-weight
    C. Feeding with breast milk
    D. Exchange transfusion
    E. Enteral feeding
A

C

33
Q
  1. Which one of the below neoplasms is considered as a small, round, blue-cell tumor of childhood?
    A. Osteosarcoma
    B. Hepatoblastoma
    C. Teratoma
    D. Hodgkin lymphoma
    E. Retinoloblastoma
A

E

34
Q
  1. 3-year-old male toddler was brought to a pediatrician with a complaint of abdominal mass. During the physical examination the doctor finds a big mass crossing the midline. Vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid are found to be elevated in serum. Light microscopy reveals a neoplasm composed of neuropil background and sheets of small, primitive-appearing cells with dark nuclei, scant cytoplasm. There are occasional Homer-Wright pseudorosettes and admixed ganglion cells.
    What is the most likely diagnosis?
    A. Ewing sarcoma
    B. Neuroblastoma
    C. Retinoblastoma
    D. Ganglioncuroblastoma
    E. Nephron lasts
A

D

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is a morphologically unexpected finding in a nonimmune hydrops fetalis associated with fetal anemia?
    A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
    B. Cardiac failure
    C. Aplastic anemia
    D. Liver and spleen enlargement
    E. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
A

C

36
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is wrong about drug use in pregnancy and lactation?
    A. Lipophilic drug’s passage across placenta is high
    B. Most of the drugs are designated in Category C of the formerly used FDA’s teratogenic risk categories
    C. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in 2” & 3 trimesters of pregnancy due to significant and irreversible renal damage in fetus
    D. Neonatal exposure to Lithium through breastmilk would be clinically meaningful
    E. If the mother has to use radioactive substances breast-feeding is not contraindicated
A

E

37
Q
  1. Which one below does sickle cell anemia is caused by single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
    mean
    Single nucleotide change causes mutated hemoglobin protein
    B. Morphology of the red blood cell nucleus is different
    C. It occurs if a nucleotide at any position of the hemoglobin gene changes
    D. It occurs if one nucleotide at six specific positions of the hemoglobin gene changes
    E. It occurs if one nucleotide at any of six specific positions of the hemoglobin gene changes
A

A

38
Q
  1. Which one below is fetal hemoglobin?
    A. Hb Gower 1
    B. Hb Portland
    C. HbF
    D. H6 A
    Е. НЬ А,
A

C

39
Q

What is the maternal age effect?
A. Decreased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as a healthy embryo
B. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as higher occurrence of a gencie disorder in the embryo
C. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the embryo
D. Increased risk of an aberration in the somatic cells manifested as higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the mother
E. Increased risk of an aberration in the somatic cells manifested as higher occurrence of nongenetic disorders in the embryo

A

B. Increased risk of an aberration in the gametes manifested as higher occurrence of a gencie disorder in the embryo

40
Q
  1. Which one below is a genetic cause of congenital heart disease as a common birth defect?
    Silent mutation
    Waardenburg syndrome
    Double-gene mutation
    Single-gene mutation
    Aneoploidy
A

Aneoploidy

41
Q
  1. Which one below is a mitochondrial disease with poor growth phenotype?
    A. Mitochondrial DNA depletion syndrome
    B. MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-red fibers)
    C. LHON (Leber hereditary optic neuropathy)
    D. NARP (neuropathy, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa
A

A

42
Q
  1. Which one below has the highest heritability based on concordance percentages in the monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins?
    A. Autism (90% - MZ, 5% -DZ)
    B. Type I diabetes (43% - MZ, 7% - DZ)
    C. Multiple sclerosis (25% - MZ, 5% - DZ)
    D. Crohn’s discase (37% - MZ., 10% - DZ)
    E. Type 2 diabetes (34% - MZ., 16% - DZ)
A

A

43
Q

Which of the following statements is false about genetic mosaicism?
A. As a result of many post-zygotic changes in the DNA of our cells, each person is a genetic mosaic
B. The vast majority of the post-zygotic DNA changes are random mutations
C. The vast majority of the post-zygotic DNA changes do not affect gene expression
D. Some post-zygotic DNA changes are programmed to occur in a very limited number of cell types
E. Every individual is a genetic mosaic as a result of X-inactivation

A

E

44
Q
  1. Which one below is the most polymorphic human protein that can confer susceptibility to autoimmune disorders and should match to the most extent in donor-recipient tissue pairs at organ or cell transplantation?
    A. HLA
    B. a-globin
    C. B-globin
    D. Hemoglobin
    E. Serum albumin
A

A

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is not implicated in the molecular pathogenesis of facioscapulohumeral dystrophy (1 or 2)?
    A. reduced number of tandem D424 repeats decreasing the heterochromatin
    B. increased heterochromatin
    C. increased euchromatin
    D. activation of DUX4 retrogene
    E. failure of SMCHDI methylation regulator production leading to decreased heterochromatin
A

B

46
Q
  1. Which disease is a single gene disorder that causes a protein misfolding discase that is treated by low dietary intake of a certain amino acid?
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B. a-thalassemia
    C. B-thalassemia
    D. Phenylketonuria
    E. Sickle cell anemia
A

D

47
Q
  1. What is the number in the blank region of the following sentence: if a couple who are both carriers of cystic fibrosis go on to have a child, the risk of having an affected child is I in
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 10
A

D

48
Q
  1. What is the word in the blank region of the following sentence: ex vivo gene therapy was designed to halt the progression of adrenoleukodystrophy, a lipid storage disorder affecting the brain, by transducing an autologous cell population enriched in hematopoictic stem cells with a vector containing an ABCDI coding sequence?
    A. Inactivated
    B. Giant
    C. Empty
    D. Recombinant
    E. Non-recombinant
A

D

49
Q

What is the word in the blank region of the following sentence: leukemias and lymphomas, which
blood cells, can also often develop early in life?
are discases of
A. Red
B. Mature
C. Self-renewing
D. Nonself-renewing
E. Nondifferentiating

A

C

50
Q
  1. Tumors gradually acquire mutations that may evolve from benign to malignant lesions. Because that takes some time, cancer is primarily a disease of aging. So, which one below is not an explanation of evidently contradictory nature of childhood malignant tumor to this fact?
    A. Pediatric tumors are related with stem cells, and such tumors typically have the same number of
    mutations than adult tumor
    B. Precursor cells in case of blood cells are already mobile and invasive and are thought to require fewer DNA changes than in solid tumors that require additional mutations to confer malignancy
    c. Childhood cancers can anise from an initiating mutation that arises earlier, in embryonic cells
    D. Progenitor cells in the embryo resemble cancer cells in the sense that they are poorly differentiated, rapidly dividing, more likely to develop into tumors than differentiated cells once receiving a cancer-predisposing mutation
    E. There is no evidently contradictory nature of childhood cancers to the fact that tumors gradually acquire mutations to evolve from benign to malignant lesions
A

A

51
Q
  1. Concerning preimplantation genetic diagnosis, which of the following statements is correct?
    A. It is carried out within the context of assisted reproduction
    B. Chorion villus biopsies are typically carried out in the first trimester
    C. The analyses always involve genotyping exclusively just a single cell
    D. Sometimes a polar body is analysed to infer the genotype of the embryo
    E. It relies on surgical procedures to recover fetal tissues from a pregnant woman
A

A

52
Q
  1. Which one below is not a pediatric cancer and has the highest number of nonsynonymous somatic mutations per tumor?
    A. Rhabdoid tumor
    B. Neuroblastoma
    C. Medulloblastoma
    D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
    E. Colorectal cancer (microsatellite instability)
A

E

53
Q
  1. Which one below is the type of sample for prenatal testing, which can be obtained at the carliest time?
    A. Fetal skin biopsy
    B. Amniotic fluid
    C. Chorionic villus biopsy
    D. Umbilical cord blood
    E. Fetal DNA in maternal blood
A

E

54
Q
  1. Concerning genetic screening, which of the following statements is false?
    A. Genetic screening is carried out primarily in the population.
    B. In carrier screening the motivation is to identify carriers of a mutant allele for a severe autosomal recessive disorder that has a high prevalence in the population.
    C. In all cases of pregnancy screening the motivation is to identify whether a fetus carries a genetic
    variant associated with a harmful single gene disorder
    D. In newborn screening serious disorders.
    E. In most cases of pregnancy screening the motivation is to identify maternal age-dependent ancuploidy in the fetus.
A

C

55
Q
  1. Which disorder below can currently be a focus for pregnancy sereening?
    A. Trisomy 21
    B. B-thalassemia
    C. Phenylketonuria
    D. Tay-Sachs disease
    E. Huntington diseases
A

A

56
Q
  1. What is the word in the blank region of the following sentence: Conventional
    using
    chromosome banding is nevertheless still clinically important because molecular genetic methods are not suited to detecting balanced chromosome rearrangements?
    A. Sequencing
    B. Karyotyping
    C. Hybridisation
    D. Treatment
    E.
    Silencing
A

B

302 Last Ye (2 decks)

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