How Drugs Act Flashcards

1
Q

what are the protein targets for drug binding

A
  • receptors
  • enzymes
  • specific circulating plasma proteins
  • carrier molecules
  • ion channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 superfamilies of receptos

A
  • ligand gated ion channels
  • g protein coupled receptors
  • kinase linked and related receptors
  • nuclear receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe ligand gated ion channels

A
  • ionotropic
  • composed of 4-5 subunits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe g protein coupled receptors

A
  • metabotropic receptors
  • 7 trans membrane spanning domains
  • heptahelical receptors
  • serpentine receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe kinase linked and related receptors

A
  • large and heterogenous group
  • single trans membrane spanning domain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe nuclear receptors

A

steroid superfamily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor subtypes occur in different ______ regions and these differ from subtype in _______

A

brain; muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the receptor subtypes

A

-different genes, different phenotypes
- same gene, different phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how can there be different genes and different phenotypes

A

different genes encode for different subtypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how can there be same gene different phenotypes

A
  • alternative mRNA splicing
  • single nucleotide polymorphisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does alternative mRNA splicing do

A

single gene can give rise to more than one receptor isoform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

splicing can result in:

A

inclusion or deletion of one or more mRNA coding regions giving rise to short or long forms of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

splicing has a big role in:

A

G-protein coupled receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do single nucleotide polymorphisms often result in

A

different drug receptor efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ligand gated ion channels share structural features with:

A

voltage gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are examples of ligand gated ion channels

A
  • nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
  • gamma- aminobutyric acid type A receptor (GABAa)
  • glutamate receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do GABAa receptors do

A

inhibitory NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what do glutamate receptors do

A

excitatory NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor made of

A

pentamer
- 4 different polypeptide subunits
- each subunit crosses plasma membrane 4 times
- 2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta, and 1 gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the mechanism of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

A
  • acetylcholine binds
  • conformational change occurs
  • transient opening of central aqueous channel
  • Na+ flows from outside to inside cell down electrochemical gradient
  • cell depolarizes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are examples of GPCRs

A
  • muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
  • opioid receptors
  • GABAb)
  • serotonergic receptors
  • adrenergic receptors
  • angiotensin II receptors
  • endothelin receptors
  • histamine receptors
  • photon receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the mechanism of GPCRs

A
  • agonist binds to region inside receptor
  • conformational change in cytoplasmic side
  • G protein affinity for nucleotide GDP is reduced and GDP dissociates
  • GTP binds
  • GTP bound G protein dissociates from the receptor
  • GTP bound g protein engages downstream mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is GTP or GDP higher intracellularly normally

A

GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the important things to know about GPCRs

A
  • there is significant signal amplification from one ligand-receptor interaction
  • heterogeneity of G proteins allow for substantial diversity in GPCR signaling in various tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is there significant signal amplification from one ligand receptor interaction

A

activated GTP bound G proteins remain active much longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the agonists of opioid receptors

A
  • heroin
  • morphine
  • oxycodone
  • hydrocodone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the competitive antagonists of opioid receptors

A
  • naloxone
  • naltrexone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the effect of morphine binding to receptor

A
  • decreased intracellular K+ hyperpolarizes the cell making it refractory
  • decreased intracellular Ca2+ reduces NT release and depolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what would happen if you add naloxone to morphine and why

A

dose response curve would shift to the right because naloxone is a competitive antagonist of morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does increased dosage of morphine do to respiratory rate

A

decreases it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what type of receptors are protease activated receptors

A

GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the mechanism of protease activated receptors

A
  • protease cleaves off part of N-terminal domain of receptor
  • “tethered agonist” remaining attached domain is free to interact with ligand binding domain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are examples of protease activated receptors

A
  • thrombin
  • mast cells following degranulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what receptors are susceptible to desensitization

A

GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the 2 mechanisms which desensitization occurs

A
  • receptor phosphorylation
  • receptor internalization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is an example of desensitization in GPCRs

A
  • beta adrenergic receptors are desensitized by Beta- arrestin phosphorylating receptor which reduces affinity for G-proteins
  • receptor can then be internalized
  • all is rapidly reversible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what do single nucleotide polymorphisms do

A

one amino acid change can result in different phenotypes of receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does cross talk and collaboration between GPCRs occur with?

A

RTKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are kinase linked and related receptors mainly involved with

A

events controlling cell growth and differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how do kinase-linked and related receptors act

A

indirectly by regulating gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does signal transduction of kinase linked and related receptors involve

A

dimerization of two receptor molecules followed by autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues

42
Q

describe the structure of kinase linked and related receptors

A

all have large extracellular ligand binding domains connected via single membrane spanning domain to an intracellular domain which has enzymatic activity

43
Q

what are the 3 major families of kinase linked and related receptors

A
  • receptor tyrosine kinases
  • serine/threonine kinases
  • cytokine receptors
44
Q

what domain of RTKs have tyrosine kinase activity

A

intracellular domain

45
Q

what are examples of RTKs

A
  • epidermal growth factor receptor
  • nerve growth factor
  • toll-like receptors
  • insulin receptors
46
Q

what does the insulin receptor do

A
  • activates PI3 kinase pathway
  • turns on or off gene expression
  • activates glycogen synthesis
  • activates MAP kinase pathway which turns on or off gene expression
47
Q

describe serine/threonine kinases

A

-smaller group than RTKs
- structurally and functionally very similar to RTKs
- phosphorylate serine and threonine instead of tyrosine

48
Q

what is an example of a serine/threonine kinase

A

transforming growth factor (TGF)

49
Q

what are examples of cytokine receptors

A
  • interleukins
    -interferons
  • chemokines
50
Q

cytokine receptors lack:

A

intrinsic enzymatic activity in intracellular domains

51
Q

what do cytokine receptors do

A

associate and activate other kinases

52
Q

what is an example of a cytokine receptor

A
  • JAK binds and activates the Jak-STAT pathway
  • downstream turns on or off gene expression
53
Q

what are ligand examples for nuclear receptots

A
  • estrogens
  • progestins
  • androgens
  • glucocorticoids
  • mineralocorticoids
  • vitamin D
  • vitmain A
  • fatty acids
54
Q

what are the two locations in the cell that nuclear receptors are found

A

cytoplasmic and nuclear

55
Q

what are the two types of domains on nuclear receptors

A
  • ligand binding and DNA binding domains
56
Q

what is the mechanism of action of cytoplasmic nuclear receptors

A
  • most are bound to heat shock proteins when no ligand is present
  • most form homodimers upon ligand binding
  • some form heterodimers with Retinoid X receptor
  • translocate to nucleus to regulate gene expression
57
Q

describe nuclear receptors in the nucleus

A
  • constitutively present in nucleus
  • form heterodimers with RXR
58
Q

what do nuclear receptors do

A

interact with hormone response elements on genes to regulate gene expression

59
Q

what is an example of nuclear receptor

A

androgen receptor

60
Q

what is the effect of the androgen receptor activation in skeletal muscle

A

an increase in contractility because it causes an increase in the production of actin and myosin

61
Q

what are the best enzyme drug targets

A

enzymes that are key rate-limiting steps in biochemical reactions

62
Q

what is the strategy of enzymes as drug targets

A

to reduce enzyme activity through drug inhibition

63
Q

describe non-competitive enzyme inhibitors and give example

A

drug may covalently modify the enzyme
- ex: aspirin acetylates cyclooxygenase

64
Q

describe competitive enzyme inhibitors and give example

A
  • drug is often a structural analog of the natrually occurring substrate
  • ex: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
65
Q

what is the classic HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

66
Q

what do statins do

A

competitively inhibit rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis in liver
- liver upregulates LDL receptors thereby reducing plasma LDL concentrations

67
Q

what is the statin we need to know

A

lovastatin

68
Q

lovastatin acts on what rate limiting stp

A

mevalonate formation

69
Q

what circulating plasma protein causes disease and/or symptoms

A

tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha)

70
Q

TNF alpha is elevated in:

A

RA, crohn’s disease, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis
- in severe cases of aphthous ulcers

71
Q

lowering TNF alpha in RA and Crohns does what?

A

decreases symptoms and may delay progression

72
Q

what are the monoclonal antibodies that recognize, bind and remove TNF alpha from circulaiton

A

infliximad and adalimumbad

73
Q

what does etanercept do

A

soluble TNF alpha receptor that binds and decreases TNF alpha

74
Q

what antibody binds IL2

A

daclizumab

75
Q

what antibody binds IL5

A

mepolzumab

76
Q

why are carrier molecules good drug targets

A

they regulate key cellular events

77
Q

what are the small molecule transporters

A
  • NT uptake
  • organic ion transporters
  • p-glycoprotein
78
Q

what does p-glycoprotein do

A

protective role in moving potential toxicants out of GI epithelial cells back into lumen to prevent absorption

79
Q

what drug blocks p-glycoprotein

80
Q

why do you want to block p-glycoprotein

A
  • could increase absorption of some drugs
  • could potentially increase activity of anti-cancer drugs
81
Q

describe Na+/K+ ATPase

A
  • moves Na+ out and K+ in against concentration gradient
  • requires energy
  • key in all muscle contraction, nervous conduction, ion gradient establishment
  • provides the driving force for other ion transporters
  • can be inhibited by drugs
82
Q

what drug inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase

83
Q

what are the types of voltage gated ion channels

A
  • Na+ channels
  • Ca2+ channels
  • K+ channels
84
Q

what are the types of Ca2+ channels

A
  • Long
  • Transient
  • Neuronal
85
Q

what are the types of Na+ channels

A

fast and slow types

86
Q

what are the types of K+ channels

A

voltage and ligand gated types

87
Q

what is the resting membrane potential in voltage gated ion channels

88
Q

what is the depolarized membrane potenital in voltage gated ion channels

89
Q

what type of drug is verapamil

A

Ca++ channel blocker

90
Q

what does verapamil do

A
  • bind to L-type Ca2+ channels in heart and vascular smooth muscle
  • blocks movement of calcium from outside to inside
  • reduced cardiac contraction
  • slows cardiac conduction
  • reduces vascular smooth muscle contraction
  • reduces BP
91
Q

what is the mechanism of action of the contraction of cardiac muscle

A
  • depolarization of the membrane leads to calcium influx through L-type calcium channels
  • results in an increase in intracellular calcium
  • calcium stimulates further calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to further increase intracellular calcium
  • contractility increases with the increased availability of calcium for contraction
92
Q

what does ATP stand for

A

adenosine trophosphate

93
Q

what does RyR stand for and what type of channel is this

A
  • ryanodine receptor
  • ligand activated calcium channel
94
Q

what does CICR stand for

A

calcium induced calcium release

95
Q

what does SERCA stand for

A

sarcoplasmic/endoplasmuc reticulum Ca2+ ATPase

96
Q

what happens during the P wave

A

atrial depolarization

97
Q

what happens during the T wave

A

ventricular repolarization

98
Q

what happens during the QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization

99
Q

what do calcium channel blockers do

A
  • reduce calcium influx into the cardiac muscle reducing intracellular calcium and force of contraction
  • negative ionotropic effect
100
Q

what is the negative chronotropic effect of calcium channel blockers

A
  • blockage of calcium channels in pacemaker (SA node), AV node, and Purkinje fibers in the heart, calcium channel blockers reduce depolarization and slow conduction of depolarizing waves through the heart